Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Captains Test > P&P Operations > Flashcards

P&P Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Each subsequent “alarm” will be what?

A

a duplicate of the first number of engines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

an upgrade of the initial response can be made by whom

A

First in company officer, BC or Duty officer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does saying”working fire” get you?

A

one additional engine, breathing support, duty chief notification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what does requesting a second alarm get you?

A

will receive a like number of engines

as the first alarm assignment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

resources responding to a residential structure fire in Battalion 1

A

BC, 3-ENG, TRK (1WT in rural areas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

resources responding to a residential structure fire in Battalion 2

A

BC, 4-ENG, (1WT in rural areas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

resources responding to a commercial structure fire in Battalion 2

A

BC, 4-ENG, TRK (TRK response from LMP, SMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

resources responding to a commercial structure fire in Battalion 1

A

BC, 3-ENG, TRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

resources responding to a high rise in battalion 1

A

BC, 4-ENG, TRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

resources responding to a high rise in battalion 2

A

BC, 5-ENG, TRK,
(TRK response from LMP,
SMR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

low vegetation response

A

1 Eng and BC notification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

moderate vegetation response

A

BC, 3-Ty3 ENG, 1-WT;
typically an upgrade for favorable burning conditions
during low fire season or a nighttime response during
high fire season

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

SRA high vegetation response

A

BC, 4-Ty3 ENG, 1-WT, 2-DZ, 1-HELO, 2-CRW, 1-AA,

2 Air Tankers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

LRA high vegetation response

A

BC, 3-Ty3 ENG, 1-WT, 1-CRW, HELO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

FRA high vegetation response

A

BC, 2-TY3 ENG, 1-DZ, 1-WT, 1-CRW

dependent upon response area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

very high vegetation response

A

SRA or LRA High Response plus SBC Augmented
Staffing Pattern
(SBC Task Force-3-Ty3 ENG,WT,TFL)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

extreme vegetation response

A

Red Flag Response - SRA/LRA Very High plus SBC

Augmented Staffing Pattern, plus Op Area Strike Team

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

center divider fire response

A

BC, 2-ENG, WT, CRW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

passenger vehicle fire response

A

1 engine, both battalions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

commercial vehicle fire response

A

Bat1 - 3 engines, truck, BC

Bat2 - 4 engines, BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Train fire response

A

Bat1 - 3 engines, truck, BC, water tender

Bat2 - 4 engines, BC, water tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

trash fire adjacent to structure response

A

structure response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

trash fire away from structure response

A

1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

fence fire, fire reported out, illegal burn response

A

1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

power pole fire response

A

1 engine, BC, power co. notification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

bomb threat response

A

1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

gas leak inside a structure response

A

structure response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

gas leak outside a structure response

A

1 engine and BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

lines down or arching response

A

1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

walk in, code 2, code 3 medical emergency response

A

1 engine, 1 RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

code 2 ambulance only request response

A

1 RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

vehicle accident code 2 response

A

1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

vehicle accident code 3 response

A

Bat 1 - 1 engine, TRK, BC

Bat2 - 2 engines, BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

vehicle over the side response

A

Bat1 - 1 engine, TRK, BC, HELO

Bat2 - 2 engines, BC, HELO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

motorcycle accident response

A

1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

train derailment response

A

structure response plus water tender

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

trench rescue response

A

BC, US&R, 3-ENG, TRK,

CRW, AMB, CONST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

confined space response

A

BC, US&R, 3-ENG, TRK,

CRW, AMB,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

cliffside response in battalion 1

A

BC, US&R, 3-ENG, TRK,

CRW, AMB,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

cliffside response in battalion 2

A

BC, US&R, 3-ENG, TRK,

CRW, AMB, Construction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

building collapse response battalion 1

A

BC, US&R, 3-ENG, TRK,

CRW, AMB, CONST. K-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

building collapse response battalion 2

A

BC, US&R, 2-ENG, TRK,

CRW, AMB, CONST. K-9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

surf rescue battalion 1 response

A

BC, 2-ENG, TRK,WRX,

HELO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

swiftwater rescue battalion 1 response

A

BC, 2-ENG, TRK,WRX,

HELO, Crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

surf rescue response battalion 2

A

BC, 3-ENG, HELO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

swiftwater rescue response battalion 2

A

BC, 3-ENG, HELO, Crew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

when is WRX-11 dispatched

A

only on water rescue calls in battalion 1, all others it needs to be requested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

