Peripheral Arterial Flashcards

1
Q
A normal spectral waveform of the brachial artery is
A. Triphasic
B. Biphasic
C. Monophasic
D. Both A and B
A

D. The normal spectral waveform of the brachial artery is high resistant and can either be triphasic or biphasic. The only difference between the two is the third component of the waveform that can be lost with age due to decrease in the elasticity of the arteries.

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2
Q
Which of the following is a pathology specific to the upper extremity arteries?
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Carotid body tumor
C. Raynaud's syndrome
D. Embolus
A

A. Thoracic outlet syndrome is specific to the upper extremities. Carotid body tumors only occur at the carotid bifurcation, and the other two choices can occur in the upper or lower extremities.

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3
Q
The type of flow pattern in which the velocities increase toward the center of the vessel and is found in most of the normal peripheral arteries is known as
A. Turbulent
B. Plug 
C. Laminar
D. Occluded
A

C. Laminar blood flow is the normal flow found in most of the peripheral arteries and consists of a parabolic velocity profile which means that flow increases toward the center of the vessel and decreases toward the vessel walls.

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4
Q
What blood vessel is most likely to have a high resistive waveform?
A. Common femoral artery
B. Common carotid artery
C. Renal artery
D. Hepatic artery
A

A. The common femoral is a peripheral artery and should have high resistant flow in normal patients.

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5
Q
The dorsalis pedis artery is a continuation of which artery?
A. Anterior tibial artery
B. Posterior tibial artery
C. Popliteal artery
D. Common femoral artery
A

A. The dorsalis pedis artery is a continuation of the anterior tibial artery.

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6
Q

All of the following are true regarding spectral broadening EXCEPT
A. Spectral broadening is commonly associated with stenosis
B. Spectral broadening refers to the filling of the spectral window with disturbed flow
C. Spectral broadening refers to a decreased in bandwidth with disturbed flow
D. Spectral broadening occurs with turbulent blood flow

A

C. Spectral broadening does not refer to a decrease in bandwidth with disturbed flow. It refers to an increase in bandwidth with disturbed flow.

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7
Q
What is the first branch originating from the aortic arch that is only present on the right side?
A. Subclavian artery
B. Brachiocephalic artery
C. Lateral thoracic artery
D. Internal mammary artery
A

B. The brachiocephalic artery is the first branch originating from the thoracic aortic arch and is only present on the right side.

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8
Q
Which artery is a continuation of the superficial femoral artery as it passes through the adductor canal below the knee?
A. Popliteal artery
B. Tibioperoneal trunk
C. Profunda femoris artery
D. Posterior tibial artery
A

A. The popliteal is a continuation of the superficial femoral artery as it passes through the adductor canal below the knee into the popliteal fossa.

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9
Q
Which artery runs along the medial aspect of the lower leg and courses posterior to the medial malleolus?
A. Peroneal artery
B. Anterior tibial artery
C. Dorsalis pedis artery
D. Posterior tibial artery
A

D. The posterior tibial artery runs along the medial aspect of the lower leg and courses posterior to the medial malleolus.

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10
Q

A patient is sent to your laboratory to have his lower extremity bypass graft evaluated with duplex. While performing the examination you notice that the velocity at the proximal anastomosis is 80 cm/s. You continue the examination and obtain a pulse wave Doppler signal about 1 cm distal to the proximal anastomosis and you get a velocity of 210 cm/s. What do these findings suggest?
A. Normal flow present within this bypass
B. 1% to 19% narrowing of this bypass
C. 20% to 49% narrowing of this bypass
D. 50% to 99% narrowing of this bypass

A

D. A doubling in peak systolic velocity between adjacent segments is consistent with a hemodynamically significant stenosis greater than 50%. The velocities obtained within these segments more than doubles going from 80 to 210 cm/s.

