Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Vet Nursing > Laboratory Animals > Flashcards

Laboratory Animals Flashcards

All information that was taught to me while attending Vanier College's "Animal Health Technology" Program, located in St-Laurent Montreal.

1
Q

What is the ACC oversee

A

Checks for good animal practice. Checks for the CCAC certification of good animal practice. Enforces the three R program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the 3Rs

A

Replacement, refinement, reduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does Calas do

A

Improves the standards of practice is enhance animal welfare. Have a national and regional chapter. Also have a registry board exam to be a certified Lab animal technician

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What does calam do

A

Concerns veterinarians in lab animal settings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does aaalac do

A

Similar to CCAC. Accreditation program in the USA. It is international although based in USA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does aalas do

A

Similar to calas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does aclam do

A

Similar to calam. For vets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe in vitro preclinical testing

A

In cultures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe in vivo preclinical testing

A

Preclinical testing on live animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the purpose of preclinical testing

A

Done for safety, efficacy. Required to test on 2 species. Ie: 1 rodent, 1 rabbit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Where do you do new drug submissions in the USA

A

At the fda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Where are the new drug submissions done in Canada

A

Health Canada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is gcp

A

Good clinical practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should the gcp do

A

Should be observed in the conduct of all human drug investigations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the first phase of the clinical trial

A

20-100 healthy candidates. Assesses safety and dosage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is phase 2 of clinical trials

A

On larger groups 20-300. Tested on people who have the disease. Evaluate for side effects and efficacy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is phase 3 of the clinical trial

A

Multicenter trials, randomized controlled studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What happens if phase 1-3 is successful

A

All data is submitted to the regulatory authorities (nds). Once accepted there is still a phase 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is phase 4 of the clinical trial

A

Monitoring to check for side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is glp

A

Good laboratory practice relating to non clinical research. Instituted by fda in early 1970. Establishes safety in non clinical studies: food and color additives, drugs, medical devices, pesticides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the glp regulate

A

All the methods that must be used to conduct preclinical trials including documentation of data

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is certified food

A

Food is made without contaminates, then checked for metal, antibiotics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why do we follow glp

A

Assure quality of research for fda.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How do you ensure glp is followed

A

Hire a QA unit to monitor, study, and they report to upper management.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 2 duties of QA

A
  1. Monitor the study to ensure compliance with glp regulations 2. Perform inspections to ensure compliance with protocol and sop
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the sop used for

A

Standard operating procedures. We use it to establish consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What does the CCAC or or CCPA oversee

A

Oversees the ethical use of animals in science in Canada

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is gnotobiotic

A

All the life is known in these animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is axenic

A

Germ free animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is defined microbially associated animals

A

Animals injected with specific flora (derived from axenic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is barrier maintained animals

A

Free from pathogens: high security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Monitored animals

A

Less rigorous monitoring than barrier maintained, may have some pathogens but no major ones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is conventional

A

The opposite of gnotobiotic and barrier maintained animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is specific pathogen free

A

Not free of all pathogens, just specific ones. Can include vaf. Population is regularly checked to ensure status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is virus antibody free

A

Free of all viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is outbred stock

A

Avoid inbreeding, mating of individuals as unrelated as possible. Increase heterozygous status. Kept in closed colonies of > 4 generation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is an inbred strain

A

Minimum of 20 consecutive brother sister matings. Virtually identical to all other of the same strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

F1 hybrid

A

Cross two inbred strains. Goals: known genetics with hybrid strengths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Coisogenic

A

Two strains differing only by one gene. Arise from either a single mutation or by knock out technology. Mutation strain maintained separate from original inbred strain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Congenic

A

Two strains differing only by one gene. Accomplished by breeding rather than as a result of mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Transgenic

A

Intentional insertion of dna. To have an animal model to study specific diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is knockout

A

Intentional blockage of a normal gene. Causes a disease to occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What does a colon mean after the name

A

Means inbred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What does / mean

A

Outbred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the short term adverse effects of removing too much blood

A

Hypovolemic shock, long crt, cold extremities, weak pulse, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are long term effects of removing too much blood

A

Anemia (exercise intolerance, pale mm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How do you calculate estimated circulating blood volume in mice

A

Percent body weight in grams. Equivalents in milliliters per kilogram. Effects of obesity and age. 6% body weight equals 60 ML/KG. BW

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a safe amount to draw of blood every four weeks

A

15% of body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a safe amount to draw up of blood every two weeks

A

10% bodyweight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the safe amount of blood to draw up every week

A

7.5% of body weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is the safe amount of blood to draw up everyday

A

1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the scientific name of the rat

A

Rattus norvegicus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the origin of the rat

A

Asia and Europe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the outbred stocks of the Rats

A

Wistar, sprague-dawley, long Evans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the inbred stocks of the rats

A

Fischer, Lewis, brown Norway, Buffalo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Describe the behaviour of a rat

A

Docile, rarely bites, adaptive to new surroundings, sensitive to sounds, vibrations. Often returns to cage if escapes. Very easily tamed and trained. Rarely fight, coprophagic, nocturnal, burrowing, communal. Omnivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the tail of the rat used for

A

Balance and thermoregulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe the digestive tract of a rat

A

Hind gut fermenter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is brown fat used for in the rat

A

Does thermogenesis to produce heat.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is special about mammary glands in male rats

A

Males have the glands but no nipples

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the hibernating organ

A

The brown fat between shoulder blades

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

How many teeth do rats have

A

16

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What can rats be a model of with the digestive system

A

Model for tooth decay studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the two portions of a rat stomach

A

Glandular and non glandular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the glandular portion of the rats stomach used for

A

Digestion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the non glandular portion of the rats stomach for

A

Holds food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the stomach fold called in the rats

A

Limiting ridge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Can rats vomit ?

A

No they can’t

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the three organs of the rats digestive system

A

Caecum, pancreas, liver.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is special about a rats digestive system ?

