Physiology Comp Review Flashcards

1
Q
Which of the following cell types respond to rapid changes in the visual image
A. Bipolar cells
B. Amacrine cells
C. X type ganglion cells
D. Y type ganglion cells
E. Z type ganglion cells
A

D. Y type ganglion cells

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2
Q
If the end-diastolic volume is 120ml and the end-systolic volume is 50ml, what is the approximate value of the ejection fraction
A. 42%
B. 60%
C. 214%
D. 240%
A

B. 60%

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3
Q
In typical sensory pathways, decussation occurs at what level
A. Primary (first order) neurons
B. Secondary (second order) neurons
C. Tertiary (third order) neurons
D. None of these
A

B. Secondary (second order) neurons

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4
Q
Significant reduction in ECF and blood volume, diminished cardiac output, and hyperalkemia are characteristic of lack of which of the following
A. Aldosterone
B. Estrogen
C. Cortisol
D. DHEA
A

A. Aldosterone

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5
Q

A person on serotonin reuptake inhibitors may experience decreased GI motility. The reason for this is primarily due to which of the following reasons
A. Secretory neurons of the submucosal plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter
B. Motor neurons of the myenteric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter
C. Interneurons of the myenteric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter
D. Sensory neurons of the submucosal plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter

A

C. Interneurons of the myenteric plexus utilize serotonin as a neurotransmitter

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6
Q

Physiology II now

A

okay

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7
Q
A sharp surge in which of the following hormones precedes ovulation by about 24 hours
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
A

A. LH

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8
Q
Which center is primarily responsible for establishing the ramp signal during normal breathing
A. Dorsal respiratory center
B. Pneumotaxic center
C. Ventral respiratory center
D. Carotid body
A

A. Dorsal respiratory center

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9
Q

Which of the following represents the first thing that happens after Ach binds to the ligand-gated channels on the sarcolemma
A. An action potential is created on the sarcolemma
B. DHP channels allow entry of calcium ions
C. An end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber
D. Ryanodingaling channels allow calcium to escape into the myoplasm

A

C. An end-plate potential is created on the muscle fiber

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10
Q
In the dog with the intact feedback system the arterial pressure increases from 100 to 110. In the animal with the inactivated control system, the pressure increases from 100 to 160. What is the effectiveness with which the baroreceptor system controls increase in blood pressure
A. -1
B. -2
C. -4
D. -5
A

D. -5

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11
Q
A systemic vein is about eight times as distensible as its corresponding artery and has a volume about three times as great. How would its compliance compare to that of a corresponding artery
A. 8 times as compliant
B. 3 times as compliant
C. 24 times as compliant
D. 2.6 times as compliant
A

C. 24 times as compliant

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12
Q
The Va/Q ratio is 0 under which of the following conditions
A. Va= infinity, but Q=0
B. Va= infinity, but Q=1
C. Va= 0, but perfusion >0
D. Va >0, but Q=0
A

C. Va=0, but perfusion > 0

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13
Q
Of the following ions, which is most concentrated in the extracellular environment
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
A

A. Sodium

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14
Q

GFR is determined by the net filtration pressure and the glomerular capillary filtration coefficient. Which of the following factors has the greatest effect on increasing GFR
A. Glomerular capillary colloid osmotic pressure
B. Bowmans capsule hydrostatic pressure
C. Bowmans capsule colloid osmotic pressure
D. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

A

D. Glomerular hydrostatic pressure

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15
Q
The thalamus is derived from which of the following brain divisions
A. Telencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Mesencephalon
D. Metencephalon
E. Myelencephalon
A

B. Diencephalon

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16
Q
In a typical ECH=G, which of the following occurs at the beginning of the contraction of the atria
A. T
B. S
C. P
D. Q
A

C. P

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17
Q
Which of the following is part of the pyramidal system of motor pathways
A. Rubrospinal tract
B. Vestibulospinal tract
C. Corticospinal tract
D. Reticulospinal tract
A

C. Corticospinal tract

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18
Q
The cardiac muscle fast action potential occurs in the atria, ventricles and conduction system. It is typically divided into five phases, numbered 0-4. The resting potential of -85 mV is characteristic of which of the following phases
A. Phase 0
B. Phase 1
C. Phase 2
D. Phase 3
E. Phase 4
A

