Pharm 1 - Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is an non-selective adrenergic agonist used in the treatment of asthma?

A

Epinephrine

B-2 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What form of administration is ineffective for Epinephrine?

A

oral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Name the long-acting beta 2 adrenergic agonist for asthma.

A

Salmeterol/Serevent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which asthma drug must be used in conjunction with other therapies?

A

Salmeterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What inhibits Salmeterol?

A

beta blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the class of drugs Ipratropium/Atrovent is in?

A

anticholinergics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which asthma medication has the narrowest TI and in which class is it?

A

Theophylline/Theo-dur
xanthine/methylthanthine bronchodilator
*looks like caffiene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If you want to give an inhaled corticosteroid to an asthma patient, what med would you use?

A

Beclomethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If you have a patient with COPD or worsening asthma, what corticosteroid would you give?

A

Prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Name a leukotriene inhibitor used in the treatment of chronic asthma. What enzymes does this drug inhibit?

A

Zafirlukast/Accolate

CYP450

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What other class of drugs is often added to antitussives used in COPD?

A

Antihistamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Name two antitussives and their classes given for COPD.

A

Codeine (narcotic analgesic/cough suppressant)

Dextromethorphan/DM (synthetic derivative of morphine/cough suppressant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOA and #1 side effect for Diphenhydramine/Benadryl?

A

Histamine 1 receptor site blockage

sedation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which drug is a non-sedating antihistamine used for allergic rhinitis? Why is it non-sedating?

A

Loratadine/Claratin

Don’t cross BBB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

T/F. Both Dephenhydramine and Loratadine block the production of histamine.

A

False. The receptor is just blocked.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which drug would you choose if you wanted a nasal corticosteroid for treating nasal rhinitis?

A

Beclomethasone/Beconase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the most addictive OTC drug and its class? Hint: it’s used to treat allergic rhinitis.

A

Phenylephrine/Afrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

This drug has the rebound effects of rhinitis medicosum

A

Phenylephrine/Afrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the most effective smoking cessation drug and its MOA?

A

Varencycline/Chantix

partial agonist of alpha4/beta2 nicotinic acetylcholine receptor sites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the second most effective smoking cessation drug? What is it’s MOA?

A

Bupriopion SR/Wellbutrin

dopamine-NE reuptake inhibitor (depression med)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What drug is based on the Ayurvedic herb Khella?

A

Cromolyn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What stage of HTN is a BP of 160-179/100?

A

Stage 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What stage of HTN is a BP of 140-159/90s?

A

Stage 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What Stage of HTN is a BP of >180/>110?

A

Stage 3/malignant HTN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which HTN med is contraindicated in patients with low GFR and gout patients?

A

Hydrochlorthiazide/Hydrodiuril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Is Hydrochlorthiazide/Hydrodiuril K+ sparing or wasting?

A

wasting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which two drugs help the K+ wasting of Hydrochlorthiazide/Hydrodiuril?

A

ACE inhibitors

B-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which class of drugs has the strongest diuretic effect?

A

loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Name a loop diuretic. Is it safe to use in patients with renal failure?

A

Furosemide/Lasix
No, it’s not effective for pts with renal failure but it is the drug of choice for those with low GFR or in hypertensive emergencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the MC side effects of diuretics?

A

hypotension

edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which of the diuretics is most likely to cause hypercalcemia?

A

Hydrochlorthiazide/Hydrodiuril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is a common dose of K+ given to patients on K+ wasting diuretics?

A

10mE or 750mg KCl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which diuretic is K+ sparing?

A

Spironolactone/Aldactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which diuretic is a direct aldosterone antagonist?

A

Spironolactone/Aldactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Do not use this diuretic for pts taking K supplements, ACE inhibitors or ARBs OR those with renal insufficiency, uncontrolled DM or osteomyelitis.

A

Spironolactone/Aldactone

36
Q

This K+ sparing diuretic is a Na+ channel blocker

A

Triamterene/Dyrenium

37
Q

Where are the highest concentration of Beta 1 and Beta 2 receptors?

A

B1: heart
B2: lung

38
Q

What is the antidote to b-blockers? MOA?

A

glucagon

increase cAMP in myocardium, bypasses beta adrenergic 2nd messenger system

39
Q

Which patients should not be given Propanolol/Inderal?

A

COPD/asthma (it is known to cause bronchospasm)

cardiac conduction abnormalities

40
Q

What class of drugs may result in rebound tachycardia, HTN, stroke of MI if discontinued suddenly?

A

beta blockers

41
Q

Name 3 Category X drugs

A

Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor)
Warfarin (anticoagulant)
Lorsartan (angiotensin II receptor blocker)

42
Q

This drug is a cardiac specific beta 1 blocker

A

atenolol/tenormin

43
Q

This class of drugs is known to cause weakness, fatigue, lethargy, depression, CNS disturbance, sexual dysfunction, bradycardia

A

beta blockers

44
Q

What three conditions in addition to HTN would lead someone to use a beta blocker as a first line therapy?

A

migraine
angina
MI soothed by beta blockers previously

45
Q

Which of the alpha blockers blocks alpha 1 receptors?