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11
Q

The following is a type of lower extremity bypass
A. Brachial artery to cephalic vein
B. Common femoral artery to popliteal reversed saphenous vein
C. Cephalic vein to brachial vein
D. Femoral vein to internal iliac vein

A

B. Reversed vein grafts are common lower extremity bypasses. None of the other choices are lower extremity bypass grafts.

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12
Q

Which statement is true about the symptom of claudication?
A. Exercise-induced pain caused by too much blood flow to the legs
B. Varies each time regarding distance the patient is able to walk
C. Always relieved by rest
D. Only occurs in the calves

A

C. Claudication is pain in the lower extremities as a result of hypoxia that is reproducible and induced by exercise. After a patient rests, they are then able to walk the same distance before the pain reoccurs.

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13
Q
Rest pain can be relieved by
A. Standing
B. Elevating legs
C. Exercise
D. Taking deep breaths
A

A. Ischemic rest pain can be relieved by lowering the legs dependently, such as standing or dropping the legs off the side of the bed. The arterial inflow is so poor, gravity is needed to get the blood to the feet.

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14
Q
The peak systolic blood pressure in an area of a limb distal to a significant obstruction or stenosis
A. Will increase
B. Will decrease
C. Will remain the same
D. Will double
A

B. The peak systolic blood pressure in an area of a limb distal to a significant obstruction or stenosis will decrease.

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15
Q
Which is the most common cause of peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremities?
A. Arteritis
B. Arterial spasm
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Embolism
A

C. Atherosclerosis is the most common cause of peripheral arterial disease of the lower extremities.

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16
Q

The most common site of atherosclerosis in the lower extremities is
A. The bifurcation of the common iliac arteries
B. The origin of the profunda femoris artery
C. The trifurcation of the tibial arteries
D. The distal superficial femoral artery through the adductor canal

A

D. The most common site of atherosclerosis in the lower extremities is the distal superficial femoral artery through the adductor canal.

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17
Q

An obese patient is sent to your laboratory to be evaluated for arterial disease of the lower extremities. When performing their PVR and segmental pressure study you notice that their thigh PVR waveform indicates moderate disease but the pressure index at this level is 1.14. How do you explain this?
A. The disease is not severe enough to lower the pressure
B. The technologist had to have made a mistake
C. It is most likely the result of cuff artifact
D. This is fine because a pressure of 1.14 is in the range of moderate disease

A

C. Pulse volume recordings in general are more accurate than segmental pressures because they are not affected by the limitations of segmental pressures such as cuff artifact or calcified vessels. An obese patient will most likely have falsely elevated pressures due to the cuff size being too small for the limb. In an obese patient with underlying peripheral arterial disease these elevated pressures may appear to be at a normal level. If the cuff size were appropriate for the limb in this same patient it would result in a much lower pressure.

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18
Q

If a patient has a steal from an AVF graft with no underlying atherosclerotic disease the pre-graft compression digital PPG waveforms obtained during non-invasive arterial testing would show
A. Normal blood flow to the digits
B. Reduced blood flow to the digits
C. No difference in blood flow to the digits
D. Increased blood flow to the digits

A

B. The pre-graft compression study in a patient with an AVF steal will have reduced blood flow to the arm and hand because the fistula is stealing that blood flow. When the graft is manually compressed during the post study there should be an increase in blood flow in order to confirm the diagnosis of a steal.

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19
Q
What is the procedure in which a balloon-tipped catheter is advanced to the level of a focal stenotic lesion under fluoroscopic guidance and a balloon is inflated to push the plaque up against the walls of the artery in an effort to restore normal blood flow to the limb?
A. CT angiography
B. Angioplasty
C. Digital subtraction angiography
D. MR angiography
A

B. Angioplasty is the procedure in which a balloon-tipped catheter is inflated within a stenotic lesion in an attempt to restore normal blood flow to an area.