E. Phase 4

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19
Q
Which of the following, in liters/day, represents the GFR in the average adult human
A. 3
B. 125
C. 180
D. 360
A

C. 180

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20
Q

Muscle spindles and Golgi tendon organs are types of tonic receptors. Which of the following applies to tonic receptors
A. Rapidly adapting
B. Transmit information regarding rate of change
C. Stimulated only when stimulus strength changes
D. Detects continuous stimulus strength

A

D. Detects continuous stimulus strength

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21
Q

Humidification of air in the alveoli has which of the following effects on the partial pressures of nitrogen and oxygen in the alveoli
A. It increases partial pressures of each of the other gases
B. It decreases partial pressures of each of the other gases
C. It has not effect on the partial pressures of each of the other gases
D. It increases the partial pressure of oxygen but decreases the partial pressure of nitrogen

A

B. It decreases the partial pressures of each of the other gases

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22
Q
Phase 4 of the cardiac muscle action potential is the resting phase. Which of the following cardiac tissues will depolarize fasted during this phase and eventually reach threshold
A. SA node
B. AV node
C. Purkinje fibers
D. Ventricular monocytes
A

A. SA node

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23
Q
84% of the blood volume is in the systemic circulation. Of this, 64% is in which of the following vessels
A. Capillaries
B. Systemic arteries
C. Veins
D. Arterioles
A

C. Veins

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24
Q
Sensory information entering the central nervous system typically decussates at some point in the spinal cord or brain. For visual information, this decussation occurs in the optic chiasma. How much decussation occurs in the optic chiasma
A. 25%
B. 50%
C. 75%
D. 100%
A

B. 50%

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25
Q
Which of the following is the direction of bipolar lead III
A. 0 degrees
B. 60 degrees
C. 90 degrees
D. 120 degrees
A

D. 120 degrees

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26
Q
The sodium-potassium ATPase pump is an example of which of the following types of transport
A. Diffusion
B. Primary active transport
C. Secondary active transport
D. Facilitated diffusion
A

B. Primary active transport

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27
Q
The pressure difference between pleural pressure and alveolar pressure is referred to as
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Compliance
C. Thoracic pressure
D. Transpulmonary pressure
A

D. Transpulmonary pressure

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28
Q
During the menstrual cycle, the early growth of a follicle is primarily stimulated by which of the following
A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
A

B. FSH

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29
Q
Which of the following sarcomeric bands does not undergo a change in length during the contraction of a skeletal muscle
A. A band
B. H band
C. I band
D. J band
E. Sgt peppers lonely hearts club band
A

A. A band

30
Q
Which of the following cells plays a major role in the secretion of potassium
A. Intercalated cells
B. Principal cells
C. Chief cells
D. Podocytes
A

B. Principal cells

31
Q
Which of the following buffer systems is most important in buffering renal tubular fluid 
A. Phosphate buffer system
B. Carbonate buffer system
C. Bicarbonate buffer system
D. Hemoglobin buffer system
A

A. Phosphate buffer system

32
Q
What is the volume of venous return when the mean systemic filling pressure is 7 mm Hg, and the right atrial pressure is 0 mm Hg, and the resistance to venous return is 1.4 mm Hg/L/min
A. 4 liters/min
B. 5 liters/min
C. 9.8 liters/mi
D. 7 liters/min
A

B. 5 liters/min

33
Q

Baroreceptors are a type of stretch receptor located in the arterial walls of the carotid system. They sense and increase in arterial pressure. Which of the following statements might best describe the purpose of these receptors
A. They act as part of a positive feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and an increase in heart pumping capacity
B. They act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and a decrease in heart pumping capacity
C. They act as part of a positive feedback system that results in blood vessel constriction and a decrease in heart pumping capacity
D. They act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel constriction and an increase in heart pumping capacity

A

B. They act as part of a negative feedback system that results in blood vessel dilation and a decrease in heart pumping capacity

34
Q
Hypocalcemia usually becomes lethal at which of the following levels
A. 12 mg/dl
B. 9.5 mg/dl
C. 6 mg/dl
D. 4 mg/dl
A

D. 4 mg/dl

35
Q
Approximately what percentage of carbon dioxide is carried as bicarbonate
A. 5%
B. 25%
C. 30%
D. 70%
A

D. 70%

36
Q
Aldosterone is an important regulator of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion; one of its main targets is
A. Podocytes
B. Principal cells
C. Intercalated cells
D. Cells of macula densa
A

