JAALAS 2012 No. 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Inbred strains are often used as animal models to avoid the confound of variations due to genetic background T/F

A

True

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2
Q

Although the exact differences in rearing environment between these 5 vendors was not elucidated in this study, what are some of the rearing variables one should consider?

A

Dietary, bedding, method of water delivery and treatment, caging system, microbiome, and the like.

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3
Q

T/F: Animals with a greater amount of enrichment in their home cages are more likely to develop stereotactic behaviors.

A

F (less likely)

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4
Q

Which of the following are proposed reasons for stereotypic behaviors? Pick all that apply.

a. CNS dysfunction
b. Frustration
c. Noise levels in the facility
d. Lack or removal of enrichment

A

A, B, and D

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5
Q

T/F: Stereotypic behaviors have traditionally been defined as those that are repetitive, invariant, and apparently serve some function.

A

F (serve no function)

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6
Q
  1. What is the common name for Artemia?
A

Brine shrimp

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7
Q
  1. Name one (1) research area for which zebrafish is commonly used.
A

Genetics; Developmental Biology

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8
Q
  1. According to the article when are female zebrafish sexually mature?
A

3 months

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9
Q

T/F. The size of the female fish is a key factor in the amount of sperm released by male zebrafish during spawning.

A

True

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10
Q
  1. What are the 7 principle functional units that were described in the article that the research group felt defined a state-of-the-art facility?
A
  1. Core breeding unit, breeding-holding unit, phenotyping unit, archiving unit, quarantine unit, transgenic unit, and support infrastructure.
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11
Q
  1. Which principle functional unit in most of the facilities has the highest hygiene level and access restrictions of the entire facility?
A

Core breeding unit

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12
Q
  1. What were four concerns facilities had with their current or previous designs?
A
  1. Size and capacity of holding or quarantine rooms, size and number of procedure rooms, support infrastructure (autoclave capacity, storage space), and lack of cost reductions.
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13
Q
  1. How long did it typically take to detect EHS after dirty bedding exposure?
    a. 2 weeks
    b. 3 weeks
    c. 4 weeks
    d. 5 weeks
A

C

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14
Q
  1. True or false: Monoinfections of EHS were more commonly found.
A

False

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15
Q
  1. What was the most commonly identified EHS in the study?
    a. H. bilis
    b. H. rodentium
    c. H. typhlonicus
    d. H. hepaticus
A

D

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16
Q
  1. What causes Chagas disease and how is it transmitted?
A
  1. Trypanosoma cruzi; triatomine insect vectors (kissing bug) through contact of parasite containing feces with mammalian mucous membranes or through a break in skin
17
Q
  1. The first case of T. cruzi in NHP occurred where?
A
  1. Covington, LA
18
Q
  1. What species of NHP could possibly be explored as an animal model for Chagas disease?
A
  1. Pig-tailed macaques
19
Q
  1. T. cruzi can be transmitted from infected animals to caregivers and lab workers through contamination with infected blood? T or F
A

True

20
Q

True or False: As defined by the USDA and the Animal Welfare Act, a painful procedure is any procedure that would reasonably be expected to cause more than slight or momentary pain or distress in a human being to which that procedure is applied.

A

True

21
Q

True or False: Open-field measurements reflect responses to a novel environment and are less sensitive measures of wellbeing than are those obtained repeatedly or in the home cage.

A

False—they are a more sensitive measure.

22
Q

Which of the following readily observable physical signs was a sensitive indicator of pain and distress after immunization with CFA or IFA in mice?

a. Body temperature
b. Erythema at immunization site
c. Swelling at immunization site
d. General physical activity
e. None of the above

A

E

23
Q

Which of the following anesthetics targets both glycine and GABAA receptors?

a. Chloral hydrate
b. Pentobarbital
c. Urethane
d. All of the above

A

A

24
Q
  1. Which of the following anesthetics targets only the GABAA receptor?
    a. Chloral hydrate
    b. Pentobarbital
    c. Urethane
    d. All of the above
A

B

25
Q
  1. Which of the following anesthetics targets GABAA , glycine, and glutamate receptors?
    a. Chloral hydrate
    b. Pentobarbital
    c. Urethane
    d. All of the above
A

C

26
Q
  1. __________ anesthetized animals are thought to have similar physiologic and pharmacologic behaviors as unanesthetized animals.
    a. Chloral hydrate
    b. Pentobarbital
    c. Urethane
    d. Ketamine
A

C

27
Q

True or False: Amphibians requires much higher concentrations of MS222 that due mammals.

A

True (reference 3)

28
Q

MS222 stands for which of the following?

a. Eugenol
b. Benzocaine
c. Tricaine methanesulfonate
d. Tiletamine combined with zolazepam

A

C

29
Q

What is the common name of Xenopus laevis?

a. African clawed toad
b. Bufo marinus
c. African clawed frog

A

C

30
Q

Plethysmography is:

a. Used only to assess lung function.
b. Used only in small laboratory rodents.
c. Used to record changes in the size an organ.
d. Only effective when used on an anesthetized animal.

A

C

31
Q

Mice and rats have:

a. 3 right lung lobes and 2 left lung lobes.
b. 1 right lung lobe and 4 left lung lobes.
c. 2 right lung lobes and 3 left lung lobes.
d. 4 right lung lobes and 1 left lung lobe.

A

D

32
Q

In this article, statistical analysis of the data for various parameters was accomplished using the 2-tailed paired t test or the 2-way ANOVA. Regarding statistics:

a. If the P value is sufficiently small, the investigator can accept the null hypothesis.
b. Including a pilot study in the main study may increase Type 2 errors.
c. A Type 1 error is also called a false discovery.
d. Alpha is the probability that the null hypothesis will be accepted when it actually true.

A

C

33
Q

The three different temperature ranges used were:

a. 2-8°C, -10 to -20°C, and -100°C
b. -2 to -8°C, -10 to -20°C, and -100°C
c. 2-8°C, -10 to -20°C, and -70°C
d. 0°C, 32°C, and -70°C

A

C

34
Q

Chloride is stable after 3 freeze-thaw cycles at what temperature?

a. Refrigeration
b. Freeze
c. Deep freeze

A

C

35
Q

Albumin is unstable after 2 or 3 freeze-thaw cycles when stored at what temperature?

a. 2-8°C
b. -10 to -20°C
c. -70°C

A

B

36
Q

Regarding temperature measurement, which of the following is true?

a. The stress of chemical or manual restraint may alter the validity of the temperature measurement obtained
b. Rectal temperatures can be influenced by the presence of feces in the rectum
c. Repeated sampling increases the risk of rectal bruising and tearing
d. All of the above

A

D

37
Q

Subcutaneous temperatures may differ from rectal temperatures because

a. The subcutaneous temperatures may be affected by ambient temperatures or wet fur
b. A lag time between changes in core and subcutaneous temperatures could account for some of the disagreement between temperatures
c. The location of microchip implantation and the amount of subcutaneous adipose tissue could influence temperature readings
d. All of the above

A

D

38
Q

Noncontact infrared thermometers are similar to subcutaneous transponders in that

a. Both measure surface temperatures
b. The temperatures obtained may be influenced by ambient temperatures or wet fur
c. The presence of hair seemed to affect the ability of the beam to reach the skin surface sufficiently to measure temperatures
d. All of the above

A

D