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Flashcards in Orbic - Pre Solo Written Exam Deck (51)
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1
Q

What personal documents and endorsements are you required to have before you fly solo?

A

Photo ID, medical, student pilot cert, logbook

2
Q

What class of medical do you need prior to solo flight?

A

3rd class

3
Q

What are your student pilot limitations regarding carriage of passengers or cargo and flying compensation or hire?

A

No passengers, no cargo, no hire

4
Q

Explain student pilot limitations concerning visibility and flight above clouds.

A

10 SM, 3000’ ceiling, flight above clouds not allowed.

5
Q

Who has the final authority and responsibility for the operation of the aircraft when you are flying solo?

A

Me as the PIC.

6
Q

Discuss what preflight action concerning the airport and aircraft performance is specified in the regulations for a local flight.

A

All information for completion of a safe flight. Examples: Wx, TFR’s, Notams, aircraft performance, frequencies.

7
Q

During engine run up you cause rocks, debris and rotor vortices to be directed toward another aircraft or person. Could this be considered careless or reckless operations of an aircraft?

A

Yes

8
Q

How long before flying can you have your last alcoholic beverage? What is the BAC you can have in your blood?

A

8 hrs - 0.04%

9
Q

What are the general requirements pertaining to the use of safety belts and shoulder harnesses?

A

Use during takeoff, landing, taxi, and en route flight.

10
Q

What is the minimum fuel reserve for day VFR flight, and on what cruise speed is the fuel reserve based?

A

First point of landing + 20 min. 83 kts.

11
Q

At what altitude is a Mode C transponder required at all times in all airspace’s? Excluding what altitudes?

A

10,000’ MSL - below 2500’ AGL

12
Q

What aircraft certificates and documents must be on board when you are flying solo?

A
A - airworthiness cert.
R - Registration
R - Radio cert (outside the U.S.)
O - Operating handbook
W - Weight and balance
13
Q

No one person may operate an aircraft so close to another aircraft as to create a ______________ .

A

Hazard or collision

14
Q

Who has the right-of-way when two aircraft are on final approach to land at the same time?

A

Lower aircraft. But this cannot be abused to creat the ROW.

15
Q

What action do you need to take if you are overtaking another aircraft and which aircraft has the ROW? What if flying a head-on collision course? What if another helicopter is converging from the right?

A
  1. Pass on the right. Aircraft being overtaken has the ROW. 2. Deviate to the right. 3. Helicopter on the right.
16
Q

Except when necessary for takeoffs and landings, what are the minimum safe altitudes for helicopters?

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, to make an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

17
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available at an airport, what setting should you use before departing on a local flight?

A

Elevation of the departure airport.

18
Q

What altitudes should you use when operating under VFR in level cruising flight at more than 3000’ AGL?

A

Magnetic course of 0 - 179 - odd thousands plus 500

Magnetic course of 180 - 359 - even thousands plus 500.

19
Q

When is a go around appropriate?

A

In conditions likely for vortex ring state (30 kts, more than 300’ per min, power applied.) - basically a non-controlled approach.

20
Q

What general steps should you follow after an engine failure in flight?

A

Enter autorotation (collective down, right pedal, aft cyclic)

21
Q

List the minimum equipment and instruments that must be working properly in your aircraft for day VFR flight.

A
C - compass
A - airspeed indicator
M - manifold pressure gauge
A - altitude indicator
S - seatbelts

F - Fuel gauge
O - oil temp gauge
O - oil pressure gauge
T - tachometer

G - governor
O - outside air temp
A - alternator
L - low rotor RPM warning

22
Q

What are the following V-speed definitions and the corresponding speed for the R22?

Vy
Vne

A

Vy - best rate of climb - 53 kts

Vne - never exceed - 102 kts to 3000’

23
Q

What is the best glide speed for the R22?

A

75 kias

24
Q

What is the max RPM drop during the magneto check on the runup?

A

7% in two seconds

25
Q

What is the total usable fuel capacity for your aircraft?

A

26.3 gallons

26
Q

What grade of fuel can be safely used in your aircraft? What are the colors of the recommended fuels?

A

100LL which is blue

Red can also be used.

27
Q

In order to remain outside the shaded area of the height/velocity diagram, what would your air-speed have to be at 200’?

A

58 kias

28
Q

How do you detect an alternator failure?

