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Orthotic Mock Exams > Mock Exam 4 > Flashcards

Mock Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q 
Maximum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait?
A. heel off
b. toe off
c. acceleration
d. mid-swing
e. push-off
A

Heel off

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2
Q

A single cycle of gait is defined as the time…

a. from heel off of one foot to heel off of the other.
b. from heel off of one foot to push off of the same foot.
c. from heel off of one foot to heel strike of the other.
d. from heel off of one foot to heel off of the same foot.
e. from contralateral reciprocation of the forefoot weight time.

A

from heel off of one foot to heel off of the same foot.

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3
Q

During which phase of gait are the hip extensors most active?

a. mid-stance
b. heel-strike to foot flat
c. push to midswing
d. aceleration
e. foot flat to mid-stance

A

heel-strike to foot flat

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4
Q

At what phase of gait is medial lateral stability of the knee most important?

a. midswing
b. acceleration
c. mid-stance
d. foot flat
e. free fall

A

Mid-stance

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5
Q

In measuring for a quadrilateral brim, what is the most important measurement?

a. inguinal ligament to posterior
b. medial lateral and base scarpa triangle
c. anteroposterior and horizontal projection of scarpa triangle
d. thigh circumference divided by 2 plus 1.5 inch
e. anteroposterior and medial lateral.

A

anteroposterior and medial lateral.

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6
Q

What comprises the scarpa triangle?

a. sartorius, rectus femoris, inguinal ligament
b. sartorius, adductor magnus, inguinal ligament
c. sartorius, femoral artery, rectus abdominus
d. sartorius, inguinal ligament, adductor longus
e. anterior, lateral, proximal thigh

A

sartorius, inguinal ligament, adductor longus

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7
Q

What is the best position for managing the chronically dislocating gleno-humeral joint?

a. internally rotated and flexed slightly
b. abducted and internally rotated
c. abducted and externally rotated
d. abducted to at least 70 degrees
e. abducted to 50 degrees and compressed

A

abducted and internally rotated

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8
Q

The oblique diameter of a patients malleoli is 3 5/8 in (90mm). What should the inside dimension of the ankle joints be?

a. 3 7/8 (96mm)
b. 4 1/16 (101mm)
c. 3 15/16 (99mm)
d. 4 1/4 (106mm)
e. 4 3/16 (105mm)

A

4 1/16 (101mm)

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9
Q

A hemiplegic patient presents with zero hip extensors, fair quadriceps, zero calf. Which of the following would you recommend?

a. HKAFO
b. KAFO
c. AFO with dorsiflexion assist
d. AFO with plantarflexion restraint
e. no recommendation

A

KAFO

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10
Q

a 20 year old female patient presents with flaccid anterior compartment and M/L instability in her right lower limb. Which of the following would you recommend?

a. conventional AFO with dorsiflexion restraint
b. polypropylene AFO with trim anterior to the malleoli
c. conventional AFO with gerdmore mechanism.

A

polypropylene AFO with trim anterior to the malleoli

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11
Q

Which muscle most closely duplicates the function of the anterior tibialis?

a. posterior tibialis
b. peroneus longus
c. extensor digitorium
d. peroneus tertius
e. extensor hallicus longus

A

extensor hallicus longus

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12
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for a spiral AFO?

a. peripheral nerve type of injury
b. weak hip flexors
c. edema with frequent volume changes
d. mild spasticity
e. guillain-Barre

A

edema with frequent volume changes

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13
Q

Why is a Milwaukee brace carefully molded superior to the iliac crests?

a. assist in reducing lordosis
b. assist in pelvic derotation
c. to avoid bony landmarks
d. prevent distal migration
e. cosmesis

A

prevent distal migration

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14
Q

What level of paraplegia seldom gets braced?

a. C5
b. T6
c. T12
d. L1
e. L5

A

L5

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15
Q

Bunnell (cock-up) splints are frequently used for…

a. quadriplegia
b. burns
c. hemiplegia
d. trauma
e. arthritis

A

e. arthritis

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16
Q

What structure assists the deltoid in glenohumeral abductions?

a. latissimus dorsi
b. rhomboid
c. rotator cuff
d. pectoralis minor
e. coracobrachialis

A

rotator cuff

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17
Q

An orthotic patient’s wrist is positioned in ulnar deviation and flexion. You should try to reposition the patient’s wrist…

a. in slight radial deviation
b. in 30 degrees extension
c. in slight flexion
d. in slight flexion and slight radial deviation
e. in slight flexion, maintain ulnar deviation.

