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Flashcards in march 1 Deck (42)
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1
Q

what is plan B ?

A

levonogorgestrel

2
Q

how does the levonogorgestrel (plan B) pill work?

A

high dose progesterone -> prevents LH surge and thus prevents ovulation

3
Q

a herald patch is associated with which skin condition?

A

pityriasis rosea

4
Q

management of pityriasis rosea?

A

Self-limited -> reassurance

antihistamines if patient has itching

5
Q

what is a joint complication of hemophilia A and B?

A

hemophilic arthropathy

6
Q

path of hemophilic arthropathy

A

Hemosiderin deposition (from bleeding into the joint) causes joint inflammation, which leads to fibrosis and destruction of cartilage and bone

7
Q

A patient has a previous episode of untreated acute rheumatic fever and now has rheumatic heart disease …. do you treat them?

A

Yes - penicillin

8
Q

diagnosis of amyloidosis?

A

fat pad biopsy (shows amyloid)

9
Q

what are the language milestones of a 2 year old?

A
  • know at least 50 words

- 2 word phrases

10
Q

which patients should be referred for carotid endarterectomy?

A

patients with symptoms and high grade carotid stenosis (>70%)

11
Q

why is a standard pulse ox not reliable to determine carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

it cant tell the difference between caryboxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin

12
Q

do children with Hep A have jaundice?

A

not usually

13
Q

hypercalcemia may occur secondarily to…

A

malignancy

14
Q

why are bisphosphonates useful in bone metastasis?

A

they inhibit osteoclasts and stabilize destructive bony tumours, reducing the risk of pathologic fracture and malignant hypercalcemia

15
Q

Distortion of straight lines is an early sign of…

A

macular degeneration

16
Q

what is the name of the test that screens for macular degeneration?

A

the grid test (straight lines will appear wavy)

17
Q

whats the name of the commonly found lesion in macular degeneartion?

A

drusen deposits

18
Q

what changes occur in the esophagus in systemic sclerosis?

A

muscle atrophy and fibrosis

19
Q

GBS CSF findings - protein ?

A

increased

20
Q

GBS CSF findings - WBCs?

A

normal

21
Q

GBS CSF findings - RBCs?

A

normal

22
Q

GBS CSF findings - glucose?

A

normal

23
Q

where do most DVTs occur?

A

distal leg/calf veins

24
Q

what is the most common origin location of a DVT that EMBOLIZES to the lung?

A

proximal/thigh DVTs (>90% of PEs)

25
Q

what is ‘lone atrial fibrillation?’

A

atrial fibrillation that occurs without evidence of cardiopulmonary or structural heart disease

26
Q

do patients with ‘lone AF’ need anticoagulation?

A

NO - no therapy needed - they have a CHASVAS score of 0

27
Q

clinical presentation of behcet disease?

A

recurrent genital and oral ulcers that are painful, may occur with uveitis

28
Q

presentation of disseminated gonoccocal disease?

A
  • purulent arthritis

- or triad of: tenosynovitis, dermatitis, polyarthralgia

29
Q

what is felty syndrome?

A

rheumatoid arthritis with neutropenia and splenomegaly

30
Q

difference between acute otitis media and otitis media with effusion?

A

acute otitis media has inflammation (fever, TM bulging) whereas otitis media does not

31
Q

what is the most common vaginal foreign body in a prepubescent girl?

A

toilet paper

32
Q

Investigation when there is suspicion of a vaginal foreign body in a prepubescent girl?

A

external pelvic exam or child in knee-to-chest position

33
Q

vaginal foreign body in a prepubescent girl that is EASILY visualized- next step?

A

attempt at removal (with topical anesthetic) with warm fluid irrigation or a swab

34
Q

vaginal foreign body in a prepubescent girl - where clinical evaluation of the foreign body is not adequate- next step?

A

foreign body removal under sedation or genearl anesthesia

35
Q

a patient tests positive for gonorrhe and negative for chlamydia - treatment?

A

ceftriaxone + azithromycin

36
Q

why must you give ceftriaxone + azithromycin for gonorrhea when theres NO chlamydia?

A

increased resistance rates

37
Q

when does jaundice peak with hep A?

A

2 weeks in

38
Q

how may a baby get botulinism thats NOT from food?

A

from inhaled botulism spores from environmental dust

39
Q

symptoms of digoxin toxicity?

A

GI: nausea, anorexia, abdominal pain
Neuro: fatigue, confusion, weakness, color vision alterations

40
Q

what channel in the heart may TCAs block?

A

fast sodium channels -> conduction abnormalities

41
Q

when does a patient with a TCA overdose need sodium bicarb?

A

if QRS >100

42
Q

whats a normal QRS length?

A

80-100 ms