Landing Gear and Brakes Flashcards

1
Q

What does positioning the landing gear lever to OFF do

A

The OFF position removes hydraulic pressure from the landing gear

Mechanical uplocks hold the landing gear up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the purpose of the lever lock override trigger?

A

To bypass the landing gear lever lock under certain conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

A gear position light is not illuminated with the landing gear lever in the down position but the supplemental gear position light is green. What is the gear position?

A

The landing gear is down and locked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of the landing gear transfer valve?

A

It allows the B hydraulic system to retract the landing gear under the following conditions:

Airborne, and
#1 engine N2 < 50%, and
Landing gear lever is positioned up, and
Either main landing gear is not up and locked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What effect does the manual extension access door have on the landing gear operation?

A

Landing gear retraction is inhibited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does pulling a manual gear extension handle do?

A

Releases the respective landing gear mechanical uplock

Handle needs to be pulled to full extension, about 24”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The landing gear configuration aural warning horn cannot be silenced beyond which flap setting?

A

Flaps beyond 25

10 degrees on test *****

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What supplies pressure to the alternate brake system if normal brake pressure is low?

A

Hydraulic system A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What braking is available if both hydraulic systems A and B are lost?

A

Brake Accumulator

6 brake applications or the parking brake set for 8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which brake systems provide anti-skid, locked wheel, touchdown, and hydroplane protection?

A

Normal and alternate brakes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When does RTO braking automatically begin during a rejected takeoff?

A

When the forward thrust levers are returned to idle after reaching a speed of 90kts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Landing with the autobrakes in RTO results in what braking?

A

No automatic braking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the difference between autobrake 1, 2, 3, and MAX?

A
Deceleration rate
1 - 2.4 kts/sec
2 - 3.0 kts/sec
3 - 4.3 kts/sec
MAX - 8.3 kts / sec
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

How is the autobrake system disarmed?

A

Manually overriding with the brake pedals

Speed brake lever moved to down

Thrust levers advanced

Switch OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How is the brake accumulator pressurized?

A

Hydraulic System B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

In flight, how is a PSEU fault indicated?

A

No indication in flight, PSEU caution light is inhibited:

in flight, or
thrust levers advanced, or
for 30 seconds after landing