B. Principal cells

maybe review principal/intercalated cells

37
Q
The rate and depth of breathing is mainly controlled through which of the following brain centers
A. Dorsal respiratory group
B. Pneumotaxic center
C. Ventral respiratory center
D. Carotid body
A

B. Pneumotaxic center

38
Q
Coordination of skilled movement and speech is primarily associated with which of the following divisions of the cerebellum
A. Vestibulocerebellum
B. Spinocerebellum
C. Cerebrocerebellum
D. Vermis
A

C. Cerebrocerebellum

39
Q
If arterial blood carries 19.4 ml of oxygen per deciliter, and the returning venous blood carries 14.4 ml of oxygen per deciliter, the utilization coefficient is approximately
A. 25%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 75%
A

A. 25%

40
Q

Almost 90% of glucose reabsorption occurs in the early proximal tubule. Which of the following mechanisms is responsible for moving glucose from the tubular lumen into the cytoplasmic compartment
A. Primary active transport via a glucose ATPase pump
B. Secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose cotransporter
C. Secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose antiporter
D. Diffusion due to concentration differences between tubular fluid and cytoplasm

A

B. Secondary active transport via a sodium/glucose cotransporter

41
Q

Which of the following characteristics would be true of cardiac muscle cells but not skeletal muscle fibers
A. Cells have the sarcomeric banded pattern
B. Cells utilize T tubules
C. Cells are mononucleated
D. Cells utilize ryanodine channels

A

C. Cells are mononucleated

42
Q
For each molecule of glucose that is hydrolyzed in glycolysis, what is the net gain in ATPs
A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 8
A

A. 2

43
Q
Approximately what percent of the bodies calcium is stored in extracellular fluids
A. Less than 1 percent
B. 25 percent
C. 50 percent
D. More than 75 percent
A

A. Less than 1 percent

44
Q
Which of the following plays a major roll in stimulating potassium secretion by the kidney tubules
A. Aldosterone
B. Angiotensin II
C. Sodium ion
D. PTH
A

A. Aldosterone

45
Q
Dihydropyridine channels are part of which of the following structures
A. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. Plasmalemma
C. T tubules
D. Z discs
A

C. T tubules

46
Q
About two-thirds of filtered electrolytes are reabsorbed in which part of the kidney tubule
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Thin descending loop of henle
C. Thick ascending loop of henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
A

A. Proximal convoluted tubule (almost everything is reabsorbed here)

47
Q
The output from the cerebellar cortex is from which of the following types of neurons
A. Golgi type I
B. Purkinje
C. Stellate
D. Basket
A

B. Purkinje

48
Q
Which of the following is secreted by duodenal and upper jejunal cells in response to the presence of acidic foods in the upper intestine? It stimulates the release of large amounts of pancreatic sodium bicarbonate and inhibits gastric acid secretion
A. Secretin
B. CCK
C. Gastrin
D. Motilin
A

A. Secretin

49
Q
Control functions for muscle movements of the axial body, neck, shoulders nad hips are located in which of the following areas of the cerebellum
A. Vermis
B. Intermediate zone
C. Lateral zone
D. Cerebrocerebellum
A

A. Vermis

50
Q
Saltatory conduction is characteristic of which part of a typical neuron
A. Dendrite
B. Nerve cell body
C. Axon hillock
D. Axon
A

D. Axon

51
Q
Which part of the cerebral cortex develops a motor image of the total muscle movement that is to be performed
A. Primary motor cortex
B. Supplemental motor cortex
C. Premotor cortex
D. Supplementary motor cortex
A

C. Premotor cortex

52
Q
In the typical individual, arterial pressure drops by how much from the time it leaves the left ventricle until it reaches the venous system
A. 35 mm Hg
B. 40 mm Hg
C. 80 mm Hg
D. 120 mm Hg
A

D. 120 mm Hg

53
Q
When hair cell stereocilia are bent, a tugging on the shorter stereocilia occurs such that ion channels open allowing which of the following to enter the hair cells
A. Potassium
B. Sodium
C. Chloride
D. Calcium
A

A. Potassium

54
Q

Which of the following statements is true
A. The liver has a low blood flow and a high vascular resistance
B. The liver has a low blood flow and a low vascular resistance
C. The liver has a high blood flow and a high vascular resistance
D. The liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