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20
Q

The brachial artery bifurcates just below the atecubital fossa into which two arteries?
A. Subclavian and axillary arteries
B. Deep and superficial palmar arteries
C. Brachiocephalic and subclavian arteries
D. Radial and ulnar arteries

A

D. The brachial artery bifurcates just below the antecubital fossa into the radial and ulnar arteries. The radial artery runs along the lateral side of the forearm while the ulnar artery runs along the medial side.

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21
Q
Noninvasive physiologic testing that involves placing a PPG on one of the digits of each hand recording waveforms and pressures while the arms are moved through a series of positions is used to evaluate for which syndrome?
A. Subclavian steal syndrome
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
C. Raynaud's syndrome
D. Fibromuscular dysplasia
A

B. Noninvasive testing for thoracic outlet syndrome involves performing physiologic testing with the use of pulse volume recordings or photoplethysmography while moving the patient’s arms in several positions in an attempt to reduce the perfusion to the hand. The symptomatic position should be attempted; however, there are many common positions used during this examination such as the Adson maneuver with arms abducted out to sides, the costoclavicular maneuver with chest pushed forward and shoulders back, military position with elbow pointing to the rear and arms almost upright with palms facing forward, the hands straight up 180 degrees, and the arms straight out and abducted toward the rear.

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22
Q

In a blood vessel with a nonhemodynamically significant stenosis, if the diameter decreases what happens to the flow volume?
A. Flow volume increases
B. Flow volume decreases
C. Flow volume remains unchanged
D. Volume increases but velocity decreases

A

C. As the diameter of a blood vessel decreases, the flow remains a constant as long as the stenosis is not hemodynamically significant.

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23
Q

Which statement is accurate related to a vessel that has a hemodynamically significant stenosis?
A. There is an increased pressure gradient across the segment
B. There is a decreased pressure gradient across the segment
C. There is an increase in velocity at area of stenosis
D. There is a decrease in velocity at area of stenosis
E. Both A and C
F. Both A and D

A

E. In a normal vessel the velocity of blood flow and the pressure do not change significantly. When a hemodynamically significant stenosis is present within an artery there is an increase in the pressure gradient across the segment as well as increase in the velocity of blood flow within the stenosis. The turbulent flow that exists past the stenosis caused the pressure distal to the stenosis to drop resulting in a pressure that is now lower than the pressure proximal to the stenosis. The difference between these two pressures is what is known as a pressure gradient and is what increases with a stenosis due to the change in pressures.

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24
Q
Which surgical procedure has the highest potential for problems such as arteriovenous fistulas and retained valves?
A. Aorta-femoral bypass
B. In-situ saphenous vein bypass
C. Reversed saphenous vein bypass
D. Synthetic bypass
A

B. An in-situ saphenous vein bypass is created by leaving the native vein in its normal anatomical position, removing the internal valves and ligating the accessory branches, and finally attaching each end to the proximal and distal native arteries. This type of surgical bypass has the highest potential for a missed branch and retained valves because the vein is not being completely removed and reversed, unlike the reversed saphenous vein bypass in which the valves do not have to be removed. There would be no concern for missed branches or retained valves with an artificial bypass graft.

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25
Q
An abnormal connection between an artery and a vein that can occur spontaneously or as a result of trauma is known as
A. Anastomosis
B. Pseudoaneurysm
C. Arteriovenous fistula
D. Dissection
A

C. An arteriovenous fistula occurs when there is an abnormal connection between a native artery and vein resulting in a high volume jet of flow passing between both systems. They can occur spontaneously or traumatically.

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26
Q
What is the name of the most widely utilized ratio used to evaluate overall perfusion to the lower extremity arteries?
A. Resistive index
B. Pulsatility index
C. Ankle-brachial index
D. Pressure gradient index
A

C. The ankle-brachial index or ABI is the most widely utilized ratio used to evaluate overall perfusion to the lower extremity arteries and is calculated by taking the ankle pressure and dividing it by the higher of the two brachial pressures.