A

They don’t have a gallbladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is special about a rats heart

A

It has Os Cordis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is Os Cordis

A

A bone in the heart around the aortic valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Describe the female reproductive tract of a rat

A

Bicornate uterusVagina is completely superstar from urethra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the 6 accessory sex glands in a rat

A

Preputial glandsProstateVesicular glands Coagulating glands Bulbourethral glandsDuctus deferens glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Describe the reproductive tract of the male rat

A

Open inguinal canal. Os penis. Larger genital papilla than female. Multiple accessory glands: 6 types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What does the vesicular and coagulating gland do in males

A

Makes the copulatory plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What age is sexual maturity of the rat

A

6-8 wk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How long is breeding season for a rat

A

Year long

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the length of the estrus cycle in a rat

A

4-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

How long is estrus in a rat

A

9-20hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

How long is the duration of gestation in a rat

A

21-23 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

At what age are rats weaned

A

21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Is there the whitten effect in rats

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Is there the Bruce effect in rats

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

How large is the litter size of rats

A

6-12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Describe rats eyes

A

Poor eyesight. No color vision. Harderian gland behind eye gives porphyrin production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Describe the lungs of the rat

A

5 lobes. 4 on right, 1 on left.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Describe the sense of rats

A

Better sense of smell than humans. Hear in ultrasonic range

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Describe thermoregulation techniques in a rat

A

They don’t pant. And have no sweat gland

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

How long is the life span of a rat

A

2.5-3.5yr

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the scientific name of the mouse

A

Mus musculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

When was the first scientific experimentation on the mouse

A

19th century.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are the outbred stocks of mouse

A

Swiss, Swiss Webster, institute of cancer research

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Describe mice

A

Social. Bite if handled roughly. Fight often. They barber. sensitive to sounds, vibrations. Omnivores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What type of mice have seizures with loud sound

A

Dba mice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Describe mammary glands in female mice

A

5 pairs in females. Have a very extensive distribution on the animal. can often have mammary tumours n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Do mice have sweat glands

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Do mice have a gall bladder

A

Yes they do

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Describe spleen size in mice

A

Larger in males than females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Describe the reproductive system of a mouse

A

Bicornuate. Copulatory plug

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Describe the male reproductive system of a mouse

A

Open inguinal canal. Os penis. Larger genital papilla. Multiple sex accessory organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What is the whitten effect

A

Synchronization of females if males is removed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is the Bruce effect

A

A recently bred female will abort if they smell a strange male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Is the Bruce effect present in mice

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Is the whitten effect present in mice

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the scientific name of the rabbit

A

Ortyctolagus cuniculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the two most popular types of rabbits used for laboratory use

A

New Zealand White

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Describe behaviour of rabbits

A

Generally timid, non aggressive. curious bit easily startled. Some aggressive or defensive behaviour. High Pitched scream. Toilet trainable, can be housed together.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

What is the dental formula of a rabbit

A

2/1, 0/0, 3/2, 3/3. Malocclusion issues + also need to trim peg teeth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Describe the stomach of a rabbit

A

Glandular like, cannot vomit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Describe the cecum of a rabbit

A

extremely important, cecal appendix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Where is the sacculus rotundus located

A

between the ileum and cecum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the sacculus rotundus

A

important lymphoid tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what is the colon

A

has sacculation: groves that increase surface area.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Describe the daytime feces of a rabbit

A

dry. Composition: indigestible fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Describe the nighttime feces of a rabbit

A

moist (cecotroph). Composed of B vitamins, water, nitrogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Describe the urine of rabbits

A

Color variance due to whats eaten. Turbidity is due to high amount of crystals. Alkaline pH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Describe the muscoskeletal system of a rabbit

A

High amount of muscle mass but very light bones. 7% of BW is skeleton

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Describe the mammary glands of rabbits

A

8-10. Distribution: from neck to inguinal region.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Do male rabbits have nipples?

A

No

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Describe the eyes of a rabbit

A

Third eyelid is developed. Harderian glands are located behind eyes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

What are the common issues with rabbits eyes

A

Cherry eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Where is the location of the scent glands in rabbits

A

In inguinal pouch. On either side of vagina/penis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the scent gland used for in the rabbit

A

Used to mark territory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What else can rabbits used besides the scent glands to mark their territory

A

their chin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What is the dewlap found and what can it cause

A

Mostly in females, can cause moist dermatitis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the functions of the ears

A

thermoregulation (vascular), auditory, sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Describe the Hematopoietic system

A

Neutrophil (psuedoneutrophils or heterophils) (20-35%). Eosinophil: 0-4%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Describe the reproductive system of a female rabbit

A

Bicornuate and double cervix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Describe the reproductive system of a male rabbit

A

open inguinal canal. Scrotum is cranial to the penis. Testis descend at 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Describe the estrus cycle length of a rabbit

A

induced ovulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

When is ovulation in a rabbit

A

9-13 hours post coitus (~10hrs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

How long is the gestation of the rabbit

A

29-35 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

When are rabbits weaned

A

4-6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

When do rabbits need to nurse

A

1x/day (3-4 mins/day)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What can you use for milk replacement in the rabbit

A

Kitten forumla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is the lifespan of a rabbit

A

5-7 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

What is the normal bodyweight of a rabbit (f/m)

A

2-6/2-5kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What is the normal body temperature range for a rabbit

A

38.5-40.0*c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What is needed for husbandry of the rabbit

A

need to give food enrichment: greens, hay. Suspended or plastic cages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Where are guinea pigs originated

A

south america

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What are the english variety (outbred)

A

duncan-hartleyhartley** both albinos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What are the abyssinian variety (outbred)

A

short; rough-hair arranged in rosettes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

what are the peruvian variety (outbred)

A

long hair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What are the inbred guinea pigs

A

several strains

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

describe the behavior of guinea pigs

A

docile, rarely bite or scratch, climb + jump rarely. produce a variety of vocalizations. develop rigid habits (that can lead to anorexia), easily excited by noise, changes, coprophagic, communal, messy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

describe a guinea pigs feet

A

4 toes on forelimb, 3 toes on hindlimb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Describe the mammary gland of guinea pigs

A

have only one pair of nipples in inguinal areamammary tissue only in females

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

how many offspring can a guinea pig nurse at one time

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

how may pups can a guinea pig have

A

up to 5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

what are precocious pups

A

can eat right away

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Describe the oral cavity of a guinea pig

A

dental formula: 1/1, 0/0, 1/1, 3/3Open rooted and continiously eruptmalocclusion possible with the premolars