A

in 30 degrees extension

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18
Q

which of the following is often the result of an irregular birth?

a. Gower’s sign
b. Down syndrome
c. schmorl’s nodes
d. erb’s palsy
e. heterotopic ossification

A

erb’s palsy

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19
Q

Which of the following is an inflammation of the outer covering of the spinal cord and/or brain.

a. cerebral palsy
b. tuberculosis
c. melanoma
d. meningitis
e. pleuritis

A

meningitis

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20
Q

What is the primary target organ in rheumatoid arthritis?

a. bone
b. cartilage
c. synovium
d. ligaments
e. collagen

A

synovium

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21
Q

Which of the following best describes a small lubricant filled sac which if removed results in an increase in friction?

A

bursa

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22
Q

In an LSO what is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars?

a. the inferior angle of the scapula
b. one inch inferior angle of the scapula
c. the spine of the scapula
d. T7
e. halfway between the inferior angle and spine of the scapula

A

one inch inferior angle of the scapula

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23
Q

What is the superior margin of the paraspinal bars in a Taylor TLSO?

a. L1
b. spine of the scapula
c. inferior angle of scapula
d. halfway between spine and inferior angle of scapula
e. superior angle of the scapula

A

spine of the scapula

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24
Q

What is the preferred position for fitting a hyperextension TLSO (Jewitt type)?

a. prone
b. supine
c. sitting
d. standing
e. standing with knee flexed 20-30 degrees.

A

supine

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25
Q

The superior portion of Milwaukee CTLSO should be carefully fabricated so as to…

a. avoid excessive pressure on the chin
b. avoid excessive pressure on the mandibular angle
c. avoid excessive pressure on the xyphoid process
d. avoid excessive pressure on the ulnar styloid
e. maintain distraction of the cervical spine

A

avoid excessive pressure on the chin

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26
Q

In an attempt to restore upper limb function to a C5 complete quadriplegic, which orthosis should you recommed?

a. WHO
b. WHO c-bar
c. HO
d. WDWHO
e. WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension

A

WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension

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27
Q

In an attempt to restore upper limb function to a C6 complete quadriplegic, which orthosis should you recommend?

a. WHO
b. WHO c-bar
c. HO
d. WDWHO
e. WHO with externally powered wrist and/or prehension

A

WDWHO

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28
Q

For a median nerve injury at the wrist which is the most appropriate orthosis?

a. WHO
b. HO
c. WHO with c-bar
d. WHO with thumb post
e. HO with thumb post

A

HO with thumb post

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29
Q

What structure is at the distal end of the humerus?

a. olecrenon
b. capitate
c. coronoid
d. epiphysis
e. epicondyle

A

epicondyle

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30
Q

Primary function of the brachioradialis is…

a. gleno-humeral flexion
b. elbow flexion
c. elbow flexion and forearm supination
d. gleno-humeral flexion and elbow flexion

A

elbow flexion and forearm supination

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31
Q

The secondary function of the biceps brachii is…

a. pronation
b. supination
c. gleno-humeral extension
d. elbow protraction
e. gleno humeral adduction

A

supination

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32
Q 
The primary function of the brachialis is...
a. supination
b. pronation
c. elbow flexion
d. elbow flexion and supination
e elbow flexion and pronation
A

elbow flexion

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33
Q

In addition to the deltoid, the axillary nerve innervates the…

a. pronator teres
b. teres major
c. supraspinatus
d. teres minor
e. rhomboids

A

teres minor

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34
Q 
Which of the following compliments the deltoid in performing glenohumeral abduction?
a rotator cuff
b. triangular ligament
c. subclavius
d. pectoralis major-clavicular head
e. levator scapulae
A

rotator cuff

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35
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication for a plastic AFO?

a. weak dorsiflexors
b. subtalor instability
c. flaccid peroneus tertius
d. weak calf
e. deep peroneal nerve injury

A

flaccid peroneus tertius

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36
Q

Which orthosis would you recommend to a mid-humerus fracture which included injury to the radial nerve?

a. WHO with wrist flexion assist
b. WHo with thumb extension assist
c. WHO with thumb extension and finger extension assist
d. WHO with wrist, thumb, and finger extension assist
e. HO with thumb and finger extension assist

A

WHO with wrist, thumb, and finger extension assist

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37
Q

Which best describes the purpose of the thumb post?

a. positioning for lateral prehension
b. positioning circumduction
c. adduction stop
d. abduction stop
e. positioning for palmar prehension

A

positioning for palmar prehension

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38
Q

In picking up an object from a table what is the best position for the wrist?

a. 5 degrees flexion
b. 10 degrees extension
c. 35 degrees flexion
d. 30 degrees extension
e. 10 degrees flexion with 15 degrees ulnar deviation

A

35 degrees flexion

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39
Q

Which of the following does not contribute to spinal extension?

a. erector spinae
b. quadratus lumborum
c. levator scapulae
d. lateral abdominus obliques
e. latissimus dorsi

A

lateral abdominus obliques

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40
Q

Which of the following best describes the orthotic objective of the UCBL FO?

a. compress talo-navicular joint
b. align midtarsal articulation
c. redirect metatarsal forces over larger area
d. diminish calcaneus ML instability
e. limit sagittal motion of calcaneus

A

diminish calcaneus ML instability

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41
Q

A patient wearing a Dennis brown orthosis exhibits undesirable eversion, you should…

a. contour the crossmember concave to the patent to pronate the feet
b. contour the crossmember convex to the patient to pronate the feet
c. contour the crossmember concave to the patient to supinate the feet.
d. contour the crossmember convex to the patient to supinate the feet.
e. contour the sidebar to promote inversion.

A

contour the crossmember convex to the patient to supinate the feet.

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42
Q 
Which of the following is the best means to accomodate valgus in a patients lower limb?
a extend the medial stirrup extension
b. extend the lateral stirrup extension
c. medial wedge
d. scaphoid pad
e. slight internal rotation in orthosis
A

extend the medial stirrup extension

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43
Q

Which muscle flexes the middle phalanx?

a. flexor communis
b. flexor digitil brevis
c. flexor digitorum profundus
d. flexor digiturum sublimis
e. flexor palmaris

A

flexor communis

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44
Q

Abduction and adduction occurs in the…

a. sagittal plane
b. coronal plane
c. transverse plane
d. horizontal plane
e. oblique plane

A

coronal plane

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45
Q

Abduction and adduction occurs in the hand at the…

a. carpal-metacarpal joint
b. carpal phalangeal joint
c. metacarpal-phalangeal joint
d. proximal interphalangeal
e. distal interphalangeal joint

A

metacarpal-phalangeal joint

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46
Q

Loss of the opponens pollicis is the result of an injury to the…

a. median nerve
b. axillary nerve
c. radial nerve
d. ulnar nerve
e. carpus nerve

A

median nerve

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47
Q

The primary purpose of a C-bar is…

a. opponens assist
b. opponens stop
c. adduction stop
d. abduction stop
e. abduction assist

A

adduction stop

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48
Q

The distal edge of the C-bar should…

a. fall 3mm (1/8in) proximal to the nail bed
b. fall 3mm (1/8in) distal to the nail bed
c. cover the planus articularis
d. extend just distal to the pollicis IP
e. extend just proximal to the pollicis IP

A

extend just proximal to the pollicis IP

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49
Q

The superior surface of the atlas articulates with the…

a. odontoid process
b. axis
c. C1
d. biceptal articularis
e. mandibular angle

A

odontoid process

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50
Q

Spondylolisthesis is a condition best described as…

a. anterior displacement of SI with respect to L5
b. pars articulares fracture
c. superior facet subluxation
d. anterior displacement of L5 with respect to S1
e. lateral-anterior migraton of L5-S1 disc.

A

anterior displacement of L5 with respect to S1

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51
Q

In order to treat kyphosis with a Milwaukee TLSO the pads should be placed…

a. anteriorly
b. posteriorly
c. 2 ribs below lateral curve
d. 2 ribs above the lateral curve
e. laterally 2cm below the scoliotic apex

A

posteriorly

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52
Q

The optimum hip angle of the patient during casting for a Milwaukee TLSO is…

a. hyperextension
b. full extension
c. slight flexion
d. flexion commensurate with minimum lordosis

A

flexion commensurate with minimum lordosis

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53
Q

The pelvic band for an LSO or TLSO should…

a. overlap the greater trochanters
b. fall just distal to the greater trochanter
c. be fitted superior (3mm) to the iliac crest
d. lie halfway between the inferior costal margin and the iliac crest
e. lie halfway between the iliac crest and the greater trochanter.

A

lie halfway between the iliac crest and the greater trochanter.

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54
Q

The axis of rotation of the hip joint can be located…

a. anterior/posterior to the greater trochanter
b. anterior/superior to the greater trochanter
c. posterior/superior to the greater trochanter
d. anterior/inferior to the greater trochanter
e. posterior/inferior to the greater trochanter.

A

anterior/superior to the greater trochanter

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55
Q

What is the most frequently fit lumbosacral orthosis in the united states?

a. taylor
b. knight
c. chairback
d. corset
e. Milwaukee

A

corset

56
Q

In fabricating a PTB type of orthosis, it is necessary to carefully form the material in the popliteal area to…

a. produce adequate anteriorly directed force
b. promote quadriceps derotational torque
c. avoid pressure against the posterior tibial artery
d. allow for frequent volume changes
e. maintain destimulation of the golgi tendon appartus

A

produce adequate anteriorly directed force

57
Q

Which of the following is not an upper motor neuron injury?

a. multiple sclerosis
b. cerebral palsy
c. spinal injury
d. diabetes neuropathy
e. cerebro-vascular accident

A

diabetes neuropathy

58
Q

As an orthotist your primary concern with a spinal injury patient is…

a. distribution of impaired/loss sensation
b. skin sensitivity to pressure
c. heterotopic ossification
d. autonomic dysreflexia
e. spasticity

A

skin sensitivity to pressure

59
Q

What nerve is most likely affected on a patient with a foot drop?

a. femoral nerve
b. obturator nerve
c. tibial nerve
d. peroneal nerve
e. medial plantar nerve

A

peroneal nerve

60
Q

Aponeurosis is a

a. flat tendon
b. thin tendinous sheath
c. ligamentous expanse
d. membrane dividing muscle masses
e. lining between joint capsule and synovium

A

thin tendinous sheath

61
Q

The sensory distribution of the spinal nerves is…

a. dorsal
b. anterior
c. ventral
d. autonomic
e. regangliated

A

dorsal

62
Q

What is the affect of fitting a KAFO on a patient with insufficient external rotation?

a. inversion
b. pronation
c. eversion
d. supination
e. pes planus forces.

A

inversion

63
Q

The main reason for using a WHO instead of a hand orthosis is..

a. positioning the wrist
b. intrinsic paralysis
c. more support for the palmar arch
d. placing the lumbrical bar

A

positioning the wrist

64
Q

The serratus anterior performs what action?

a. adduction and upward rotation
b. abduction and upward roation
c. adduction and elevation
d. shoulder extension

A

abduction and upward roation

65
Q

The HO controls…

a. palmer arch and thumb position
b. radial deviation
c. first dorsal interosseous
d. longitudinal arch and carpal tunnel

A

palmer arch and thumb position

66
Q

Adduction and abduction occurs in…

a. coronal plane
b. transverse plane
c. sagittal plane
d. both a and c

A

coronal plane

67
Q

MP flexion and IP extension are performed primarily by th…

a. flexordigitorum profundus and subliminus
b. interossei and lumbricales
c. opponens pollicis

A

interossei and lumbricales

68
Q

A mobile base of support for the arm the…

a. scapula
b. navicular
c. sternum
d. latissimus dorsi

A

scapula

69
Q

The muscle that can flex, abduct, extend, and support the shoulder joint is…

a. latissimus dorsi
b. subscapularis
c. biceps brachii
d. deltoid

A

deltoid

70
Q

Flaccid paralysis is most often seen in

a. upper motor neuron injuries
b. central nervous system injuries
c. peripheral nervous system injuries
d. both a and b

A

peripheral nervous system injuries

71
Q

A second MP abduction spring assist is used to…

a. abduct the second MP joint
b. flex the third phalanx
c. oppose the opponens bar
d. adduct the second MP joint

A

abduct the second MP joint

72
Q

The MP extension stop should be placed…

a. halfway between the PIP and DIP joints
b. over the PIP joints
c. just proximal to the PIP joints
d. behind the first MP joint

A

just proximal to the PIP joints

73
Q

A dynamic IP extension assist with an MP stop should be used…

a. if patient has weakness of the lumbricals
b. if patient is unable to extend fingers at MP joint
c. if patient hyperextends at MP joint
d. if patient is unable to extend fingers at MP and IP joints

A

if patient has weakness of the lumbricals

74
Q

Ideally, how soon after injury should a quadriplegic patient be fitted with an upper limb orthosis?

a. while the patient is on a stryker frame
b. six weeks
c. six months
d. one year

A

while the patient is on a stryker frame

75
Q

Extension of the proximal phalanx at the MP joint is produced by…

a. the long extensor
b. long extensor and interossei
c. long extensor and lumbricales
d. b and c combined

A

the long extensor

76
Q

The movile segment of the transverse arch of the hand is formed by the metacarpals

a. 3-4
b. 1-2-3
c. 1-4-5
d. 1-5

A

3-4

77
Q

The middle of the long finger has…

a. 2 volar and dorsal interossei
b. 2 dorsal interossei and a volar interossei
c. 2 volar interossei and a lumbrical
d. 2 dorsal and one ulnar lumbrical
e. 2 dorsal interossei and one radial lumbrical

A

2 dorsal interossei and one radial lumbrical

78
Q

Upward rotation of the scapula is produced by…

a. the upper and middle segments of the trapezius and serratus
b. anterior
c. the upper trapezius and latissimus dorsi
d. the levator scapulae and the serratus anterior

A

the upper and middle segments of the trapezius and serratus

79
Q 
Plaster of Paris is the anhydrous form of a naturally occuring mineral called...
a gneiss
b. gypsum
c. golgi
d. garnet
A

gypsum

80
Q

The second MP joint is abducted by the…

a. 1st palmar interosseus
b. 1 dorsal interosseus
c. 2nd palmar interosseus
d. 2nd dorsal interosseus

A

1 dorsal interosseus

81
Q

Regarding the plaster bandage…

a. it should be wetted with warm water
b. it should be wetted with cool water
c. water temperature depends on how fast or slowly you want it to set
d. water temperature depends on the brand of elastic plaster you are using.

A

water temperature depends on how fast or slowly you want it to set

82
Q

What is the etiology of a disease?

a. the functional change that occurs
b. the study of the cause of the disease
c. that which distinguishes one disease from another
d. the ultimate result of the disease

A

the study of the cause of the disease

83
Q

Which movements occur at both the elbow and shoulder joints?

a. abduction and flexion
b. circumduction and flexion
c. abduction circumduction and flexion
d. extension and flexion

A

extension and flexion

84
Q

The space between an axon and a dendrite is called a…

a. synocope
b. synonum
c. syllogism
d. synapse

A

synapse

85
Q

A patient with a lesion located in the _______ would probably be aphasic.

a. central nervous system
b. peripheral nervous system
c. right brain lobe
d. left brain lobe

A

left brain lobe

86
Q

The technique for donning and doffing a particular orthosis should be discussed with…

a. the physician
b. the patient
c. the patient’s family
d. the nursing staff
e. all of the above.

A

all of the above.

87
Q

Which of the following is not part of a typical nerve cell?

a. flagella
b. dendrite
c. axon
d. nucleus

A

flagella

88
Q

Spastic paralysis may result from

a. spinal cord injury
b. brain injury
c. injury to the cauda equina
d. peripheral nerve injury
e. a and b
f. b and d
g. c only

A

a and b

89
Q

The gelatenous center of a spinal disc is called the…

a. annulus fibrosus
b. body
c. epiphysis
d. nucleus pulposus

A

nucleus pulposus

90
Q

The lumbar spine consists of how many vertebrae…

a. 3
b. 5
c. 2
d. 4

A

5

91
Q

With a disruption in the lower motor neuron, what kind of response would you expect…

a. kinetic response
b. flaccid or hypotonic response
c. spastic or hypertonic response
d. all of the above
e. none of the above.

A

flaccid or hypotonic response

92
Q

Which of the following is considered an upper motor neuron disorder?

a. cerebral palsy
b. multiple sclerosis
c. polimyelitis
d. b and c
e. a and b
f. all of the above

A

a and b

93
Q

When someone has a spinal cord injury at the level of T2-T3 the result is…

a. quadriplegia with spasticity
b. paraplegia with flaccidity
c. paraplegia with neither spasticity nor flaccidity
d. quadriplegia with flaccidity
e. paraplegia with spasticity

A

paraplegia with spasticity

94
Q

C1-C2 joint allows…

a. extension and flexion
b. flexion and rotation
c. rotation, flexion, and extension

A

rotation, flexion, and extension

95
Q

The erector spinae muscles are active as…

a. flexors of the spine
b. lateral flexors of the spine
c. extensors of the spine
d. both a and b
e. both b and c

A

both b and c

96
Q

The position of the thoracic articular facets are most disadvantageously positioned to allow for…

a. rotation
b. flexion
c. hyperextension
d. lateral flexion

A

hyperextension

97
Q

spondylolisthesis is a condition of the spine that…

a. is caused by rotational forces applied to the vertebrae
b. shows signs of a forward slipping of the vertebrae over another
c. shows, by x-ray, a defect in the spine without forward slipping.

A

shows signs of a forward slipping of the vertebrae over another

98
Q

A patient has a comrpession fracture at T12 level. What type of orthosis is best suited for the stabilization of the fracture?

a. lumbosacral corset
b. dorsolumbar corset
c. anterior control hyperextension orthosis
d. posterior control flexion orthosis

A

anterior control hyperextension orthosis

99
Q

Scheuerman’s disease typically produces…

a. a double major scoliotic curve
b. a thoracic kyphosis
c. extreme lumbar lordosis
d. no adverse effect on the spinal column

A

a thoracic kyphosis

100
Q

The taylor spinal orthosis would be classified as a

a. A, P, ML TLSO
b. A P TLSO
c. P, ML TLSO
d. A, ML LSO

A

A P TLSO

101
Q

The proper length measurement fo a Taylor spinal orthosis is…

a. inferior scapular angle to inferior edge of sacrum
b. L5-S1 level to scapular spine
c. inferior edge of sacrum to scapular spine

A

inferior edge of sacrum to scapular spine

102
Q

The greatest amount of rotation occurs in

a. the sacral spine
b. the lumbar spine
c. the thoracic spine
d. July

A

the thoracic spine

103
Q

A _________ orthosis is often used to treat kyphosis.

a. Norton Brown
b. Milwaukee
c. McAusland

A

Milwaukee

104
Q

A TLSO (Boston type) is effective in controlling a curve as high as…

a. T5
b. T8
c. L1

A

T8

105
Q

Which muscle or muscle group does not act upon the elbow?

a. biceps brachii
b. triceps brachii
c. brachialis
d. deltoid

A

deltoid

106
Q

Orthotically speaking, a C6 lesion would best be managed with…

a. a WDWHO
b. a short opponens orthosis
c. a long opponens orthosis (WHO) with extended wrist and lumbrical bar
d. a long opponens with outrigger and IP extension assist.

A

a WDWHO

107
Q

The lumbricals function to…

a. flex the MP joint and extend the IP joints
b. abduct the phalanges
c. extend the IP joints and extend the MP joints
d. flex the MP joints and fleex the IP joints

A

flex the MP joint and extend the IP joints

108
Q

The pronator quadratus…

a. flexes elbow and pronates the forearm
b. pronates the forearm
c. flexes wrist and pronates forearm
d. extends wrist and pronates forearm

A

pronates the forearm

109
Q

The motion occuring between the carpal joints provide for what type of joints?

a. hinge
b. gliding
c. saddle
d. rotation

A

gliding

110
Q

The proper placement of the distal end of a thumb adduction stop (c-bar)

a. at the thumb tip
b. just proximal to the IP joint
c. at the center of the web space

A

b. just proximal to the IP joint

111
Q

The adductors of the scapula include all except…

a. middle trapezius
b. rhomboids
c. latissimus dorsi
d. serratus anterior

A

serratus anterior

112
Q

The strength of a muscle is determined by and is directly proportional to

a. the individual muscle fiber length
b. the specific location of it’s insertion and origin
c. the position the involved joint is in before initiation of muscle action
d. the cross section of the muscle.

A

the cross section of the muscle.

113
Q

When positioning the wrist for the fitting of a WHO the most functional position would be

a. slightly flexed
b. fully extended
c. neither flexed no extended
d. slightly extended

A

slightly extended

114
Q

The thenar musculature is located.

a. on the ulnar side of the hand.
b. at the base of the thumb
c. in the center of the palm
d. on the volar surface of the fingers

A

at the base of the thumb

115
Q

Which of the following would not be classified as a type of hand prehension.

a. spherical
b. cylindrical
c. lateral
d. oblique

A

oblique

116
Q

The “ape hand” is characterized by a lesion of what nerve?

a. musculocutaneous
b. radial
c. median
d. ulnar

A

median

117
Q

A swan neck deformity refers to

a. hyperextension of middle joint and flexion of the distal finger
b. flexion of both IP joints with hyperextension of the MP joint
c. flexion of the middle joint and hyperextension of the distal finger joint
d. hyperextension of MP and both finger joints.

A

hyperextension of middle joint and flexion of the distal finger

118
Q

A peripheral nerve injury at the wrist of the ulnar nerve would best be braced with

a. a long opponens (WHO) with outrigger
b. WDWHO
c. short opponens (HO) with C-bar and opponens bar
d. short opponens (HO) with MP extension stop (lumbrical bar)

A

short opponens (HO) with MP extension stop (lumbrical bar)

119
Q

The proper length of the thumb post is…

a. just beyond the nail bed
b. at the center of the IP joint
c. at the MP joint

A

just beyond the nail bed

120
Q

A volkmann’s ischemic contracture is caused by

a. atrophy from disuse
b. nerve damage
c. compromised vascular flow

A

compromised vascular flow

121
Q

______ pertains to the palm of the hand or the sole of the foot.

a. ulnar
b. varus
c. volar
d. dorsum

A

volar

122
Q

The innominate bones are joined by another structure known as __________ thus forming the pelvic girdle.

a. the sacrum
b. the ischium
c. the symphysis pubis
d. the iliac crest

A

the sacrum

123
Q

The socket that articulates with the head of the femur is known as the

a. cubital fossa
b. popliteal fossa
c. coracoid
d. acetabulum

A

acetabulum

124
Q

Which of the following is not a biarticular muscle

a. semitendinosis
b. biceps femoris
c. soleus
d. gastrocnemius

A

soleus

125
Q 
A peripheral nerve injury of the peroneal nerve would cause...
a a foot drop and inverted foot
b. an extremely dorsiflexed foot
c. a plantar flexed foot with eversion
d. an everted foot
A

a plantar flexed foot with eversion

126
Q

Genu varum is a position of the knee joint commonly called

a. bow leggedness
b. knock knee
c. normal knee
d. recurvatum

A

bow leggedness

127
Q

Extensors of the hip include all of the following except

a. gluteus maximus
b. semitendinosis
c. gluteus medius
d. bicep femoris

A

gluteus medius

128
Q

Which of the following would not be classified as an upper motor neuron disorder…

a. peripheral nerve injury
b. cerebral palsy
c. cerebral vascular accident
d. multiple sclerosis

A

peripheral nerve injury

129
Q

A rapid alternating involuntary movement elicited by stretch is known as

a. spasticity
b. istonic contraction
c. clonus
d. contracture

A

clonus

130
Q

A positive trendelenburg sign is given when

a. there is weakness of the gluteus maximus
b. the noninvolved side of the pelvis drops upon weight bearing
c. the involved side of the pelvis drops upon weight bearing on the noninvolved side.

A

the noninvolved side of the pelvis drops upon weight bearing

131
Q

Which means is not a way to correct equinovalgus…

a. scaphoid pad
b. medial heel wedge
c. lateral heel and sole wedge
d. medial t-strap with single or double bar AFO

A

lateral heel and sole wedge

132
Q

The proper location of the knee joint on a KAFO is

a. at the level of the tibial plateau
b. at the level of the adductor tubercle
c. one-half the distance between the adductor tubercle and the tibial plateau
d. one-half the distance between the ankle joint and the superior edge of the proximal thigh band.

A

one-half the distance between the adductor tubercle and the tibial plateau

133
Q

The ankle joint axis should be located

a. at the distal border of the medial malleolus
b. at the distal border of the lateral malleolus
c. at the proximal border of the medial malleolus

A

at the distal border of the medial malleolus

134
Q

You can control knee flexion in AFO with

a. long tongue stirrup
b. long tongue stirrup with double action ankle joints with springs
c. long tongue stirrup with double action ankle joints with pins.

A

long tongue stirrup with double action ankle joints with pins.

135
Q

A rocker sole on a shoe will

a. make up for leg shortage
b. provide for simulated ankle and toe motion
c. prevent plantar flexion

A

provide for simulated ankle and toe motion

136
Q

Minimum dorsiflexion occurs during which phase of gait?

a. heel off
b. toe off
c. acceleration
d. mid-swing
e. push off

A

toe off

Orthotic Mock Exams (4 decks)

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