public assist, fire alarms ringing response

A

1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

automatic aid response

A

1 engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

mutual aid response

A

1 engine or number and type requested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

cover engine response to another jurisdiction

A

1-ENG, BC notification only
*can send additional upon request and at approval
of BC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

santa ynez airport general and red alert response

A

BC, 3-ENG, WT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

SB airport alert 1 response

A

BC, 1-ENG, TRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

SB airport alert 2 through 4 response

A

BC, 2-ENG, TRK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

SM airport alert 1 through 4 response

A

BC, 1-ENG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Haz-Mat investigation response

A

BC, 1-ENG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Haz-Mat full response

A

DC, BC, 3-ENG, HM31, HMS, BS18,
HMU, LMP (HMS is Hazmat Support
Vehicle)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Haz-Mat mutual aid response

A

BC, HM-31, HMS, and BS-18

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

maximum operational response level

A

All risk response capabilities are met. This is

our normal day-to-day staffing pattern.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

medium operational response level

A

Incidents that have short term impact to response

levels of 12 hours or less, and may or may not require back-filling of engine companies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

minimum operational response level

A

Developing incidents that have major impact to

response levels and require severe drawdown of on-duty resources.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Medium Operational System Status Response Level

A

Battalion 1
In Priority Order: Station 13 Station 11 Station12 Station17
Battalion 2
In Priority Order: Station 30 Station 41 Station 51 Station 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Minimal operational System Status Response Level

A

Battalion 1
In Priority Order: Station 13 Station 11
Battalion 2
In Priority Order: Station 30 Station 41 Station 22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Definition of “In-Service”

A

A company is “in service” when the minimum required numbers of qualified personnel are
present and apparatus/equipment is response ready.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Initially what AAR format is used

A

IRPG format

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Incidents of significance needing an AAR, what happens

A

follow the AAR with

an “After Incident Report” (AIR) to the Operations Division Chief

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Threshold factors for an AIR

A
  • Significant Event or Multi alarm Incident successes or failures
  • Injury to Department personnel or Near Miss Inc.
  • Department property damage
  • Department equipment failure or malfunctions
  • Safety concerns
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

categories of service related stress

A

environmental and clinical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

circumstances for mandatory CISD

A

line of duty death, serious injury to field personnel, serious MCI, suicide of a co-worker, traumatic death of a child, incident with unusually powerful impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

most appropriate timeline for CISD

A

48 to 72 hours after the incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

RED roadblock condition

A

This condition requires that officers at the roadblock allow only emergency vehicles into the
incident area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

YELLOW roadblock condition

A

This condition requires officers at the roadblock to allow only residents and friends of
residents that are in the same vehicle to enter the incident area. Residents should provide
identification to prove their residency in the incident area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

GREEN roadblock condition

A

This condition establishes a roadblock to warn persons coming into the area of impending
danger or to control an area after a incident has occurred in order to prevent stealing, looting,
etc. The roadblock officer is instructed to allow emergency vehicles, residents and friends
assisting them, and all other persons having legitimate reasons into the incident area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

can media personnel be excluded from an incident

A

no, unless there lives will be in imminent danger.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

freeway or divided highway response code?

A

no flashing lights, sirens or horns, unless in times of extreme congestion, opposing traffic, or driving on the shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

first arriving engine on scene of an incident on the roadway should park where?

A

to protect the scene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how do you park to protect the engineers panel

A

Block to the right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

how do you park to protect the medical and extrication compartment?