A

D. The liver has a high blood flow and a low vascular resistance

55
Q

The gastrocolic reflex, enterogastric reflex, and colonoileal reflex are examples of which of the following categories of gastrointestinal reflexes
A. Reflexes that are integrated entirely within the gut wall enteric nervous system
B. Reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and then back to the GI tract
C. Reflexes from the gut to the spinal cord or brain stem and then back to the GI tract
D. None of the above is correct

A

B. Reflexes from the gut to the prevertebral sympathetic ganglia and then back to the GI tract

56
Q
Vital capacity does not include which of the following volumes
A. Inspiratory reserve
B. Expiratory reserve
C. Residual
D. Tidal
A

C. Residual

57
Q
Which of the following landmarks demarcates the sensory cortex from the motor cortex
A. Lateral sulcus
B. Central sulcus
C. Insula
D. Angular gyrus
A

B. Central sulcus

58
Q

Respiratory alkalosis due to a decrease in carbon dioxide concentration caused by hyperventilation is compensated for by which of the following mechanisms
A. Increased ventilation rate
B. Decreased ventilation rate
C. Renal excretion of bicarbonate ion
D. Renal addition of new bicarbonate ion to extracellular fluid

A

C. Renal excretion of bicarbonate ion

kidneys compensate for alkalosis/acidosis

59
Q
Fructose, which provides energy for sperm, is secreted by which of the following
A. Seminal vesicles
B. Prostate gland
C. Cells of Leydig
D. Sertoli cells
A

A. Seminal vesicles

60
Q
Which of the following inhibits secretion of insulin, glucagon, and gastrin; decreases motility of the stomach and duodenum, and decreases secretion and absorption of the GI tract
A. Glucokinase
B. Carnitine
C. Somatostatin
D. Acetoacetic acids
A

C. Somatostatin

61
Q
Approximately what percentage of total cardiac output is received by the kidneys
A. 15%
B. 22%
C. 34%
D. 47%
A

B. 22%

62
Q

Which of the following heart activities is represented in the attached ECG (picture shows only P waves spread apart)
A. Sinus tachycardia
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Complete AV block
D. Incomplete second degree block with dropped beats

A

C. Complete AV block

63
Q
The main hormone responsible for controlling feedback of the duodenum is 
A. CCK
B. Chyme
C. Motilin
D. GIP
A

A. CCK

64
Q
The mean circulatory filling pressure is 0 under which of the following conditions
A. When blood volume is 5 liters
B. When blood volume is 4 liters
C. When blood volume is 6.5 liters
D. When blood volume is 5.5 liters
A

B. When blood volume is 4 liters

65
Q
A higher than normal back pressure in hepatic veins may lead to which of the following conditions
A. Jaundice
B. Cirrhosis
C. Ascites
D. Diabetes
A

C. Ascites

66
Q
Which of the following areas of the brain is normally inhibited by signals from the heat center but is activated by cold signals from th skin and spinal cord and is responsible for the activation of shivering responses
A. Anterior hypothalamus
B. Preoptic area
C. Posterior hypothalamus
D. Thalamus
A

C. Posterior hypothalamus

67
Q
Surfactant is a lipoprotein essential to maintain alveolar function. In a healthy fetus, it is formed in the lungs at what time
A. 24 weeks gestation
B. 28 weeks gestation
C. 34 weeks gestation
D. 38 weeks gestation
A

A. 24 weeks gestation

68
Q
The human central nervous system develops from a midline tube. The cranial end of the tube is formed into five subdivisions arranged in a linear sequence. The cerebellum of the adult brain is derived from which of the following subdivisions
A. Metencephalon
B. Diencephalon
C. Telencephalon
D. Myelencephalon
A

A. Metencephalon

69
Q
The cerebral cortex is divided into many areas with specific sets of functions. Which of the following areas of the cerebral cortex would have direct connections with specific muscles
A. Primary motor areas
B. Secondary motor areas
C. Primary sensory areas
D. Secondary sensory areas
A

A. Primary motor areas

70
Q
Which of the following heart activities is represented in the attached ECG (Lead I) (picture shows many waves in short spurts)
A. Sinus tachycardia
B. Sinus bradycardia
C. Complete AV block
D. Incomplete second degree block
A

A. Sinus tachycardia