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27
Q
Which of the following may be used to diagnose the severity of a stenotic lesion with duplex?
A. Peak systolic velocity
B. Resistive index
C. Pulsatility index
D. Ankle-brachial index
A

A. Peak systolic velocity, end diastolic velocity, and peak systolic velocity ratios are all used to determine the severity of a stenosis. RI and PI are indices used to quantify the distal bed. The ankle-brachial index is not performed with duplex sonography.

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28
Q
All of the following are physical findings that can be associated with obstructive arterial disease of the lower extremities EXCEPT
A. Shiny tight appearance to the skin
B. Hair loss to the foot
C. Ulcer on the heel
D. Palpable pulse (grade 3)
A

D. A palpable grade 3 pulse indicates normal perfusion to a lower extremity therefore is not an indication of an obstruction.

29
Q
Which of the following is NOT a common risk factor associated with arterial occlusive disease?
A. Tobacco use
B. Hypertension
C. Diabetes
D. Hypolipidemia
A

D. Tobacco, hypertension, diabetes, and hyperlipidemia are all risk factors for cardiovascular disease Hypolipidemia is a decrease in the amount of blood lipids.

30
Q
While reviewing the segmental pressures on a patient you notice that the patient has a right thigh pressure of 155 mm Hg and a right calf pressure of 90 mm Hg. The patient's brachial pressure is 120 mm Hg. Based on just these findings, what level of disease does this patient have?
A. Aortoiliac
B. Femoral-popliteal
C. Distal small vessel
D. Multilevel
A

B. A pressure gradient > 30 mm Hg indicates that there is disease present at or above the cuff with the lower pressure. A pressure gradient > 30 mm Hg between the thigh and calf cuffs indicates femoral popliteal disease.

31
Q
What is the first component that is lost on a PVR waveform when arterial disease exists?
A. Anacrotic limb
B. Catacrotic limb
C. Dicrotic limb
D. Bicrotic limb
A

C. The dicrotic limb is the first component that is lost in a PVR waveform when any arterial disease is present.

32
Q

Which finding suggests that an arterial venous fistula is mature and ready for hemodialysis use?
A. Diameter of the draining vein > or = 4 mm
B. PSV ratio < 4
C. Flow volume > or = 350 mL/min
D. Continuous flow in the venous side of the fistula

A

A. In order for an arteriovenous fistula to be considered mature and ready for hemodialysis use by duplex the draining vein should be at least 4 mm in size, there should be no narrowing at the anastomosis site that is confirmed by a ratio of <2, and the volume flow should be at least 500 mL/min (ideally the volume flow should be > 800 mL/min).

33
Q
Blue toes are an indication of which type of acute arterial obstruction?
A. Popliteal entrapment
B. Raynaud's syndrome
C. Compartment syndrome
D. Embolus
A

D. Blue toes are a classic sign of an embolism that traveled through the blood stream to end up lodged within the smaller arteries of the digits.

34
Q

A reversed saphenous vein bypass graft involves
A. Harvesting the saphenous vein, removing the valves, and connecting to the arteries in its normal anatomical orientation
B. Leaving the saphenous vein in its normal anatomical position, removing valves, ligating any branches, and connecting to the arteries
C. Harvesting the saphenous vein, reversing its normal anatomical orientation, and connecting to the arteries
D. Harvesting the saphenous vein, reversing its normal anatomical orientation, removing the valves, and connecting to the arteries

A

C. A reversed saphenous vein graft involves harvesting the saphenous vein, reversing its normal anatomical orientation and connecting to the arteries. The anatomical reversing of the vein eliminates the need to remove the internal valves making them open in the correct direction of flow.

35
Q
The analog Doppler signal distal to an area of severe stenosis in the lower extremities will likely be
A. Triphasic
B. Monophasic
C. Biphasic
D. Aphasic
A

B. A normal analog Doppler signal within a peripheral artery should be triphasic or biphasic with bidirectional flow because of the distal resistance that exists normally in a peripheral arterial system. When significant disease is present the distal arterioles dilate resulting in a decrease in resistance changing the waveform to monophasic with flow continuous in one direction.