A

Prazosin/Minipress

46
Q

What is the MOA of Rauwolfia Alkaloids/Reserpine?

A

Peripheral adrenergic blockade

47
Q

Name the Ca Channel Blocker

A

Verapamil/Isopten

48
Q

What drug is most indicated for treating vasospastic angina in addition to HTN?

A

Verapamil/Isopten

49
Q

What is the risk of using Ca Channel Blockers with beta blockers?

A

bradycardia

50
Q

What is the drug of choice in treating pts with HTN and DM? What is its class?

A

Lisinopril/Prinivil (ACE inhibitor)

51
Q

Which drug inhibits the degradation of bradykinins, resulting in a dry irritating cough?

A

Lisinopril/Prinivil

52
Q

Someone comes in with angioedema. What drug might they be taking?

A

Lisinopril/Prinivil

53
Q

What class of drugs should Lisinopril never be mixed with?

A

K+ sparing diuretics. It has a potential for hyperkalemia on its own

54
Q

What is the drug of choice in treating HTN with CHF of DM in conjunction with proteinuria? What is it’s class?

A

Losartan/Cozaar (ARB)

55
Q

What is the MOA for Losrtan/Cozaar (ARB)?

A

blocks the effects of angiotensin II, decreasing peripheral vasoconstriction.

56
Q

This drug does not block the degredation of bradykinins and therefore produces less of a cough compared to ACE inhibitors

A

Losartan/Cozaar (ARB)

57
Q

This drug reduces peripheral sympathetic nervous activity by stimulating the presynaptic alpha2 adrenergic receptors in the CNS.

A

Methyldopa/Aldomet

58
Q

What drug might you use when a pt’s HTN does not respond to 2-3 meds concurrently?

A

Methyldopa/Aldomet

59
Q

In what class of drug is Methyldopa/Aldomet?

A

Centrally Acting Alpha Agonist

60
Q

Name 2 direct vasodilators and their most notable side effects.

A

Minoxidil/Loniten (hirsuitism) AKA Rogaine

Hydrakazine/Apresoline (Drug-induced SLE)

61
Q

What drug falls in the category of renin-blocker?

A

Aliskiren/Tekturna

62
Q

What is the MOA of IV Nitroglycerine and IV Sodium Nitroprusside and when might you use them?

A

NO = vasodilation of veins and arteries

Emergency anti-HTN

63
Q

A woman comes in with emergent pregnancy-induced HTN, what drug would be used?

A

IV Labetalol

64
Q

What is the MOA for aspirin?

A

irreversibly inhibits COX 1 and 2 = decrease platelet agg.

65
Q

Someone comes in with hyperventilation, tinnitis, dizziness, n/v. What is this constellation of symptoms called when associated with aspirin?

A

Salicylism

66
Q

In what patients is aspirin indicated to reduce MI?

A

unstable angina

hx of infarction

67
Q

This drug is an ADP receptor antagonist and is known to reduce the risk of thrombotic events

A

Clopidogrel/Plavix

68
Q

This anti-thrombotic drug is CI in pts with internal bleeding, intracranial hemorrhage, head trauma, or stroke w/i 30 days

A

Abciximab/Reopro

69
Q

What class of drug is Abciximab/Reopro?

A

Glycoprotein IIB/IIIA inhibitor

70
Q

These three anti-coagulants inactivate factor X(Xa)

A

Heparin
Enoxaparin/Lovenox (LMW Heparin)
Rivatoxaban/Xarelto

71
Q

What is the most unique side effect of Enoxaparin?

A

Heparin induced throbocytopenia (HIT) syndrome

discontinue if platelets drop below 100,000/mm3

72
Q

Protamine sulfate antidotes what drugs?

A

Heparin, Enoxaparin/Lovenox (LMW Heparin)

73
Q

This anticoagulant affects vitamin K dependent factors

A

Warfarin/Coumadin

74
Q

This is the only drug that actually lyses clots via the activation of plasmin.

A

Streptokinase

75
Q

What drug should not be given to pts who have had reent head trauma, GI bleed, surgery or intracranial neoplasm within the last 30 days?

A

Streptokinase

76
Q

Which drugs should not be prescribed with Silendafil/Viagra?

A

Nitrates (nitroglycerin and Isosorbide Dinitrate/Isordil)

77
Q

This is a long acting nitrate vasodilator

A

Isosorbide Dinitrate/Isordil

78
Q

Beta blockers are mainly indicated in what conditions?

A

HTN
Angina
post-MI
Panic-attacks

79
Q

What is the antidote for Amlodopine/Norvasc (a Ca+ Channel Blocker)?

A

Calcium gluconate

80
Q

What drug might be used for pain relief in unstable angina?

A

morphine (opiate receptor agonist)

81
Q

For what is Nalaxone/Narcan an antidote?

A

Morphine

82
Q

What is the acronym for unstable angina?

A

M: morphine
O: oxygen
A: aspirin
N: Nitroglycerin

83
Q

What is the antidote for Streptokinase?

A

Aminocapoic Acid

84
Q

What drug is particularly indicated for HTN and BPH?

A

Prazosin/minipress

85
Q

Which drug is CI for those with sulfa allergies?

A

HCTZ