A

Block to the left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

how do you park if neither side of the engine needs to be protected

A

In a way to divert the traffic flow around an incident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

how many lanes should be blocked on the roadway

A

one additional lane more than already blocked by the incident. if the shoulder is available, use this as an additional lane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

if parking uphill and upwind takes priority for the first in engine on the roadway, where do you park?

A

uphill and upwind, but have the second in engine block downwind from a safe distance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what lights are used by equipment no blocking

A

4 way flashers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the cone configuration for blocking on the roadway

A

4 cones, 25 to 30 foot intervals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

When can CHP be the incident commander

A

all emergency related incidents on

all freeways, state highways and county roads.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

who can take items from a scene

A

Only Arson Investigators and only as evidence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

can the property owner permit property removal

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Operational Priorities after an earthquake

A
  1. Station survey. (personnel, apparatus and station status)
  2. District Survey, (report situation status of first in district to the Battalion Chief)
  3. Evaluation of battalion & countywide impact of earthquake (report to Duty Chief)
  4. Allocation of resources per incident prioritization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Captains Duty during a station survey

A

a. Direct Engineer and Firefighter(s) to start the Station Survey Checklist
b. Receive disposition of station survey from crew and communicate your station’s status to
the Duty BC and Dispatch Center.
c. Start the first in district survey as soon as possible after determining your personnel, apparatus, and station status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Engineers Duty during a station survey

A

a. Move all apparatus out of the engine room to a safe area.
b. Move all essential equipment to a safe area.
c. Check condition of all apparatus.
d. Report findings to Captain when assignment is completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Firefighters Duty during a station survey

A

a. Check for structural integrity of building.
b. Check natural gas, electricity, water, and condition of station generator.
c. Report to Captain when assignment is completed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

when does the earthquake district survey get completed

A

ASAP after the station survey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what are the two phases of the earthquake district survey

A
  1. The Primary Survey should focus its damage assessment on the district’s target hazards
    and transportation corridors.
  2. The Secondary Survey should focus on residential areas and utility damage.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

where does information gathered during the district survey get passed on to

A

On duty BC and on the Damage Assessment Worksheet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Major Earthquake Priority Guidelines. Priority one

A

Life threatening conditions: rescue of trapped victims, collapsed structure,Structure fires, & fires with a high probability of spread and exposure threat, Hazardous materials releases, Medical Aid (life threatening)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Major Earthquake Priority Guidelines. Priority two

A 
Potential Life threatening conditions
a. Gas leaks inside structures
b. Elevator Recues
c. Medical Aid (non-life threatening)
d. Threats to natural gas, flammable liquid pipelines or tank failures with no life
exposures
96
Q

Major Earthquake Priority Guidelines. Priority three

A

Non-Life Threatening Conditions

a. Flooding
b. Public assists
c. Fire alarms
d. Gas leaks outside
e. Medical assists (first aid)

97
Q

Hazardous Liquid Spill Proceedure

A
  1. Eliminate ignition sources
  2. if small enough let spill evaporate
  3. prevent from entering waterways
  4. if water is used control the runoff
98
Q

How is Dirt used to damn a hazardous liquid handled

A

handled as hazardous waste and the HMU specialist should be notified

99
Q

When dont you need to notify the HMU specialist

A

fluid released is typical
motor vehicle fuels, lubricants, brake fluid, hydraulic fluid, or coolants in small quantities
that are normally associated with vehicle accidents.

100
Q

What should be identified at the scene of a hazardous spill

A

is the spill from the vehicle operating or from its cargo

101
Q

Do all cargo spills need to be reported to HMU

A

Yes

102
Q

What needs to occur on all hazardous spills

A

reported to the Protection Services Division within 24 hours of occurrence regardless of the exceptions noted in this policy.

103
Q

who is contacted int the event of a “trouble” alarm on UCSB campus fire alarm system

A

UCPD

104
Q

Does the Captain have the option of not resetting an alarm on UCSB campus

A

Yes, if the alarm is sounding for an unknown reason. If this is the case, UCPD needs to be contacted

105
Q

who is responsible for initiating rehab and medical care on an incident

A

Incident Commander and or Operations Sections Chief

106
Q

who establishes a rehab schedule on an incident?