36
Q
A normal toe pressure is \_\_\_ of the higher brachial pressure
A. 10% to 30%
B. 40% to 60%
C. 60% to 80%
D. Equal
A

C. Normal toe pressure is 60% to 80% of the higher brachial pressure.

37
Q

When using the four-cuff technique during a segmental pressure examination which of the following is consistent with a normal finding?
A. The high thigh pressure is 30 mm Hg higher than the higher brachial pressure
B. The high thigh pressure is equal to the higher brachial pressure
C. The high thigh pressure is 30 mm Hg lower than the brachial pressure
D. The high thigh pressure is 30 mm Hg higher than the lower brachial pressure

A

A. When using the four-cuff technique during a segmental pressure examination the high thigh pressure is typically elevated due to the size of the limb. This higher pressure is reproducible and should be at least 30 mm Hg greater than the higher brachial pressure to be considered normal.

38
Q

In relation to arteries and veins, which statement is true?
A. Arteries have thinner walls than veins
B. Arteries have internal valves
C. Arteries have a much higher internal pressure
D. Arteries are more readily collapsible

A

C. Both arteries and veins have three distinct layers to their vessel walls. The innermost layer is known as the intima, the middle layer is the media, and the outer layer is the adventitia. Even though they have the same three layers, arterial walls are thicker than vein walls and have a much higher internal pressure than the veins as well. In addition to these differences, veins also have internal valves that help promote flow back to the heart that are not present in the arteries. Veins should be easily collapsible, while the rigid walls of the arteries make them much harder to compress.

39
Q

What type of pulse wave waveform is characteristic for the diagnosis of a pseudoaneurysm?
A. Poststenotic waveform within neck of pseudoaneurysm
B. Triphasic waveform within the pseudoaneurysm
C. Monophasic waveform within the neck of the pseudoaneurysm
D. To-and-fro waveform within the neck of the pseudoaneurysm

A

D. A to-and-fro waveform within the neck of the pseudoaneurysm is a classic finding used for the diagnosis.

40
Q

Which statement is accurate related to blood pressure cuff artifact?
A. If the width of the blood pressure cuff is <20% the diameter of the limb it can result in a falsely lowered peak systolic pressure
B. If the width of the blood pressure cuff is >20% the diameter of the limb it can result in a falsely elevated peak systolic pressure
C. If the width of the blood pressure cuff is <20% the diameter of the limb it can result in a falsely elevated peak systolic pressure
D. Blood pressure cuff size has no effect on peak systolic pressure

A

C. Cuff artifact can occur when the width of the blood pressure cuff is either too large or too small for the limb. If the width of the cuff is <20% the diameter of the limb it will result in a falsely elevated peak systolic pressure. If the width of the cuff is too large it can also cause peak systolic pressure to be falsely lower.

41
Q
Which syndrome causes displacement and compression of the vessels due to the medial head of the gastrocnemius muscle?
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Popliteal entrapment syndrome
C. Adductor canal compression syndrome
D. Compartment syndrome
A

B. Popliteal entrapment syndrome occurs when the head of the gastrocnemius muscle compresses the popliteal artery resulting in a decrease in perfusion to the lower extremity when the calf muscle is contracted. The evaluation with noninvasive testing includes obtaining pressures and waveforms with the calf muscle relaxed and then repeated with the calf muscle contracted. If popliteal entrapment is present there will be a reduction in blood flow during contraction.

42
Q
A dampened waveform with a delay to peak systole is obtained in the common femoral artery. The cause is most likely due to which of the following?
A. Distal occlusion
B. Pseudoaneurysm
C. Aortoiliac disease
D. Arteriovenous fistula
A

C. A dampened waveform with a delay to peak systole (tardus parvus) seen in the common femoral artery indicates that significant proximal disease is present, most likely in the aortoiliac region.

43
Q

A patient is sent to your laboratory for a lower extremity arterial study with and without exercise for thigh claudication symptoms. Her baseline ABI’s at rest were 0.96 on the right and 0.97 on the left. Post-exercise her ABI’s drop to 0.79 on the right and 0.75 on the left. They return to baseline values after 15 minutes. Based on these findings what level of disease does this patient have?
A. Single level
B. Multilevel
C. The patient has no significant disease
D. Femoral-popliteal

A

B. The normal response to exercise is an increase in the ABIs post-exercise. A reduction in the ABIs indicates that disease is present. The greater the pressure drop the more severe the disease. The recovery time also provides information about the level of disease. If the recovery time exceeds 12 minutes that typically indicates that multiple levels of disease are present.

44
Q
Which penile-brachial index (PBI) is consistent with vasculogenic impotence?
A. <0.80
B. <0.65
C. <0.75
D. <0.90
A

B. A penile-brachial index (PBI) of <0.65 is consistent with vasculogenic impotence.

45
Q
During a penile duplex examination what is the normal post-injection response of the cavernous arteries?
A. Decrease in diameter
B. Increase in peak systolic velocity
C. Decrease in end diastolic velocity
D. Change to multiphasic flow
A

B. The normal response of the cavernous arteries during a penile duplex examination post-injection is that they will typically double in diameter size, have an increase in peak systolic velocity of at least 30 cm/s, and will have increased diastolic flow.

46
Q
All of the following parameters must be met during a noninvasive upper extremity arterial examination to confirm the diagnosis of thoracic outlet syndrome EXCEPT
A. Position dependent
B. Symptomatic
C. Complete loss of flow
D. Reduction of flow
A

C. There are various degrees of thoracic outlet syndrome not all of which will result in a complete loss of blood flow to the hand; however in order to confirm the diagnosis there must be a reduction in blood flow that is position dependent and it must be accompanied by symptoms.

47
Q
Submerging a patient's hands in ice water resulting in a more than 20% drop in peak systolic pressure is an examination performed for which syndrome?
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. May-Thurner syndrome
C. Superior vena cava syndrome
D. Raynaud's syndrome
A

D. Raynaud’s syndrome is commonly diagnosed using a cold immersion study which involves submerging a patient’s hands in ice water that results in a more than 20% drop in peak systolic pressure.

48
Q

What is the main advantage of an orthograde saphenous vein bypass graft over a reversed saphenous vein bypass?
A. The internal valves do not have to be removed
B. No size discrepancy at both anastomosis sites
C. No issue with missed accessory branches
D. They have a lower rate of failure

A

B. One of the main advantages of an orthograde saphenous vein bypass over a reversed saphenous vein bypass is that there is no size mismatch at the proximal and distal anastomosis sites. In general the saphenous vein is larger in caliber at the proximal portion and small at the distal end. By leaving the vein in this anatomical position it allows the larger end to be connected to the larger proximal arteries of the leg and the smaller end to the smaller tibial arteries. This does however now require the removal of the internal valves that does not have to occur with a reversed saphenous vein bypass.

49
Q
Retrograde flow in the native artery proximal to the distal anastomosis of a lower extremity bypass graft is consistent with what finding?
A. It is a normal finding
B. Distal resistance
C. Proximal disease
D. Arteriovenous fistula
A

A. Retrograde flow in the native artery proximal to the distal anastomosis of a lower extremity bypass graft is a normal finding that can often be providing collateral flow to the proximal portion of the limb and beneficial to the patient.

50
Q
Which of the following is a type of arteriovenous fistula that can be used for hemodialysis?
A. Cephalic artery to radial artery
B. Basilic vein to cephalic vein
C. Cephalic vein to brachial artery
D. Basilic vein to brachial vein
A

C. There are many types of arteriovenous fistulas that can be used for hemodialysis. Some of the more common are the cephalic vein to either the brachial or radial arteries and the basilic vein to either the brachial or radial arteries.

51
Q
What is the typical normal volume flow through an arteriovenous fistula used for hemodialysis?
A. >200 mL/min
B. >400 mL/min
C. >600 mL/min
D. >800 mL/min
A

D. The flow volume through an arteriovenous fistula needs to be high in order for the fistula to be used successfully during hemodialysis. The typical volume flow through a normal mature arteriovenous fistula is >800 mL/min and is often in the 1000 mL/min range.

52
Q
Which imaging modality is considered the "gold standard" for peripheral artery imaging?
A. Conventional angiography
B. CT angiography
C. MR angiography
D. Arterial duplex
A

A. There are many ways to image peripheral arteries; however, conventional angiography is still considered the “gold standard” when it comes to correlation of results.

53
Q
The effect of the absence of contrast around areas of disease during an angiography study is known as
A. Digital subtraction
B. Cine film
C. Filling defect
D. Run off
A

C. A “filling defect” is the effect that makes a vessel appear narrowed where plaque has replaced the lumen.

54
Q
What is the condition that involves a congenital narrowing of the thoracic aorta where it arches down toward the abdomen?
A. Takayasu's arteritis
B. Thoracic outlet syndrome
C. Thromboangiitis obliterans
D. Coarctation of the aorta
A

D. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital narrowing of the thoracic aorta where it arches down toward the abdomen.

55
Q
What is the second most common area for atherosclerosis to develop in the lower extremities?
A. Aorta and iliac arteries
B. Distal femoral artery
C. Posterior tibial artery
D. Profunda femoris artery
A

A. The aorta and iliac arteries are the second most common area of atherosclerotic disease in the lower extremities, with the distal superficial femoral artery as the most common site.

56
Q
A 55-year-old male with severe uncontrolled hypertension is having symptoms of right lower extremity numbness and loss of sensation. While performing a lower extremity duplex examination a linear echogenic structure is visualized in the external iliac artery that appears to be mobile with cardiac pulsations. What is most likely the diagnosis?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Arteriovenous malformation
C. Arterial dissection
D. Thromboangiitis obliterans
A

C. A finding of an echogenic linear structure that appears to move within the lumen of a blood vessel is consistent with an arterial dissection that can be caused by trauma or severe hypertension. Severe hypertension if untreated can cause an increased strain on the blood vessel walls causing them to separate resulting in a dissection.

57
Q
What anatomical structure serves as the landmark for where the external iliac artery becomes the common femoral artery in the lower extremities?
A. Adductor canal
B. Profunda femoris
C. Inguinal ligament
D. Arcuate ligament
A

C. The inguinal ligament is the anatomical structure stretching from the anterior, superior border of the iliac crest to the pubic bone and serves as the landmark for where the external iliac artery becomes the common femoral artery in the lower extremities.

58
Q
What is the syndrome that produces a mass effect on the osteofascial compartments on an extremity resulting in a decrease in blood flow and is often caused by trauma?
A. Thoracic outlet syndrome
B. Compartment syndrome
C. Raynaud's syndrome
D. Subclavian steal syndrome
A

B. Compartment syndrome produces a mass effect on the osteofascial compartments on an extremity resulting in a decrease in blood flow and is often caused by trauma.

59
Q
The most clinically significant complication associated with a peripheral aneurysm is
A. Rupture
B. Dissection
C. Embolism
D. Infection
A

C. Peripheral arterial aneurysms often contain a layer of thrombus as a result of the swirling pattern of blood flow found within the aneurysm. The thrombus within the lumen of the aneurysm can often be a source of emboli to the distal portions of the extremity. This type of embolism is the most clinically significant complication for peripheral aneurysms, unlike with abdominal aortic aneurysms where rupture is the most significant clinical complication.