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Describe the stomach of a guinea pig

A

all glandular like rat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

describe the cecum of the guinea pig

A

very large and located on the left. be careful when doing IP and inject on the right. Divided into pouches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

describe the colon of the rat

A

very long.allows for better reabsorption of water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

describe the auditory system of the rat

A

large tympanic bullae. sx approach easy. sensitive hearing. used in otology research and ototoxicity drugs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

describe the respiratory system of the rat

A

bronchioles are extremely reactive: respiratory anaphylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

describe the hematology of a rat

A

neutrophils: heterophils as in the rabbitkurloff cells: mononuclear cells; proliferates under the influence of estrogen.lymphocytes: the majority of WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Describe the urology of the guinea pig

A

urine is alkaline, opaque, creamy, yellow, and contains crystals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

what is the lifespan of the guinea pig

A

4-5 yrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

what is the normal body weight of a guinea pig. f/m

A

700-900/900-1200g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

describe the reproductive tract of the female guinea pig (sow)

A

bicornuate uterusy shaped genital-anal openingvaginal membrane (opens only during estrus and parturition)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Describe the reproductive tract of the male guinea pig (boar)

A

open inguinal canal where testes are located.os penisexposed penis has two prongs at tipseveral accessory sex glandslarge seminal vessicles that extend 10cm into the abdominal cavity from the pubis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What is the estrus cycle length of the guinea pig

A

15-17 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what is the estrus length in the guinea pig

A

8-11hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

what is the duration of gestation in a guinea pig

A

59-72 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

What is the average litter size of a guinea pig

A

2-5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

what is the normal weight at birth of a guinea pig

A

70-100g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

when are guinea pigs weaned

A

14-21d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

if the sow is to be bred, her first litter has to be when

A

before 7 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

how do you house guinea pigs

A

large shoebox cage with bedding (to avoid bumble foot). don’t use cedar bedding due to a reaction, avoid substrate with small particles or dust. change cage often

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

how do you feed guinea pigs

A

GP chow. provide fresh food (vitamin C). J feeders or bowls. Give Vit. C to prevent scurvy. Avoid sudden food changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

How do you handle guinea pigs

A

one hand on trunk, one hand on hindquarters. injury to liver and lungs from one handed pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

where do you do IM injections in the guinea pig

A

use the same spots of the rabbit. lumbar, quadricep and caudal thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

where do you do IV injections in the guinea pig

A

saphenous or cephalic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

how is blood collected from guinea pigs

A

small amount: marginal vein, cephalic, saphenous.large amount: cranial vena cava, jugular vein, femoral vein, intracardiac (terminal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

where do you do your IP injection on the guinea pig

A

on the right side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

What are the 3 most common types of hamster

A

mesocricetus auratuscricetus cricetuscricetulus griseus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Where do hamsters originate

A

syria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

what are the outbred hamster species

A

golden syrian, european hamster, chinese hamster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

what are the inbred hamster species

A

many have been developed to study specific diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Describe the behaviour of hamsters

A

nocturnal, female larger and more aggressive than male. bites if handled roughly, suddenly disturbed or when startled. chew on and escape from their cage. ideally housed singly. coprophagic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

describe the cheek pouches of hamsters

A

highly distensible, devoid of glands and lymphatic tissue, ideal site for tumor induction, transplantation and xenograft

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

what are the problems associated with cheek pouches in hamsters

A

can put pups in cheek and suffocate them. also can impact or get infected

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

what are the hip glands in hamsters

A

in adult male, used for marking, located on either flank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Describe the teeth of a hamster

A

1/1, 0/0, 0/0, 3/3. Incisiors grow continually, molars retain food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

describe the stomach of a hamster

A

divided into two portions, glandular and non glandular. distinct constriction between the two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

describe the intestines of a hamster

A

long intestines except the ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

describe the brown fat of a hamster

A

ventral to and between scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

describe the eyes of a hamster

A

also have harderian glands (behind eyeball)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

describe the kidneys of a hamster

A

extremely long renal papillae that extend into ureterhigh urine concentration capacity (1.060) urine is turbid, milky and contains crystals urine proteins normally present (high levels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

What is the lifespan of a hamster

A

18-24m

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

What is the body weight of a hamster

A

95-150/85-130g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

Describe hibernation in the hamster

A

permissive hibernators. Low environmental temp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Describe the reproductive tract of the female hamster

A

bicornuate uterus6-8 pairs of nipplesthree openings in the perineal areaviewed from above, pointy behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

describe the reproductive system of the male hamster

A

open inguinal canalos penislarge testes and seminal vesiclestwo large fat bodies cranial to the testesviewed from above: rounded behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

what is the estrus cycle length of a hamster

A

4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

what is the duration of gestation for a hamster

A

15-16d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

when are hamsters weaned

A

20-25 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

describe the PP estrus in hamsters

A

infertile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Describe female hamsters during estrus

A

aggressive toward the male except at the onset of estrus.

202
Q

do hamsters cannibalise their young?

A

yes, cannibalism is common. primiparous female (first litter)

203
Q

Describe newborn hamsters

A

hairless, blind, have closed ears and underdeveloped limbs. pups begin to eat at 7-10d of age

204
Q

how do you house hamsters

A

shoebox cage with bedding. change cage 1x/week

205
Q

how do you provide water for a hamster

A

water bottle or automated system

206
Q

describe using a feeder with a hamster

A

slots of hopper must be large enough.

207
Q

what do you feed hamsters

A

rodent chow: 16% protein minimum (less: alopecia). 4-5% fat

208
Q

how do you handle hamsters

A

picked up in a small container. cupping of hands, scruffing: a lot of loose skin due to cheek pouches

209
Q

what procedures are done on hamsters

A

SC, IM, IP, blood collection

210
Q

describe non terminal blood collection in hamsters

A

jugular, saphenous

211
Q

describe terminal blood collection in hamsters

A

IC under anesthesia

212
Q

where do you do IV injections in the hamster

A

saphenous, cephalic

213
Q

What is the scientific name for a gerbil

A

meriones unguiculatus

214
Q

where do gerbils come from

A

mongolia, siberia, and northeastern china

215
Q

describe the behaviour of a gerbil

A

clean, nearly odorless, burrowing habits: need lots of bedding, active 24hrs a day without being specifically nocturnal. friendly, curious and social in groups. barbering. easy to handle, foot stomp

216
Q

when do gerbils do the foot stomp

A

when fearful, startled, excitedto attract attention or express aggressionafter sexual activity

217
Q

describe the tail of a gerbil

A

very thin layer of skin. sloughing, skinless tail then falls off

218
Q

describe the abdominal sebaceous gland pad of the gerbil

A

observed in both sexes, used to mark territory and pups oval in mid-ventral region; covered by darker hair

219
Q

describe the stomach of a gerbil

A

divided into 2 portions

220
Q

describe the dental formula of a gerbil

A

1/1, 0/0, 0/0, 3/3, continuously growing incisiors

221
Q

describe spontaneous convulsive seizures in gerbils

A

similar to idiopathic epilepsy in humans. begins at 2 months of age, occurs in 1/2 of gerbils. elected by stress

222
Q

describe why gerbils are susceptible to strokes

A

incomplete circle of willisresistant to radiation

223
Q

describe lipemia and hypercholesterolemia in gerbils

A

even on diets with standard fat levels (4-6%). beware of high fat rodent chow (> 6% fat). sunflower seeds, will develop hepatic lipidosis and gall bladder stones

224
Q

what are gerbils used for

A

in the study of lipid metabolism

225
Q

describe the lifespan of a gerbil

A

3-4yrs

226
Q

describe the typical bodyweight of a gerbil f/m

A

55-85g/g6-100g

227
Q

Describe urine and feces production in the gerbil

A

only a few drops of urine are produced a day. dry, small, hard feces. bedding remains odourless for several weeks

228
Q

what is the estrus cycle length of a gerbil

A

4-6d

229
Q

describe the duration of gestation of a gerbil

A

24-20d (up to 42d)

230
Q

when are gerbils weaned

A

20-26d

231
Q

describe the mating system of a gerbil

A

gerbils mate for life (monogamous) - can use harem system/loss of mate.

232
Q

Do male gerbils help take care of their young

A

yes they do.

233
Q

describe housing for a gerbil

A

solid bottom shoe or glass aquarium. secure lid

234
Q

describe bedding for a gerbil

A

thick, hardwood chips, wood shavings, recycled paper pellets and sand. no cedar.

235
Q

what food do gerbils eat

A

rodent chow (16-22% protein, low fat)limit sunflower seeds

236
Q

Describe the behaviour of the pig

A

friendly, docile, react poorly to improper handling or stressful conditions. Enjoy regular human interaction

237
Q

what are the medical conditions induced by stress:

A

gastric ulcers.

238
Q

How many different species of pigs are there

A

over 85 different types. farm pigs are large species, but there are also mini and micro pigs

239
Q

describe the hanford (miniature pig)

A

white skin, very little fat. heart size is similar to humans. adult weight 70-90kg

240
Q

describe the yucatan pig

A

dark pigmented skin, little or no hair. docile: easy to handle. Ventricular septum defect line. available. adult weight: 70-90kg

241
Q

describe the gottingen pig

A

comparable size to micro pig. very well defined genetics. adult weight: 35-40kg

242
Q

Describe the sinclair pig

A

from four feral breeds. different hair colors. slower growth rate. unique model for melanoma. 35-55kg

243
Q

what are the other types of pigs available

A

micro pig: from selective breeding of yucatan pig males =/- 50kg, female +/- 40kgalso SPF, germ free, transgenic

244
Q

What types of pigs do suppliers sell

A

random bred and purpose bred pigs

245
Q

describe the advantage to purpose bred pigs

A

you have all the records + better quality animals

246
Q

describe purpose bred pigs

A

sinclair, gottingen etc. a company that makes specific breeds

247
Q

why do we use purpose bred pigs in the lab

A

valuable model: similar heart and skin to humans. Pigs are used in cardiovascular, integumentary, immunologic studies, agriculture and vet research.

248
Q

What is the advantage of using mini/micro pigs

A

smaller and more manageable.

249
Q

what is the disadvantage of using mini/micro pigs

A

more $$$$$

250
Q

describe the housing for pigs

A

bedding. if compatible: place them together.

251
Q

Describe enrichment for pigs

A

treats, suspended things with a chain: i.e.: basketball

252
Q

Describe bedding for pigs

A

pigs are rooters and like to be clean. solid textured floor. deep bedding. they like to urinate and defecate where it is damp. put water on one side, and food on the other.

253
Q

describe food for pigs

A

pigs are omnivorous. Eat pig chow. do not overfeed. do not fatten up mini pig

254
Q

describe water for pigs

A

need to be clean and always available. dehydration and can get salt poisoning. Can use an automatic watering system or a trough

255
Q

what are the restraint methods for pigs

A

gentle handling to avoid stress, panepinto sling

256
Q

how do you orally dose a pig

A

gavage, PO

257
Q

how do you give an iv injection to a pig

A

inject into the medial auricular vein, lateral auricular vein

258
Q

how do you do blood sampling in a pig

A

in the cranial vena cava, jugular, ear veins.

259
Q

where do you do IM injections in the pig

A

neck, caudal thigh (use long needle)

260
Q

describe anesthesia for pigs

A

12hr fasting. water not restricted unless surgery on stomach

261
Q

describe ET tube intubation in pigs

A

can have laryngospasm. intubation on ventral or dorsal recumbency.

262
Q

describe surgical monitoring in the pig

A

jaw tone, toe pinch, HR, BP, RR

263
Q

what tranquilizers/anticholinergics do you use in the pig

A

ace, atropine, glyco

264
Q

what anesthetics can you use in the pig

A

ketamine, dexmedetomidine, barbituates, propofol, isoflurane

265
Q

what analgesia can you use in the pig

A

opioids (butorphanol, buprenorphine, oxymorphone). NSAIDS (meloxicam, carprofen)

266
Q

describe the history of the use of dogs in research

A

less than 1% of research yet still vital. more difficult for the public to accept. was the most common one used in the 17th century due to availability and ease of handling. 1st successful kidney transplant was on dogs.creation and testing of artificial hips and joints, and pacemakers. using dogs the heart and lung machine was developed.

267
Q

describe the use of dogs in research

A

cardiovascular and respiratory system. similar to humans and good size to work with. cataract research,toxicologydog diseases, nutrition, behaviour and surgical procedures, also diabetes: lupus, thyroiditis, hepatitis

268
Q

what are the types and sources of dogs used in research

A

random source,purpose bred for research

269
Q

How are random source dogs obtained

A

from licenced vendors, or from pound. cheaper but no medical history is known.

270
Q

how are random source dogs conditioned

A

been through quarantine and conditioning to be more stable.

271
Q

what are the typical dogs theatre purpose bred for research

A

beagles,labradorsmongrels (hound type)

272
Q

what is there advantage to purpose bred dogs

A

uniform population

273
Q

what is the disadvantage of purpose bred dogs

A

$$$$$

274
Q

what is the goal of quarantine of dogs

A

to prevent cross contamination

275
Q

how do you quarantine/condition dogs

A

gpe, bw, id, heath record, vaccination, parasite tx/prevention, lab testing, bw monitoring, daily observation

276
Q

how do you house dogs

A

many variations. ensure that lower ranking dogs always have sleeping/ hiding places, food, water. or group singly.

277
Q

how do you socialize dogs and when is the optimal period

A

give them human/animal interaction between 4-14 weeks of age

278
Q

is exercise manditory in a dog

A

yes

279
Q

describe the use of cats in research

A

similar anatomy and biochem of the brain to human. auditory disorders, eye research, leukaemia. FIV: one of the few that develops immune deficiency syndrome. Glowing transgenic cats. Toxoplasmosis, mammary, cancer, cat disease, nutrition and behaviour

280
Q

what are the type and source of cats used in research

A

random, conditioned and purpose bred. purpose bred: referred to as SPF cats

281
Q

how do you house cats

A

in groups if possible. must have sufficient space, shelves, litter boxes, food and water bowls. If small cage: need an exercise pen.

282
Q

what enrichment do you use for cats

A

scratching, rolling toys, vertical space

283
Q

what happens to cats in poor housing conditions

A

become inactive and stop normal behaviours

284
Q

what are the uses of ferrets in research

A

influeza, distemper, GI ulcers, endocrinology, toxicology, cystic fibrosis: similarity between ferrets and humans in lung anatomy, lung cell biology and response to certain lung pathogens

285
Q

where are ferrets for lab use obtained from

A

sold as research animals

286
Q

what do you do in quarentine for ferrets

A

must be vaccinated against distemper

287
Q

describe new world monkeys (platyrrhine):

A

absence of ischial callositiesabsence of cheek pouchesprehensile tail in some speciesnasal orifices wide apart

288
Q

describe old world monkeys (catarrhine)

A

ischial callosities in some speciescheek pouches in some speciesabsence of prehensile tailnasal orifices close together

289
Q

List out the new world monkeys

A

squirrel monkey - salmiri sciureuscapuchin monkey - cebus apellacommon marmoset - callithrix jaccusgolden lion tamarinowl monkey

290
Q

list out the old world monkeys

A

african green monkey - cercopithecus aethiopspats monkey - erythrocebus patasbaboon - patiorhesus monkey - macaca mulattacynomolgus monkey - macaque fascicularispigtail monkey - macaca nemestrinastumptail monkey

291
Q

describe the anatomy characteristics of monkeys

A

great strength and agility. cheek pouches in some old world species, sex skin around genital, tails and thighs in some old world species (skin is red + swollen in estrus)ischial callosities in some old world species (butt callous)large canine teeth in males of some speciessimple type uterusall old world primates have menstrual bleeding as a feature of the sex cycle

292
Q

describe the social behaviour of a monkey

A

don’t stare a monkey in the eye. fear smiles: sign of submission. groom each other to establish social bond

293
Q

describe the use of cattle in research

A

used in many argricultural and veterinary research institutes for teaching and research on beef and dairy production and husbandry. used for cardiovascular surgeries.

294
Q

where are cattle supplied from for research

A

established breeder who has healthy, disease free and genetically defined animals, public market, breeding at the research place

295
Q

what are the disadvantages to public markets selling cows

A

no history, stressed, exposed to infectious agents

296
Q

describe the quarantine and conditioning period for cows

A

lasts 2-4 weeksGPEBWidobservationfecal, dewormingvaccines (e coli, BVD, IBR, lepto)

297
Q

describe routine health maintence of cattle

A

daily observationbw monitoringfecal, dewormingvaccinationfeed + water intake monitoringtrimming of feet

298
Q

describe the use of sheep and goats as lab animals

A

:used for cardiovascular and respiratory systems research.:orthopedic research:production of antiserum:reproductive studies:transgenic:agricultural and vet. research

299
Q

why are goats/sheeps used for cardiovascular and resp. systems research

A

similar anatomy to humansgood for development of surgery procedures, heart valve replacement

300
Q

why are goats/sheeps used for orthopaedic research

A

trauma research, models for disease: injury to bones, joints and musclesosteoporosis + osteoarthritis

301
Q

why are goats/sheeps used for production of antiserum

A

polyclonal antibodiessheep rbc: immunologic tests. blood transfusion research

302
Q

why are goats/sheeps used for reproductive studies

A

model for human pregnancystudy of PDA

303
Q

why are goats/sheeps used for transgenic studies

A

production of goat milk antithrombinproduction of F VIII + IX to treat hemophilia (sheep milk)production of AAT to prevent emphysema (sheep milk)

304
Q

describe quarentine/conditioning/routine health maintence of goats/sheep

A

refer to cattle. group housing is preferable.

305
Q

describe q fever

A

rickettsial infection.

306
Q

how is q fever transmitted

A

inhalation, ingestion, direct contact with reproductive fluids or placenta. also shed in milk, urine and feces. ticks may transmit it.

307
Q

describe the zoonosis version of q fever

A

influenza likechronic problemsDX: serologyTX: antibiotic

308
Q

how do you prevent q fever

A

hygiene, protection, pasteurize milk, vaccination of humans and animals

309
Q

describe anesthesia in cattle

A

ET tube intubation, then stomach tube due to gas build up in rumen

310
Q

how do you recover a cow for surgery

A

keep ET tube in and inflated as long as possible, support animal in sternal. check for bloat

311
Q

how long do you fast a cow before surgery

A

food: 24-48hrWater: 12-24hr

312
Q

when do you give opioids to a cow

A

pre/post op

313
Q

when do you give xylazine/diazepam to cow

A

pre-anesthetic

314
Q

when do you give xylazine/ketamine/barbituate/propofol

A

for iv induction followed by intubation for inhalant agent

315
Q

where do you give SQ in a cow

A

neck, flank, axillary area

316
Q

where do you do IM in a cow

A

neck, quadriceps, triceps

317
Q

where do you do IV in a cow

A

jugular, cephalic

318
Q

why do we use fish in research

A

aquaculture (food)environmental pollution indicatorconserv and protecttransgenic

319
Q

what do we use fish to study in research

A

type 1 diabetesoncologykidney studiesgeneticstoxicologymutagenesis

320
Q

where are the fish procured from for research

A

wild caught, captive bred

321
Q

how do you transport fish

A

plastic bagcool waterinsulated containeropaque container12-48hr fasting before transport

322
Q

how do you acclimate a fish

A

30d min. separation of new batch from established oneseparate water supplyseparate equipmentdaily observation

323
Q

what do healthy fish look like

A

good colorwell finnedno lesionsopercula covers gillsalert, interested in food

324
Q

what temperature do you keep fish at

A

cold species: 0-10, cool species: 10-20warm species: 20-30

325
Q

what does high fish water temp cause

A

ammonia build up

326
Q

what are the signs of insufficient level of oxygen

A

gasping at surfacegather at fresh water intake

327
Q

What is the bacteria responsible for causing mycoplasmosis

A

Mycoplasma pulmonis

328
Q

What are the hosts of mycoplasmosis

A

Rats, mice, guinea pigs, hamsters, rabbits

329
Q

What are the environmental predisposing factors to getting mycoplasmosis

A

Inadequate husbandry and ammonia build up

330
Q

How is mycoplasmosis transmitted

A

Aerosol or vertical transmission

331
Q

What are the clinical signs of mycoplasmosis

A

Seem healthy in beginning. Can be sub clinical. Sneezing, secretions, porphyrin staining. Or head tilt.

332
Q

How do you diagnosis mycoplasmosis

A

Serology

333
Q

What is the bacteria responsible for causing pseudotuberculosis

A

Corynebacterium kutscheri

334
Q

What are hosts for pseudotuberculosis

A

Rats and mice

335
Q

What are the predisposing factors for pseudotuberculosis

A

Other diseases and stress

336
Q

How is pseudotuberculosis transmitted

A

Aerosol

337
Q

What are the clinical signs of pseudotuberculosis

A

Sub clinical, abscesses, respiratory signs

338
Q

How do you diagnose pseudotuberculosis

A

Necropsy, culture, pcr

339
Q

What is the host of pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Rodents

340
Q

How is pseudomonas aeruginosa transmitted

A

Through contaminated sources. Humans are carriers and it is everywhere. Bacteria lives in gi tract and can contaminate water

341
Q

What are the clinical signs of pseudomonas aeruginosa infection

A

If healthy: a symptomatic. If immunosuppressed: generalized infection (septicaemia) and acute death

342
Q

How do you prevent pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Autoclave, acidify water, clorinate the water

343
Q

What bacteria causes tyzzers disease

A

Clostridium piliforme

344
Q

What are the hosts for tyzzers disease

A

Rodents and other species

345
Q

What are the clinical signs of tyzzers disease

A

Non specific digestive signs. Diarrhea, dehydration, lethargy. Can also be sub clinical

346
Q

How do you diagnose tyzzers disease

A

Serology, pcr

347
Q

What bacteria causes salmonellosis

A

Salmonella enteritidis and thyphimurium

348
Q

What are the hosts of salmonellosis

A

Vertebrates

349
Q

What are the clinical signs of salmonellosis

A

You will shit everywhere with blood

350
Q

What is special about salmonellosis

A

It is a zoonosis

351
Q

What is the bacteria responsible for staphylococcus infection

A

Staphylococcus aureus

352
Q

What are the hosts for staphylococcus

A

Rodents and humans

353
Q

How is staphylococcus transmitted

A

Direct contact

354
Q

what are the clinical signs of staphylococcus

A

Dermatitis (alopecia, errythemia, pustules)

355
Q

What is mycoplasmosis

A

Murine respiratory m.

356
Q

What bacteria causes rat bite fever

A

streptobacillus moniliformis

357
Q

What are the hosts of streptobacillus moniliformis

A

Rodents and humans

358
Q

What are the clinical signs of streptobacillus moniliformis

A

A symptomatic in rats. However if rats contaminate mice then the mice get septicemia.

359
Q

What are the symptoms of streptobacillus moniliformis

A

Fever, mono like symptoms. Can also cause arthritis

360
Q

How is transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia spread

A

Contaminated food, water, bedding.

361
Q

What is the host for transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia

A

Mice

362
Q

How is transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia spread

A

Fecal oral route

363
Q

What are the clinical signs of transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia

A

Stained anus, dehydration, lethargy, anorexia. Non specific digestive signs. On necropsy: colon will thicken.

364
Q

How do you diagnose transmissible murine colonic hyperplasia

A

Pcr

365
Q

What are the clinical signs of helicobacter

A

Jaundice

366
Q

What are the clinical findings on necropsy if you have helicobacter

A

White spots on liver

367
Q

How do you diagnose helicobacter

A

Pcr

368
Q

Which virus causes the rcv sda virus

A

Corona virus

369
Q

How do you transmit rcv-sda

A

Aerosol, fomites

370
Q

What are the clinical signs of rcv-sda virus

A

Coughing, porphyrin staining, enlarged neck.

371
Q

How do you diagnose rcv-sda virus

A

Serology

372
Q

What is the host of the Sendai virus

A

Mice

373
Q

How is the Sendai virus transmitted

A

Through Aerosol. Highly contagious

374
Q

What are the clinical signs of the Sendai virus

A

Can be subclinical or respiratory signs. Ruffled or hunched

375
Q

How do you diagnose the Sendai virus

A

Pcr

376
Q

What is the hantaan virus

A

A zoonotic virus.

377
Q

What are the hosts of the hantavirus

A

Wild rodents

378
Q

How is the hantaan virus transmitted

A

Virus is shed in saliva , urine and feces

379
Q

What are the clinical signs of the hantaan virus in rodents

A

Sub clinical

380
Q

What are the clinical signs of the hantaan virus in humans

A

Kidney failure, hemmorage, 50 % mortality

381
Q

What virus is responsible for the mouse hepatitis virus

A

Corona virus

382
Q

What is the host of the mouse hepatitis virus

A

Mice

383
Q

How is the mouse hepatitis virus transmitted

A

Aerosol and feces

384
Q

What are the clinical signs of the mouse hepatitis virus

A

Sub clinical or if you’re young= diarrhea

385
Q

How do you diagnose. The mouse hepatitis virus

A

Elisa and Pcr

386
Q

What are the hosts of the lymphocytic chorioneningitis virus

A

Wild mouse, or contaminated mice

387
Q

What are the clinical signs of lymphocytic chorioneningitis virus

A

Subclinical or nervous system signs

388
Q

How is the lymphocytic chorioneningitis virus spread

A

Body fluids

389
Q

What are the clinical signs of lymphocytic chorioneningitis in humans

A

Flu like disease. Fatal encephalomeningitis

390
Q

What fungus transmits dermatophytosis

A

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

391
Q

How is dermatophytosis transmitted

A

Direct contact

392
Q

What are the clinical signs of dermatophytosis in rodents

A

Alopecia and dermatitis, redness

393
Q

What are the clinical signs of dermatophytosis in humans

A

Circular, red, alopecia

394
Q

What are the two types of pinworms

A

Syphacia obvelata and syphacia muris

395
Q

Describe pinworms

A

Adults in cecum and colon. Eggs are deposited in Perianal region. Eggs are infectious within a few hours. Ingest eggs

396
Q

What’s the difference between syphacia obvelata and aspicularis tetraptera

A

Eggs are deposited in colon. Eggs are shed in feces. Eggs are ingested

397
Q

What are the clinical signs of aspicularis tetraptera

A

Sub clinical but can affect behaviour

398
Q

How do you diagnose aspicularis tetraptera

A

Tape, fecal

399
Q

How do you treat pinworms

A

Ivermectin, fenbendazole, good sanitation

400
Q

What is hymenolepis nana’s cycle

A

direct or indirect

401
Q

What is hymenolepis diminuta’s cycle

A

Indirect cycle

402
Q

What are the clinical signs of tapeworms

A

Sub clinical. Diarrhea if big infestation

403
Q

What are the clinical signs of giardia muris

A

If animal is immunosuppressed then they could have diarrhea, dehydration. Otherwise sub clinical

404
Q

What is the name of the mites of rats

A

Radfordiaensifera

405
Q

What are the signs of mites in a rat

A

Sub clinical, itchy, alopecia, ulcerative dermatitis, oily skin

406
Q

How do you diagnose rat mites

A

Tape, Pcr, skin scraping

407
Q

How do you treat mites in a rat

A

Ivermectin

408
Q

What is malocclusion

A

Broken teeth or bad alignment

409
Q

What is the etiology of ring tail

A

Low humidity, high temp, malnutrition, genetic

410
Q

What are the clinical signs of ring tail

A

Mild: hyperemia. Moderate: permannular constriction. Severe: tail slough

411
Q

What happens with neoplastic disease in rats

A

Incidence increases with age. Mammary tumours, testicular tumor: especially in F344 rat. Pituitary tumours. Leukaemia

412
Q

What is urolithiasis in rats

A

Variety of symptoms. Composition: ammonium magnesium phosphate, carbonate, oxalate. Occasionally confused with copulatory plug.

413
Q

What are the 4 non infectious diseases of rats

A

Malocclusion Ring tailNeoplastic disease Urolithiasis

414
Q

What are the 5 non infectious disease of mice

A

Barbering Alopecia of muzzle Bite wounds AmyloidosisNeoplasms

415
Q

Where do mice get bite wounds

A

From dominant male cage mates

416
Q

What is amyloidosis

A

Occurs spontaneously in old mice. Insoluble protein called amyloid. Vital organ function decrease, not treatable.

417
Q

What are the common neoplasms in mice

A

Mammary rumours. Lymphoma. Pulmonary tumors

418
Q

What is the scientific name of the rabbit

A

Oryctolagus cuniculus

419
Q

What is the family of the rabbit

A

Leporidae

420
Q

Where do rabbits originate

A

Europe and North western

421
Q

What is the most famous rabbit scientific research

A

The first rabies vaccine was given by Louis Pasteur

422
Q

What are the two types of rabbit used in laboratories

A

New Zealand whiteDutch

423
Q

describe the behaviour of the rabbit

A

Generally timid, non aggressive, curious but easily startled. Some aggressive or defensive behaviour. High pitched scream. Toilet trainable. Can be housed together

424
Q

What is common of rabbit teeth

A

Malocclusion issues, also need trimming of peg teeth and front teeth

425
Q

Describe the stomach of a rat

A

Glandular like, cannot vomit

426
Q

Describe the cecum of a rabbit

A

Extremely important. Has a cecal appendix

427
Q

What is the sacculus rotundus

A

Important lymphoid tissue

428
Q

Where is the sacculus rotundus located in the rabbit

A

Between ileum and secum

429
Q

Describe the colon of the rat

A

Sacculation: groves to increase surface area

430
Q

What is the composition of the “day” dry feces in rabbits

A

Indigestible fibers

431
Q

What is the composition of the night feces

A

Moist. B vitamins, water, nitrogen.

432
Q

What does the color of urine of a rabbit depend on

A

Varies due to what’s eaten

433
Q

Why is rabbit urine turbid

A

Due to high amount of crystals

434
Q

Describe the musculoskeletal system of a rabbit

A

High amount of muscle mass but very light bones. 7% of BW is skeleton.

435
Q

Describe the mammary glands of the rabbit

A

8-10. Distribution is from neck to inguinal region. Males have no nipples

436
Q

Describe the eyes of a rabbit

A

Third eyelid is developed. They have harderian glands there.

437
Q

Where are the scent glands of a rabbit located

A

In inguinal pouch. On either side of vagina or penis

438
Q

What are the scent glands of rabbits used for

A

To mark territory

439
Q

What is a dewlap

A

A layer of fat on the chin. Mostly females, can cause moist dermatitis.

440
Q

Describe the ears of a rabbit

A

Thermoregulation (vascular). Auditory and sensitive.

441
Q

Describe the hematopoietic system

A

Neutrophil (heterophil) = 20-35%. Eosinophil: 0-4%

442
Q

Describe the female reproductive system of a rabbit

A

Bicornuate and double cervix.

443
Q

Describe the reproductive system of a male rabbit

A

Open inguinal canal. Scrotum is cranial to the penis. Testis descend at 12 weeks.

444
Q

What is the estrus cycle length of a rabbit

A

Induced ovulator

445
Q

How long is ovulation

A

9-13hours post copulation

446
Q

What is the duration of gestation in a rabbit

A

29-35 days

447
Q

When are baby rabbits weaned

A

4-6 weeks

448
Q

When do rabbits nurse

A

1x a day (3-4 mins)

449
Q

What is a milk replacement for rabbits

A

Kitten formula

450
Q

What is the lifespan of the rabbit

A

5-7 years

451
Q

What type of cages can rabbits be house in

A

Suspended or plastic cages

452
Q

What is necessary for rabbits from a husbandry standpoint

A

Need to give food enrichment: greens, hay

453
Q

What are the typical hosts for Pasteurellosis

A

Rabbit, (rodent, bird, farm animals).Very frequent in pet rabbits

454
Q

How is Pasteurellosis transmitted

A

direct contact (major); respiratory aerosol

455
Q

What are the predisposing factors to Pasteurellosis

A

virulence, pre-existing Bordatella Bronchiseptica. Stress

456
Q

What are the clinical signs of Pasteurellosis

A

snuffles, pneumonia , torticollis, bacteremia, acute septicemia

457
Q

What happens if you’re young and you get the pneumonia symptom from Pasteurellosis

A

sudden death

458
Q

what is torticollis

A

head tilt

459
Q

Where can the bacteremia abcesses be located

A

in mammary glands, in kidney/any organ. Can also cause a pyometra

460
Q

How do you treat Pasteurellosis

A

difficult. use baytril. very difficult to completely cure. can be a chronic asymptomatic carrier.

461
Q

How do you prevent Pasteurellosis

A

Have spf animals

462
Q

How do you diagnose Pasteurellosis

A

culture, immunologic tests

463
Q

what is orchidis

A

infection of testes

464
Q

What causes bacterial enteritis (enteropathies)

A

common, specific course not always found: combination of organisms

465
Q

What specific bacteria cause enteropathies

A

Tyzzer’s disease (clostridium piliforme.) - Poor sanitationClostridium enterotoxemia (c. spiriforme)Colibacillosis

466
Q

What are the clinical signs of bacterial enteritis

A

Sudden death to more prolonged disease

467
Q

What are the clinical signs of staphylococcus aureus

A

localized dermatitis, or systemic (pneumonia, abcesses, mastitis, septicemia, conjunctivitis)

468
Q

What causes dermatophytosis (ZOONOSIS)

A

Trichophyton Mentagrophytes

469
Q

What is the transmission method of dermatophytes

A

Direct contact

470
Q

What are the clinical signs of dermatophytosis

A

can be subclinical or alopecia, arrhythmia, crusts or scabs

471
Q

What is pinworms

A

a nematode, passalurus ambiguus.

472
Q

Where do you find pinworm eggs

A

found in feces, not pathogenic but can affect the rabbit.

473
Q

how do you treat pinworms

A

fenbendazole, ivermectin

474
Q

what is coccidiosis (intestinal form) caused by

A

a protozoan. its common but subclinical.

475
Q

how is coccidiosis (intestinal form) transmitted

A

fecal oral in combination with bacterial disease

476
Q

how do you diagnose coccidiosis (intestinal form)

A

fecal

477
Q

how do you treat coccidiosis (intestinal form)

A

sulfa (s-125). amprolium

478
Q

What is the hepatic form of coccidiosis caused by

A

eimeria stiedae.

479
Q

How is the hepatic form of coccidiosis transmitted

A

fecal-oral transmission. the cycle is different from enteric coccidiosis

480
Q

what are the clinical signs of hepatic coccidiosis

A

more severe. Liver dysfunction. Hepatomegaly, Icterus

481
Q

How do you diagnose hepatic coccidiosis

A

fecal + necropsy

482
Q

How do you treat hepatic coccidiosis

A

difficult to treat. disease may remain for life. only possibility of success is early treatment: there is frequent relapse. Treat environment. Use sulfonamides to treat.

483
Q

how do you prevent hepatic coccidiosis

A

spf rabbit

484
Q

What causes encephalitozoonosis (pseudozoonosis)

A

encephsalitozoan cuniculi

485
Q

What breed of rabbit is encephalitozoonosis

A

dwarf rabbit especially susceptible

486
Q

How is encephalitozoonosis transmitted

A

transplacental urine.

487
Q

what are the clinical signs of encephalitozoonosis

A

most chronic and subclinical (retarded growth). in rare case: neurological signs, postmortem: kidneys + brain

488
Q

How do you diagnose encephalitozoonosis

A

serology, pcr of infected tissues.

489
Q

What is treatment for encephalitozoonosis

A

fenbendazole

490
Q

what causes ear mites

A

psoroptes cuniculi

491
Q

what are the clinical signs of ear mites

A

itchy, crusty, etc

492
Q

what is the treatment for ear mites

A

topical treatmentivermectin (po, sq)revolutioncleaning of ears and environment

493
Q

what causes fur mites

A

cheyletiella parasitivorax

494
Q

what are the clinical signs of fur mites

A

asymptomaticalopecia, dander, often on the back

495
Q

How do you diagnose fur mites

A

scotch tape

496
Q

how do you treat fur mites

A

revolution, ivomec

497
Q

What is buphthalmia

A

autosomal recessive genetic disorder

498
Q

what are the symptoms of buphthalmia

A

bulging eyes

499
Q

how do you diagnose buphthalmia

A

check IOP

500
Q

How do you treat buphthalmia

A

euthanasia

Vet Nursing (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions