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Flashcards in Oncology - Top Hat Deck (28)
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1

Cerenia (maropitant) treats vomiting by preventing the binding of which ligant to its respective receptor in the emetic center?

a. Serotonin - 5HT3

b. Dopamine - D2

c. Substance P - NK1

d. Histamine - H2

c. Substance P - NK1

2

Entyce (capromorelin) increases appetitie by mimicking the action of which endogenous hormone in the appetitie center?

a. Serotonin

b. Dopamine

c. Leptin

d. Ghrelin

d. Ghrelin

3

Approximately what % of dogs and cats experience clinical side effects following chemotherapy, and what % potentially require hospitalization?

a. 10%; <1%

b. 30%; 5-10%

c. 50%; 20%

d. 75%; 30%

b. 30%; 5-10%

4

Hypercalcemia is most commonly associated with which form of canine lymphoma?

a. Multicentric

b. Extranodal

c. Mediastinal

d. Cutaneous

e. Alimentary/GI

c. Mediastinal

5

A dog with lymphoma presenting with peripheral lymphadenopathy and uveitis would be classified with what stage of disease?

a. Stage 1

b. Stage 2

c. Stage 3

d. Stage 4

e. Stage 5

e. Stage 5

6

Which one of the following lymphoma diagnostics evaluates clonality of the lymphocyte population?

a. PARR

b. Flow cytometry

c. Immunohistochemistry

d. Immunocytochemistry

a. PARR

7

The diagnosis of indolent lymphoma is best made by:

a. History and clinical signs

b. PARR

c. Cytrology

d. Treatment response

e. Histopathology and IHC

e. Histopathology and IHC

8

The preferred initial treatment for most dogs with indolent lymphoma is:

a. An abbreviated CHOP-based protocol

b. Prednisone

c. CCNU (lomustine)

d. Doxorubicine

e. No treatment/monitor

e. No treatment/monitor

9

Gastrointestinal (GI) lymphoma diagnosed in cats is most frequently low/high grade B-cell/T-cell in origin, occuring most commonly in the small/large intestines. 

a. Low/T-cell/small

b. High/B-cell/large

c. Low/B-cell/small

d. Low/T-cell/large

a. Low/T-cell/small

10

The most important mechanism by which external beam radiation therapy causes DNA damage and results in cell death is via:

a. Direct action of ionizing radiation causing double strand breaks in the cellular DNA

b. Thermal damage to cells caused by ionizing radiation

c. Indirect action of ionizing radiation via free radical induction and subsequent DNA damage

d. Inhibition of topoisomerase II

c. Indirect action of ionizing radiation via free radical induction and subsequent DNA damage

11

Which of the following would be a possible early side effect following radiation therapy in a dog with a nasal tumor?

a. Cataract OS

b. Oral mucositis

c. Necrosis of the hard palate

d, Change in hair color in area treated

b. Oral mucositis

12

Dogs with gross/visible MCTs are at increased risk of this systemic side effect due to the histamine present in their mast cells:

a. gastric ulceration

b. epistaxis

c. pulmonary metastasis

d. uveitis

a. gastric ulceration

13

Mutation of which gene/receptor is assocaited with a more guarded prognosis and worse clinical outcome for dogs with mast cell tumors?

a. BRAF

b. C-KIT

c. VEGF

d. PDGF

B. C-KIT

14

What is the most comomn type of oral tumor in the dog?

a. Fibrosarcoma

b. Melanoma

c. Squamous Cell Carcinoma

d. Lymphoma

b. Melanoma

15

What is the most EFFECTIVE treatment with the FEWEST side effects for canine nasal tumors?

a. Surgery

b. Palliative Radiation therapy

c. Definitive Radiation Therapy

d. Stereotactic Radiation Therapy

d. Stereotactic Radiation Therapy

16

Canine TCC is most commonly found in the:

a. Apex of the bladder

b. Trigone of the bladder

c. Urethra

d. Prostate

b. Trigone of the bladder

17

What procedure is most likely to result in seeding of a TCC?

a. FNA of mass or bladder

b. Cytoscopy of bladder

c. Surgery to remove bladder mass

c. Surgery to remove bladder mass

18

Which of the following cancers is the most common cause of hypercalcemia of malignancy?

a. Lymphoma

b. Osteosarcoma

c. Hemangiosarcoma

d. Transitional Cell Carcinoma

a. Lymphoma

19

Which of the following is osteosarcoma?

a. A

b. B

c. C

d. all of these

b.B

20

Even with aggressive therapy (such as surgery or radiation therapy, and chemotherapy) survival times for most dogs with OSA are, on average, 9-12 months. Why?

a. All dogs with OSA are older and thus have a shorter expected survival time

b. 80% of dogs develop a pathologic fracture within 1 year of diagnosis

c. 90% of dogs have micrometastatic disease at presentation

c. 90% of dogs have micrometastatic disease at presentation

21

The most effective treatment option for canine splenic hemangiosarcoma (HSA) is:

a. surgery alone

b. surgery and doxorubicine chemotherapy

c. Surgery and carboplatin chemotherapy

d. Surgery and low-dose cyclophosphamide

b. surgery and doxorubicine chemotherapy

22

Which of the following does not fall into the category of a soft tissue sarcoma?

a. osteosarcoma

b. spindle cell sarcoma

c. rhabdomyosarcoma

d. leiomyosarcoma

a. osteosarcoma

23

Which of the following is NOT a cause of mammary carcinoma in dogs?

a. obesity

b. age

c. exposure to herbicides

d. exposure to estrogen

c. exposure to herbicides

24

Over 90% of ______ mammary tumors are malignant.

feline

25

True or False: Multiple vaccinations given at the same time increase the chances of FISS development

True

26

Which of the following is the correct surgical margin recommendation for a FISS?

a. 2-3 cm lateral margins; 1 fascial plane

b. 2-3 cm lateral margins; 2 fascial planes deep

c. 5 cm margins; 1 fascial plane deep

d. 5 cm lateral margins; 2 fascial planes deep

d. 5 cm lateral margins; 2 fascial planes deep

27

The most comon feline oral tumor is:

a. squamous cell carcinoma

b. fibrosarcoma

c. melanoma

d. lymphoma

a. squamous cell carcinoma

28

Which of the following viruses directly leads to feline cancer?

a. FeLV

b. FIV

c. Feline Papillomavirus

d. feline herpesvirus

a. FeLV

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