60
Q
A patient with severe bilateral iliac artery disease is most likely to receive which type of lower extremity bypass?
A. Femoral popliteal bypass
B. Femoral to femoral bypass
C. Aorta-bifemoral bypass
D. Axillary femoral bypass
A

C. The intent of any lower extremity bypass graft is to get above the level of significant disease and below the level of the most significant disease. With bilateral iliac disease the most logical type of bypass graft that would accomplish restoring normal blood flow to the lower extremities is an aorta-bifemoral bypass graft.

61
Q
Which of the following can cause a spectral waveform in the lower extremity to change its shape to monophasic?
A. Normal resting flow
B. Vasoconstriction
C. Decreased cardiac output
D. Post-exercise
A

D. Both proximal diseases as well as post-exercise hemodynamics cause the distal arteriole beds to dilate, resulting in the peripheral artery waveform changing to a monophasic form.

62
Q
While performing a lower extremity arterial duplex examination on a patient, a velocity of 90 cm/s is obtained within the distal superficial femoral artery. About 1 cm distal to that a velocity of 200 cm/s is obtained. What would be considered the percent stenosis using the velocity ratio criteria?
A. Normal
B. >50% stenosis
C. >75% stenosis
D. <50% stenosis
A

B. The formula for calculating a PSV ratio within the peripheral arteries is PSVstenosis/PSVproximal to stenosis. For this patient the calculation would be 200/90 = 2.2. A PSV ratio >2 is consistent with a >50% stenosis.

63
Q
What instrumentation uses infrared light that reflects off the red blood cells as they flow through the body to create a waveform?
A. Pulse volume recordings
B. Power Doppler
C. Photoplethysmography
D. Strain gauge plethysmography
A

C. Photoplethysmography uses infrared light that reflects off the red blood cells as they flow through the body to create a waveform and is typically used to obtain the digital waveforms and pressures during a noninvasive assessment of the lower extremities.

64
Q
A stenosis of the lower extremity arteries is most likely hemodynamically significant when the velocity ratio is 
A. <2.0
B. >2.0
C. >1.5
D. <1.5
A

B. Stenotic lesions within the lower extremity arteries are much more likely to be hemodynamically significant when the peak systolic velocity is elevated and the velocity ratio is >2.

65
Q
The hypogastric artery is also known as what artery?
A. Profunda femoris artery
B. Common iliac artery
C. External iliac artery
D. Internal iliac artery
A

D. Another name for the internal iliac artery is the hypogastric artery.

66
Q
The first branch originating from the most proximal portion of the subclavian artery is the
A. Thyrocervical trunk
B. Vertebral artery
C. Internal mammary artery
D. Lateral thoracic artery
A

B. The vertebral artery is the first branch originating from the most proximal portion of the subclavian artery followed by the costocervical artery, thyrocervical artery, and the lateral thoracic artery.

67
Q
An ankle-brachial index of 0.60 correlates with which symptom?
A. Rest pain
B. Tissue loss
C. Claudication
D. Gangrene
A

C. An ankle-brachial index (ABI) of 0.60 is most likely consistent with claudication symptoms.

68
Q

The signs known as the “six Ps” which indicate the presence of an acute arterial occlusion are
A. Pain, Pallor, Paralysis, Pus, Pulselessness, Poikilothermia
B. Pain, Pallor, Paralysis, Paresthesia, Pulselessness, Palpable
C. Pain, Pallor, Paralysis, Paresthesia, Pulselessness, Poikilothermia
D. Painless, Pallor, Paralysis, Paresthesia, Pulselessness, Poikilothermia

A

C. The symptoms associated with acute occlusive disease are known as the six Ps. They are: Pain, Pallor, Paralysis, Paresthesia, Pulselessness, Poikilothermia.

69
Q
What is the most common reason for a stenosis to develop within a lower extremity bypass graft?
A. Atherosclerosis
B. Myointimal hyperplasia
C. Fibromuscular dysplasia
D. Arteritis
A

B. Myointimal hyperplasia is the most common cause of stenosis within a lower extremity bypass graft.