A

IC

107
Q

should a crew rehab together or as single people

A

As a company if at all possible

108
Q

how much liquid should we drink each shift

A

48-64 ounces

109
Q

how far away should shade or cooling measures be provided on an incident

A

50-100 yards

110
Q

rehab location at structure fires

A

1/2 to 1 block away from the fire

111
Q

rehab location for a high rise fires

A

at least two floors below the fire. Can be the same floor as staging but needs to be seperated.

112
Q

rehab location on wildland fires

A

centralized location such as base camp.

113
Q

rehab location on a haz mat call

A

in the support zone

114
Q

how big should a rehab area be

A

minimum of 20 by 20 feet

115
Q

what needs to be more than 100 feet away from rehab due to noise

A

air and light unit

116
Q

minimum criteria to enter rehab

A

minimum of two or more air exchanges in SCBA
adverse health effects
as deemed necessary by the IC

117
Q

what should be done while in rehab

A

vitals taken and rest for 20 minutes while rehydrating

118
Q

what gets done again before leaving rehab

A

vitals

119
Q

when will an EMS helicopter be dispatched

A

when an incident is located in an auto launch (remote)

area or when requested by the Incident Commander or responding units.

120
Q

who has the authority to request a helicopter outside of an auto launch area

A

Incident Commander, the highest medical authority on scene or the responding units

121
Q

what else gets dispatched with an EMS helicopter

A

ground response

122
Q

Other circumstances when EMS helicopter can be used

A

where transport by ground personnel would be excessively long, might negatively affect the injury or be exceedingly painful for the patient.

123
Q

when can a rescue helicopter be dispatched instead of an EMS helicopter

A

If the designated Air Ambulance is unavailable or their ETA is greater than 30 minutes

124
Q

Who is in charge when two paramedics are on scene

A

the first paramedic to make patient contact

125
Q

when is patient care completed?

A

when the initial paramedic determines that a transfer of care is in the best interest of the patient

126
Q

Can we cross staff a private ambulance with Fire Dept personnell

A

yes, if it requested by the initial paramedic that a fire dept person drives to optimize patient care

127
Q

obvious death criteria

A 
cold and stiff in a warm environment
decapitation
decomposition
incineration
non-recent death
128
Q

expected death criteria

A

valid DNR

terminal illness, planned death

129
Q

how do we respond to an obvious death call

A

code 2 as a public assist

130
Q

are we available while on scene of an obvious death call

A

at the company officer discretion

131
Q

what happens when two paramedics on scene disagree

A

first arriving paramedic rides to the hospital and retains care

132
Q

time limit for sbcofd ambulance on code 3 call

A

7 minutes 59 seconds on 90%

133
Q

time limit for sbcofd ambulance on code 2 call

A

14 minutes, 59 seconds on 90%

134
Q

who decides if RA 251 gets put in service for a second call

A

it is company officers discretion, but it is the intent to comply with the standard

135
Q

does the engine have to go to code 2 calls when the RA is responding

A

its captains discretion

136
Q

what is an elder

A

65 years and older

137
Q

what is a child

A

under 18 years of age

138
Q

are we mandated reporters

A

yes, we are legally obligated to report any and all suspected and witnessed abuse

139
Q

who is notified immediately after making a report of abuse

A

immediate supervisor

140
Q

if a child or adult is in imminent danger or its after hours what do you do

A

call law enforcement immediately
contact on duty BC
contact hotline the next business day