A

Alternator light. Electrical problems/failure.

29
Q

When do you use carburetor heat? What are indications of carb icing?

A

Likely with an OAT of -4 to 30 degrees AND the difference between the OAT and the dew point is less than 15 degrees.

Run up - full carb heat
Takeoff, climb, cruise - keep the CAT gauge out of the yellow
Descent, auto - full carb heat

Indications - decrease in manifold pressure, rough engine running

30
Q

At max gross weight and with an OAT of 80 degrees, what is Vne at sea level? At 6000’?

A

102 kias- 95 kias

31
Q

What are traffic patterns for each runway at your airport? What is the MSL altitude for each helicopter traffic pattern?

A

15/33 or 8/26 - avoid flow of fixed wing aircraft - 1300’ MSL

32
Q

How do you enter and exit the traffic pattern at your airport? What if any radio communications are required?

A

Check ATIS - Ask tower to join the pattern - repeat back specific instructions.

33
Q

What radio calls are recommended in the traffic pattern at an uncontrolled airport?

A

10 miles out on the CTAF - entering downwind and each leg.

34
Q

What is the standard direction of turns in the traffic pattern?

A

Upwind, crosswind, downwind, base, final

35
Q

What is CTAF? Explain CTAF procedures at your training airport?

A

Common traffic advisory frequency - report 10 miles out and each leg of the pattern.

36
Q

How can you determine if a runway is closed?

A

White “X” lights at end of the runway.

37
Q

What are the typical dimensions of Class D airspace and what requirement(s) must be met prior to entry?

A

4 mi. Radius - 2500’ - tailnumber - two way radio comms

38
Q

What are the cloud clearance requirements and visibility requirements when operating in controlled airspace below 10,000’ MSL?

A

3 SM - 500’ below - 1000’ above - 2000’ horizontal.

Bravo - 3 mi and clear of clouds

39
Q

If you receive ATC instructions that you feel may compromise safety or will cause you to violate a FAR, what should you do?

A

Ask clarification - safety of the flight is the priority.

40
Q

Meaning of following ATC light signals in flight:

Steady green
Flashing green
Flashing red
Steady red

A

Clear to land
Come back to airport for landing
Airport unsafe
Keep circling

41
Q

ATC signals on the ground:

Steady green
Flashing white

A

Clear to takeoff

Return to starting point on the airport.

42
Q

What requirements are there for a student pilot to fly in Class B airspace?

A

Endorsement by CFI and route flown with CFI.

43
Q

Explain transponder equipment and use requirements when operating or near Class B airspace?

A

2 way radio and Mode C transponder w/ in 30 nm.

44
Q

Describe Class B airspace and how they apply to an airport within that airspace. Explain how navigation equipment and ground reference points help identify the Class B boundaries.

A

30 nm from the airport. Upside down wedding cake. Waypoints: Coliseum, Alameda, 110 freeway.

45
Q

You have called ATC just prior to entering Class B airspace and the controller tells you “Squawk 2466 and ident”. Are you now allowed to enter without further instructions?

A

No - need specific clearance.

46
Q

On a sectional chart what does a slashed magenta line around an airport indicate?

A

Class E - SFC to 17,999’

47
Q

What is the min. Visibility and ceiling requirement for VFR flight in Class D airspace?

A

3 miles, 500’ below, 1000’ above, 2000’ horizontally.

48
Q

What are the helicopter special VFR weather minimums and can student pilots request a special VFR clearance in Class D airspace when the visibility is less than 3 miles?

A

Clear of clouds- against the WX prescribed by CFI.

49
Q

You have called ATC prior to entering Class C airspace and the controller responds with your call sign and tells you to “standby”. Are you now allowed to enter the airspace without further instructions?

A

Yes - because two-way radio comms established with tailnumber.

50
Q

Describe typical dimensions of Class C airspace. Is participation in the radar service mandatory within the outer area of the Class C airspace?

A

5 mi radius.

Not mandatory

51
Q

Describe the Class C boundaries that your airport. Explain reference points for inner core and the shelf area.

A

5 mi except to the NW (WHP). Verdugos, 5/134 or LA Zoo, Mt. Lee, Cahuenga Pass, KJOI, 101/405, 4 Stacks.

Shelf - SF reservoir, Rose Bowl, 3-4 miles SW of VNY, Griffith Observatory, Sepulveda Pass.