141
Q

when does the suspected child abuse form get submitted by

A

within 36 hours

142
Q

when is the elder abuse/dependent adult abuse for submitted by

A

within 2 working days

143
Q

When can PAS be terminated

A

when the IC decides no hazardous area is present

144
Q

who is the initial PAS officer

A

first in engineer or a member of RIC

145
Q

who initiates a PAR

A

pas officer, IC, PAS group supervisor

146
Q

when is PAS implemented

A

on all structure fires, and any time that a hazardous area is present

147
Q

how many nametags should each employee have

A

four

148
Q

when is a PAR initiated

A
  1. A report of missing or trapped firefighters,
  2. A sudden hazardous event at the incident such as flashover, backdraft, or collapse,
  3. A change from offensive to defensive,
  4. Any time an emergency abandonment is declared, and
  5. Any time the IC or PAS Officer deems it necessary.
149
Q

what is the verbal phrase used for abondonment

A

“emergency traffic, abandon the building”

150
Q

how many times is the abandonment command repeated and where

A

3 times over all frequencies used on the fire ground

151
Q

what is the audible abandonment alarm

A

consist of repeated short blasts of the air horn for
approximately 10 seconds, followed by 10 seconds of silence. This sequence of air horn
blasts for 10 seconds followed by a 10-second period of silence will be done three (3) times;
total air horn evacuation signal, including periods of silence, will last 50 seconds.

152
Q

what does the IC do after the abandonment signal is given

A

establish a meeting area

initiate a PAR

153
Q

what does the IC do when all personnel are acounted for after abandonment

A

issues an all clear on all frequencies being used

154
Q

Which unit is designated as RIC

A

closest engine company that is not assigned as

part of the suppression units within the first or second alarm assignments, or as determined by the IC.

155
Q

What makes up a full RIC component

A

RIC group supervisor and RIC company

156
Q

what are the OP Area Tactical channels used

A

v fire 22, 23, and 26

157
Q

examples of “Emergency traffic”

A

shots fired, lines down, wind shifts, transitional phase from offensive to defensive

158
Q

examples of “Mayday traffic”

A

firefighter trapped, firefighter down, firefighter lost

159
Q

what is the incident clock and who starts it

A

started by dispatch on all working structure fires and haz-mat incidents. update every ten minutes from dispatch

160
Q

what is the evacuation signal

A

repeated short blasts of the air horn for
approximately ten seconds, followed by ten seconds of silence. This sequence of air horn blasts for ten seconds followed by a ten-second period of silence will be done three times; total air horn evacuation signal including periods of silence will last fifty seconds

161
Q

what gets done along with the evacuation signal

A

emergency traffic notification broadcasted on all channels

162
Q

when is a PAR recommended

A

• Any report of a missing or trapped firefighter
• Any change from offensive to defensive fire attack
• Any sudden hazardous event – Flash Over, Back Draft, Collapse, etc.
• As companies report an all clear and fire under control
any time the IC deems necessary

163
Q

what is priority traffic

A

Term used to pass on time sensitive information to other resources or the Incident Commander. Ex; “IC E-21 Priority Traffic. We are pulling off the roof due
to potential collapse, notify all interior working crews”.

164
Q

what is LUNAR and NUCAN

A

LUNAR: Location, Unit, Name, Air, Resources
NUCAN: Name, Unit, Condition, Action, Needs

165
Q

when should a RIC be established

A

in any instance where an IDLH atmosphere, or physical or Life hazards exist in the emergency working environment as outlined by this policy.

166
Q

when can RIC be dispatched

A

second alarm, working fire, or IC thinks necessary

167
Q

what is the initial RIC crews identification

A

They keep there engine company number

168
Q

in high rise, where does RIC stage

A

staging floor, or no lower than 2 floors below the fire floor

169
Q

what should RIC not being doing on the fire ground

A

assigned to or engage in routine firefighting activities that are not directly related to RIC operations.

170
Q

what does the RIC officer check before deployment

A

Pre-Deployment checklist

171
Q

what does the IC do when a “Mayday” is made

A

immediately acknowledge the
Emergency Traffic, announce radio silence, and ask the Firefighter initiating the
“Emergency or MAYDAY” for his/her name, location, situation, and condition
(LUNAR/NUCAN).

172
Q

what should the IC tell a lost or trapped FF to do after calling the “mayday”

A

turn on PASS, turn on flashlight, remain calm, stay on there current radio channel

173
Q

while the RIC is being deployed who else can help in the rescue

A

crews working in close proximity to the “Mayday” call

174
Q

Who must be assigned to RIC once a mayday is made

A

RIC Group Supervisor, if not already assigned

175
Q

who does the management of the RIC deployment get transferred to

A

the RGS

176
Q

once the mayday rescue is initiated and all other personnel switch radio channels, what is done by the IC

A

PAR, assign an additional RIC, request an additional alarm if needed, ensure that firefighting efforts are not abandoned

177
Q

who initiates the RIC air management form and when

A

RGS prior to entry

178
Q

when is a standby ambulance used

A

on all working structure fires

179
Q

what should be ordered during a mayday involving building collapse

A

USAR

180
Q

consideration with media during a mayday

A

keep them at a safe distance and ensure the names of downed firefighter is not told. PIO is recommended

181
Q

per policy, when do we use high rise response guidlines

A

4 stories or greater

182
Q

high rise incident priorities

A
  1. Life safety of building occupants and responding firefighters
  2. Preservation of personal property
  3. Protection of the environment
183
Q

first alarm high rise

A 
4 Engines (Batt 1)
5 Engines (Batt 2)
1 Truck (Batt 1)
1 RA Unit (Batt 1)
1 Battalion Chief
184
Q

second alarm high rise

A 
3 Engines
1 Division Chief
1 Battalion Chief
1 Breathing Support
1 AMR Ambulance
185
Q

third alarm high rise

A

3 Engines

1 Battalion Chief

186
Q

fourth alarm high rise

A

mutual aid

187
Q

first alarm high rise procedures

A

ALS Base

188
Q

A of ALS Base

A

Attack/Investigate, find out the magnitude of the incident

189
Q

hose line numbers and placement for high rise first alarm

A

two lines on fire floor and third line floor above fire floor

190
Q

L of ALS Base

A

Lobby, should be established early, controls elevators and building keys, directs attack forces to appropriate stair wells

191
Q

S of ALS Base `

A

Staging, the initial equipment drop off location, rehab, above ground accountability and RIC location

192
Q

Base of ALS Base

A

Parking lot, staffed with a base manager upon the call of additional alarms

193
Q

what needs to happen prior to taking an overhead assignment

A

notify BC and get approval from them, regardless of rank

194
Q

do you need to have your red card when responding to wild land incidents

A

yes

195
Q

upon leaving for an overhead assignment, who do you notify

A

duty officer, dispatch or expanded dispatch to inform them of the start time

196
Q

what must be obtained for all overhead assignments

A

order number and request number

197
Q

upon returning from an overhead assignment, who do you notify

A

duty officer, dispatch or expanded dispatch to inform them of your stop time

198
Q

what must you bring back from an overhead assignment

A

a signed 225 that goes to your BC and training section

199
Q

if being re-assigned to another out of county incident what do you need to do

A

get approval from the on duty BC and duty officer prior to accepting

200
Q

when does a F 150 get turned in from an out county assignment

A

with 24 hours of returning or the next business day

201
Q

length of incident management team assignments

A

14 days excluding travel unless agreed to extend by IC and home unit duty chief , then 21 days including travel

202
Q

currency as a strike team leader includes strike team leader workshop every…

A

at least every two years

203
Q

when can private contractors perform duties on an incident

A

when approval comes directly from the IC after he ensures it is safe, they are provided with clothing and communications

204
Q

can private citizens or off duty personnel be used to assist on an emergency call

A

no

205
Q

what is a “high risk fire day”

A

Notice issued by the Predictive Services Units in Riverside and Redding
indicating that there is a 20% chance of either a new large fire occurring or a significant
growth of an existing fire.

206
Q

what is a “fire weather watch”

A

Notice issued to alert fire agencies to the high potential for development of a Red Flag event in the18-96 hour time frame. The Watch may be issued for all or selected
portions of a fire weather zone or zones.

207
Q

what is a “red flag warning”

A

Notice issued to inform agencies of the impending or occurring Red Flag conditions. A Red Flag Warning is issued when there is high confidence that Red Flag criteria
will be met within the next 48 hours or less or criteria are already being met.

208
Q

what do engine companies do when a red flag warnign goes into effect

A

they flip down the red flag warnign signs and station 15 puts down the no parking signs in mission canyon

209
Q

company officer red flag checklist

A

Maintain highest state of operational readiness
Ensure that all apparatus are response ready
Ensure that all personal gear is in order
Cancel Training & Public Presentations
Take periodic weather observations
Stay aware of situational status / Brief station personnel
Patrol first-in district in affected areas

210
Q

what are the haz mat companies?

A

Haz mat 31, STB haz mat 2

211
Q

what is a “full haz mat response”

A

Three Engine Companies plus one HazMat Company with five HazMat Specialist-trained personnel and a Chief Officer and breathing support

212
Q

what is generated on all haz mat incidents including oil spills

A

A Major Incident Report

213
Q

what is haz mat task force

A

10 members, 5 must be specialists, and one Haz mat assistant safety officer

214
Q

when should the IC call for a full haz mat response

A

when an incident involves any type of
unknown material, explosion, explosive device, weapons of mass destruction, terrorist
event, or any circumstance where the IC determines a full HazMat response is needed

215
Q

how long is the station requirement for haz mat and at which stations

A

2 years and station 18 and 31

216
Q

qualification deadlines for haz mat at station 31 or 18

A

technician by 12 months and specialist by 18 months

217
Q

how many personnel make up the water rescue team

A

6

218
Q

what are the water rescue core stations

A

11, 17, 12, 14 and 18

219
Q

what are the USAR core stations

A

11, 12, 14 and 17

220
Q

how many personnel are required for USAR daily

A

6

221
Q

is there a time commitment for USAR qualification

A

yes. 2 years

222
Q

ASU minimum staffing

A

2 hoist qualified paramedics one must be a rescue swimmer

223
Q

helispot landing area for ground fill operations

A

i. 75’ for Type 3 helicopters touchdown pad 15’ X 15’
ii. 90’ for Type 2 helicopters touchdown pad 20’ X 20’
iii. 110’ for Type 1 helicopters touchdown pad 30’ X 30’

224
Q

light locations for heli pad

A

ambers on the corners of the pad, white light 5-8 feet in front of the pad on the windward side

225
Q

When dispatched to an actual or threatened spill or leak of a hazardous material and there is no
known responsible party

A

the SBCFD Incident Commander will notify the Emergency Communications Center (ECC) to contact appropriate agencies as required by law.

226
Q

what does dispatch call a violent incident

A

code 77

227
Q

what should the initial captain find out about a violent incident first

A

weather or not the incident is dynamic or static and relay that information to incoming units.

228
Q

What incidents do you wear ballistics vests and helmets

A

Active Shooter(s)
Civil Unrest
Riot
Terrorist Event

229
Q

What incidents do you wear ballistics vest only

A
  • Stabbing
  • Shooting
  • Domestic Violence
  • Fight
230
Q

what units are dispatched for a code 77

A
  • 2 Chief Officers (BC and/or DC)
  • 1 EMS Supervisor (AMR Supervisor)
  • 1 Safety Officer
  • 3 Engines (one engine for Command Post support/safety)
  • ALS RA (incident dependent)
  • MCI Unit (incident dependent)
231
Q

what is a code 77 hot zone

A

The Hot Zone is that area wherein a direct and immediate threat exists.

232
Q

what is a code 77 warm zone

A

The Warm Zone is that area wherein a potential threat exists, but the threat may not be direct
or immediate.

233
Q

what is a code 77 cold zone

A

The Cold Zone is that area where no significant danger or threat can be reasonably
anticipated.

234
Q

when is expanded dispatch opened

A

when an IC upgrades an incident from initial attack to extended attack

235
Q

how many people does it take to open expanded dispatch

A

2 trained people

236
Q

what needs to happen to get a rental car for an incident overhead assignment

A

Incident IC approval and documented in the order request

Captains Test (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions