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acvpm ARMY practice exam > Infectious Disease 2 > Flashcards

Infectious Disease 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Human Brucellosis is best treated with:

A. Tetracycline and rifampin

B. Penicillin for 21 days

C. Chloramphenicol

D. Sulfamethazine

E. Cutaneous antigen and levamisole

A

A. Tetracycline and rifampin

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2
Q

Which one of the following statements is TRUE regarding arthropod-borne viruses in the Family Togaviridae Genus Alphavirus?

A. Eastern Equine Encephalitis (EEE) virus infections occur mostly in U.S. states east of the Mississippi River, the Caribbean, and South America and can have human case fatalities of up to 50%

B. Western Equine Encephalitis (WEE) virus is distributed throughout western North America, Uruguay, and Argentina – and in humans, usually has higher morbidity and lower case-fatality rates than EEE

C. Venezuelan Equine Encephalitis (VEE) virus occurs mostly in northeastern South America, and is different from EEE and WEE in that non-immune equids are the principal source of virus for arthropod vectors in epizootics and epidemics

D. All of the above statements are true

E. None of the above statements are true

A
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3
Q

The primary mode of transmission of Melioidosis is:

A. Animal to man

B. Man to animal

C. Contact with contaminated soil or water

D. Contact with infected zoo animals

E. Contamination of food by rodents

A

C. Contact with contaminated soil or water

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4
Q

Immunological tolerance, where a viral antigen causes no immune response in the host, but in which infective viral particles are always present, is of importance in which disease:

a. Lymphocytic Choriomeningitis
b. Q-Fever
c. St. Louis Encephalitis
d. Cat Scratch Disease
e. Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

A
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5
Q

Which of the following is the reservoir for the Sin Nombre virus found in the southwestern United States?

a. Texas Lone Star tick
b. Brown dog tick
c. Cotton rat
d. Chipmunk
e. Deer mouse

A

c. Cotton rat

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT transmitted by ticks?

a. Louping Ill
b. Crimean Congo Hemorrhagic fever
c. Far Eastern (Russian Spring and Summer Encephalitis) virus
d. Ross River virus
e. Colorado Tick fever

A

d. Ross River virus

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7
Q

Which one of the following statements most accurately reflects current thinking concerning the control of human and equine infection with Eastern Encephalitis?

a. Vaccination of horses is the best way to control the disease in man because the horse is the usual source of infection for humans
b. Insect control will usually reduce the infection rate in man because it eliminates horse-to-man transmission
c. In order to control the disease in horses, human infections must be reduced because man is usually the principle source of infection for horses
d. Both horses and humans acquire the infection from insects and do not usually serve as sources of infection for each other. Therefore, human vaccination only reduces the incidence in man and equine vaccination protects only horses
e. Reduction of the disease in man reduces the incidence in horses and reduction in horses reduces the incidence in man because both species can serve as immediate sources of infection for the other

A

d. Both horses and humans acquire the infection from insects and do not usually serve as sources of infection for each other. Therefore, human vaccination only reduces the incidence in man and equine vaccination protects only horses

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8
Q

The occurrence of African Horse Sickness in foreign countries has usually been controlled through extensive:

a. Test and slaughter methods
b. Quarantine, vaccination and vector control
c. Chemotherapeutic agents
d. Cleaning and disinfection programs
e. Elimination of reservoir host(s)

A

b. Quarantine, vaccination and vector control

  • Live-attenuated virus vaccines are available for immunization of equids against AHS.
  • These are typically based on cell culture–attenuated viruses and generally provide good, but not absolute,
  • Annual revaccination is recommended in regions where these vaccines are used
  • Potential reversion to virulence, capacity for transmission by vector Culicoides midges
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9
Q

Human autoinfection is a serious concern with which parasite listed below?

a. Taenia saginata
b. Trichinella spiralis
c. Diphyllobothrium latum
d. Taenia solium
e. Anasakis spp.

A

d. Taenia solium

  • The definitive host, human, can get infected with the same tapeworm over and over again.
  • This retro-peristalsis reverses the direction of the stool and the gravid proglottids are carried back to the stomach.
  • The larvae hatch and cause cysticercosis.
  • Another way to autoinfect oneself with cysticerci is to scratch the anus and then put fingers into the mouth.
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10
Q

Which of the following is NOT a reason that Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) has been potentially linked to human disease?

a. BSE provides a plausible interpretation of findings related to a form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease with a unique age-specific incidence.
b. The increased incidence of BSE in UK cattle has paralleled a large increase in Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in the human population in the U.K.
c. Exposure of the UK human population to the BSE agent was likely to have been highest in the 1980’s, consistent with the incubation period for spongiform disease in humans,
d. An apparent excess of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease occurred among cattle farmers in the U.K.
e. Recent cases of a variant form of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease have a common neuropathological pattern, suggesting infection by a common strain of the causative agent.

A

d. An apparent excess of Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease occurred among cattle farmers in the U.K.

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11
Q

When considering the diagnosis of adult, or enzootic, bovine lymphosarcoma (BLV), which of the following statements is correct?

a. Rectal palpation of the abdominal cavity is a useful diagnostic procedure in cases lacking peripheral lymph node enlargement.
b. On the hemogram, lymphocytosis is commonly observed.
c. Approximately 20 % of the cases are serologically negative for BLV on the AGID test.
d. Cytology of aspirates of tumors is a reliable diagnostic tool.
e. Adult cattle with enzootic leukosis usually present between 2 and 4 years of age.

A

a. Rectal palpation of the abdominal cavity is a useful diagnostic procedure in cases lacking peripheral lymph node enlargement.

  • lymphocytosis in approximately 30%
  • Lymphoma (lymphosarcoma) in approximately 3% of BLV cattle at least six years-of-age. termed the “enzootic”, “endemic”, or “adult”
  • Poor reproductive performance and palpable enlargement of the uterine wall or intra-pelvic lymph nodes are also indicators
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12
Q

You are called on a cool day in June to a client’s dairy in the central California valley because the herd’s milk production has dropped dramatically in the last 2 days and many cows are slobbering, have elevated temperatures, and are not eating well. You select 5 cows to examine closely and find fevers of 104-106 degrees F and several lingual erosions. The farmer’s ranch horse has identical clinical signs. Your presumptive diagnosis is:

a. Foot and Mouth Disease (FMD)
b. Bovine Viral Diarrhea (BVD)
c. Vesicular Stomatitis (VS)
d. Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF)
e. Bovine papular stomatitis (BPS)

A

c. Vesicular Stomatitis (VS)

  • Vesicular stomatitis is seen sporadically in the USA.
  • Vesicular stomatitis viruses are endemic in South America, Central America, and parts of Mexico
  • The virus can be transmitted through direct contact with infected animals with clinical disease (those with lesions) or by blood-feeding insects.
  • vesicular stomatitis is a reportable disease
  • Diagnosis is based on signs and either antibody detection through serologic tests, viral detection through isolation, or detection by molecular techniques.
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13
Q

Which of the following Brucella sp. is not zoonotic?

a. Brucella melitensis
b. Brucella abortus
c. Brucella canis
d. Brucella ovis
e. Brucella suis

A

d. Brucella ovis

Brucella ovis - economically important cause of epididymitis, orchitis and

impaired fertility in rams. Occasionally associated with abortion in ewes, and can cause

increased perinatal mortality in lambs.

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14
Q

Which of the following statements concerning Salmonella enterica serotype Typhimurium multiple drug resistant definitive type 104 (mrDT104) is most correct?

a. Molecular studies have shown that resistance genes are chromosomally encoded.
b. A clonal strain of mrDT104 is resistant to at least 5 antimicrobials and is referred to as R-type ACSSuT.
c. In humans, the case-fatality rate for mrDT104 R-type ACSSuT is the same as for non-typhoid Salmonella infections other than mrDT104 R-type ACSSuT.
d. A and B are true.
e. B and C are true.

A

d. A and B are true.

  • Salmonella typhimurium DT104 first emerged in the UK in the 1980’s and is associated with an increase in morbidity and mortality in both humans and animals.
  • characterized by resistance to 5 antimicrobials and has a tendency to acquire additional resistance attributes.
  • Results of molecular studies have documented that resistance genes in mrDT104 are chromosomally encoded.
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15
Q

In 1999, the APHIS/USDA provided an indemnity to U.S. swine producers for the voluntary depopulation of herds of swine known to be infected with pseudorabies. Which of the following statements is FALSE?

a. Pseudorabies or Aujesky’s Disease is caused by a herpes virus.
b. The eradication program asks producers to wean young pigs in the herd at 2-3 weeks of age and segregate them from the rest of the herd.
c. In 1999, only 1000 infected herds remained in the U.S.
d. As part of the program, once infected swine have been removed from a premises, additional swine may be moved onto those premises for at least 30 days following cleaning and disinfection of the premises have been done.
e. The virus produces the highest mortality in older swine.

A

e. The virus produces the highest mortality in older swine.

  • It existed in the United States for at least 150 years
  • pseudorabies virus in the herpes family
  • The virus has the ability to produce latent or clinically inapparent infections.
  • commercial production swine in the United States are free of pseudorabies
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16
Q

“Diseases Affecting Bovine Mucosa (DABM),” designating the collection of infections that cause crusting of the muzzle and ulceration, erosion, vesiculation, necrosis, or hemorrhage in the bovine alimentary tract, include the following EXCEPT:

a. Rinderpest
b. Bluetongue
c. Malignant Catarrhal Fever
d. Rift Valley Fever
e. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis

A

d. Rift Valley Fever

  • Zoonotic - is an acute, fever-causing viral disease most commonly observed in domesticated animals
  • Bunyaviridae
  • found eastern and southern Africa where sheep and cattle are raised, but the virus exists in most of sub-Saharan Africa, including west Africa and Madagascar.
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17
Q

Following bovine diseases are usually associated with skin lesions on the teats EXCEPT:

a. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
b. Herpes Mammilitis
c. Foot and Mouth Disease
d. Malignant Catarrhal Fever
e. Lumpy Skin Disease

A

a. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis

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18
Q

Classical Swine Fever (Hog Cholera) is clinically indistinguishable in swine by another viral contagious febrile disease. Which of the following is the correct answer?

a. Erysipelas
b. Nipah Virus
c. African Swine Fever
d. Foot and Mouth Disease

A

c. African Swine Fever

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19
Q

Which of the following parasite produces the most virulent larva migrans?

a. Toxocara canis
b. Toxocara cati
c. Ancylostoma braziliense
d. Strongyloides stercoralis
e. Baylisascaris procyonis

A
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20
Q

More than 100 years of work has failed to produce either a cure or a reliable vaccine for which of the following diseases:

a. Anthrax
b. Brucellosis
c. Paratuberculosis (Johne’s)
d. Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
e. Rabies

A

c. Paratuberculosis (Johne’s)

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21
Q

The Primary Reservoir for visceral Leishmaniasis is/are:

  1. rodents
  2. humans
  3. canids
  4. a and c
  5. b and c
A

b and c

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22
Q

Confirmatory tests for Francisella tularensis (tularemia) include fluorescent antibody tests and agglutination testing of paired sera. Tularemia demonstrates cross-reactivity with which one of the below listed agents?

  1. Rickettsia spp
  2. Brucella
  3. Hantavirus spp
  4. Streptococcus spp
  5. None of the above
A

B. Brucella

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23
Q

The phenomenal disease condition affecting man and animal known in the US as tick paralysis is usually associated with just one species of tick which is:

a. Ixodes cookie
b. Rhipicephalus sanguineus
c. Argas persicus
d. Dermacentor andersoni
e. Haemaphysalis leporis-palustris

A

d. Dermacentor andersoni

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24
Q

The first disease to be recognized as transmitted by an arthropod was:

a. anaplasmosis
b. trypanosomiasis
c. Texas fever
d. Yellow fever
e. Malaria

A

Texas fever

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25
Q

Causative agent of equine piroplasmosis is:

a. Trypanosoma equiperdum
b. Theileria parva
c. Babesia caballi (equi)
d. Trypanosoma evansi
e. Theirleria lawrenci

A

Babesia caballi (equi)

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26
Q

Wuncheria bancrofti is endemic in most of the warm regions of the world and is the causative agent of what disease?

a. black water fever
b. filariasis
c. fasciolopsiasis
d. cytomegalic inclusion
e. guinea worm infection

A

filariasis

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27
Q

Psorophora bos has been reported only from:

a. Canada
b. United States
c. Mexico
d. Australia
e. Israel

A

United States

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28
Q
  1. Fowl plaque is caused by:
    a. a type B influenza virus picornavirus
    b. a type A influenza orthomyxovirus
    c. an arborvirus
    d. Yersinia multocida
    e. Yersinia pestis
A

a type A influenza orthomyxovirus

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29
Q

In strongyloidiasis, the parasite Strongyloides stercoralis may undergo the heterogonic cycle when environmental conditions are favorable. The term heterogonic refers to:

a. direct development to 3rd states infective larvae
b. development of free living males and females which subsequently produce infective larvae
c. larval development to nymphal stage on skin of host
d. development of miracidium into sprocyst in snail
e. activation of embryo by action of digestive enzymes

A

development of free living males and females which subsequently produce infective larvae

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30
Q

The base of the insecticide commonly used for destruction of mites which cause scabies on domestic animals:

a. pyrethrum
b. rotenone
c. benzene hexachloride
d. carbon tetrachloride
e. carbon disulfide

A

rotenone

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31
Q
  1. A general measure which is customarily recommended as being the most effective method for the prevention of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever in the US is:
    a. eradication of ticks
    b. burning over of tick infested areas
    c. personal care in avoiding tick infested areas
    d. dipping of domestic stock
    e. poisoning of rodents
A

personal care in avoiding tick infested areas

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32
Q
  1. “Creeping eruption” or “larval migrans” results most frequently form the presence in the epidermis of man of larvae of the:
    a. tropical warble fly (Dermatobia hominis)
    b. strongyloid threadworm (Strongyloides stercoralis)
    c. ox warble fly (Hypoderma lineate)
    d. dog hookworm (Ancylostoma caninum)
    e. dog and cat hook worm (Ancylostoma brazilinse)
A

dog and cat hook worm (Ancylostoma brazilinse)

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33
Q

Which one of the following parasites is correctly paired with the pathological manifestation it causes?

a. Fasciola hepatica – enchanced production of toxins of Clostridium novvi, causing Black Disease
b. Ascaris lumbricoides – extraction of blood from the host
c. Haemonchus contortus – choledochitis
d. Multiceps multiceps – nodular formation in cecum and colon
e. Oesophagostomum columbianum - aneurysms in anterior mesenteric artery

A

Multiceps multiceps – nodular formation in cecum and colon

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34
Q
  1. A relatively mild disease of man, which resembles chicken pox, but which is acquired from contact with mice and rodent mite vectors is:
    a. Chagas’ disease
    b. Rickettsial pox
    c. Rubella
    d. Toxoplasmosis
    e. Q-fever
A

Rickettsial pox

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35
Q
  1. Myxomytosis in rabbits is:
    a. transmissible by ectoparasites
    b. a result of thyroid malfunction
    c. caused by virus antigenically related to small pox
    d. uniformly fatal
    e. found mainly in Uruguay
A

caused by virus antigenically related to small pox

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36
Q
  1. In which one of the following epidemiological combinations have rickettsial agents of animals and man been found?
    a. rat – flea –murine typhus
    b. rat –flea – Q-fever
    c. rat – louse – scrub typhus
    d. cow- flea – Rocky Spotted Mountain Fever
    e. mouse – tick – rickettsial pox
A

rat – flea –murine typhus

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37
Q

Dourine is caused by a species of trypanosome called:

a. Trypansoma equinum
b. Trypansoma eqiperdum
c. Trypansoma vivax
d. Trypansoma congolense
e. Trypansoma evansi

A

Trypansoma eqiperdum

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38
Q

Suckling mice are the best choice for isolating viruses of which of the following groups?

a. paramyxoviruses
b. arenaviruses
c. poxviruses
d. rotaviruses
e. togaviruses

A

arenaviruses

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39
Q

Intracellular virus:

a. can only be neutralized by 19S antibody
b. can be inactivated by phagocytised anti-DNA antibody
c. can have its phenotypic markers altered significantly by IG D
d. can readily be absorbed by non-neutralizing IG E
e. cannot be influenced by specific antibody

A

cannot be influenced by specific antibody

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40
Q

A positive serum neutralization test would indicate that the animal had:

a. the disease a the time the specimen was taken
b. previously shown symptoms of the disease
c. been vaccinated at least 5 years ago
d. not had the disease at any time in the past
e. been infected with the specific disease entity

A

been infected with the specific disease entity

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41
Q
  1. Tissue culture techniques are extremely useful in the isolation of viral agents from

field cases because:

a. they permit identification of the virus by the type of cytopathogenic effect

produced

b. the type of inclusion body produced is of diagnostic value
c. they provide readily available homologous and heterlogous hosts, devoid of antibody, for growth of the virus
d. tissue cultures are more resistant to non-specific toxic reactions than intact animals
e. they permit the selective growth of one viral agent at a time

A

they permit identification of the virus by the type of cytopathogenic effect

produced

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42
Q

Which of the following groups consists wholly of virus-induced diseases?

a. Q-fever (man); cowpox, distemper (feline); ecthyma (sheep); rabies
b. ecthyma (sheep); infectious hepatitis (dog); cowpox, bluetongue; rabies
c. atrophic rhinitis (swine); Q-fever; distemper (dog); rabies; vesicular exanthema
d. bluetongue (sheep); fowlpox; rabies; erysipelas (swine); leptospirosis
e. leptospirosis; infectious anemia (horses); distemper (dog); bluetongue; Q-fever (man)

A

ecthyma (sheep); infectious hepatitis (dog); cowpox, bluetongue; rabies

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43
Q
  1. Vesicular exanthema has been diagnosed in a group of 150 market-weight hogs.

The entire herd has been placed under written quarantine. The quarantine may be

lifted when:

a. symptoms have not been observed for 30 days
b. all hogs have been given antivesicular exanthema antiserum
c. grain-fed hogs are added to the herd and the disease is not transmitted
d. all hogs have received cooked garbage or grain exclusively, and 30 days have elapsed since the last symptoms were observed
e. all hogs have been slaughtered, the meat has been specially processed, and the premises have been cleaned and disinfected

A

all hogs have been slaughtered, the meat has been specially processed, and the premises have been cleaned and disinfected

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44
Q
  1. All of the following practices are frequently used in controlling an outbreak of disease with the exception of:
    a. quarantine
    b. vaccination
    c. isolation
    d. fumigation
    e. segregation
A

fumigation

45
Q

*23. Which of the following statements about the seriousness of the public health

hazard presented by an outbreak of vesicular stomatitis in cattle is correct?

a. although the infection rate in exposed persons is low, the disease in the affected is rather severe
b. since the disease is very contagious, it is likely to spread widely and cause an expanding public health problem
c. the mortality rate of this disease in man is very low but morbidity rate is high
d. man is not susceptible to this disease, therefore there is no public health hazard in this situation
e. man is only slightly susceptible to ordinary exposure and the disease is so mild that no serious public health hazard exists

A

man is only slightly susceptible to ordinary exposure and the disease is so mild that no serious public health hazard exists

46
Q
  1. Adrenergic drugs are commonly referred to as:
    a. sympatholytic agents
    b. sympathomimetic agents
    c. adrenolytic agents
    d. alpha blocking agents
    e. antagonist agents
A

sympathomimetic agents

47
Q
  1. An example of a drug interaction in which one drug nullifies the activity of the

other is that between:

a. chloramphenicol and coumarine
b. neomycin and non-depolarizing muscle relaxants
c. chloramphenicol and barbiturates
d. penicillin and aminoglycocides
e. penicillin and bacteriostatic drugs

A

penicillin and bacteriostatic drugs

48
Q

Which of the following is not a parasympathomimetic agent?

a. carbachol
b. pilocarpine
c. atropine
d. arcoline
e. methancholine chloride

A

atropine

49
Q
  1. When a drug that is a weak organic base is administered parentally to ruminants, it

may diffuse into the rumen and be retained there. This is an example of the

phenomenon known as

a. ion trapping
b. competitive distribution
c. activated distribution
d. active filtration
e. inactive filtration

A

ion trapping

50
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes what is necessary for a veterinarian to source federal accreditation?
    a. graduation from a recognized school of veterinary medicine
    b. successful completion of the national veterinary board examination
    c. licensed by a state and recommendation of the state veterinarian
    d. graduation from a recognized college of veterinary medicine, and one year of practice experience
    e. graduation from a recognized college of veterinary medicine, licensed to practice by the state for which applying, submission of application on Form 1-36A, recommendation of state and federal official in the state to which applying and pass the written examination given by the veterinary services of the USDA Animal & Plant Inspection System
A

graduation from a recognized college of veterinary medicine, licensed to practice by the state for which applying, submission of application on Form 1-36A, recommendation of state and federal official in the state to which applying and pass the written examination given by the veterinary services of the USDA Animal & Plant Inspection System

51
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about infectious canine hepatitis is false?
    a. dogs of all ages are succeptible
    b. exposure usually occurs by ingestion of virus
    c. airborne transmission is not considered a problem
    d. nervous involvements are usually seen in dogs
    e. the disease occurs throughout the world
A

nervous involvements are usually seen in dogs

52
Q
  1. The Los Angeles type of smog is generally considered to be caused by:
    a. automobile exhaust
    b. power plant exhaust
    c. municipal incinerator smoke
    d. petroleum refinery waste
    e. dust nuclei from heavy industry
A

automobile exhaust

53
Q
  1. The best protection that can be afforded against biological warfare is to:
    a. improve methods of food and livestock inspections
    b. assure early reporting and recognition of symptoms of infectious diseases
    c. assist industry to develop protective measures against sabotage
    d. begin mass immunization programs
    e. provide general population with gas masks
A

assure early reporting and recognition of symptoms of infectious diseases

54
Q
  1. To minimize air pollution from the disposal of refuse the preferred procedure is to:
    a. haul the refuse to an open dump and burn it there
    b. haul the refuse to a dump and use the “land fill” method
    c. burn it in one large municipal incinerator
    d. burn a small amount at a time in a backyard incinerator
    e. develop a system of block incinerators, one for each block in the community
A

haul the refuse to a dump and use the “land fill” method

55
Q
  1. Contamination of animal foods with toxic chemicals has occurred a number of times in recent years. One of the most dramatic incidents occurred in 1973 and involved dairy cattle in Michigan. The clinical signs of toxicity were abortions, breeding problems, weak calves, sever drop in milk production, curling of toes and death. The chemical involved was:
    a. hexachloraobenzene
    b. polychlorinated biphenyls
    c. polybrominaded biphenyls
    d. pentachlorophenol
    e. mercury
A

polybrominaded biphenyls

56
Q
  1. What time of year is Douglas water hemlock (Cicuta douglas) most dangerous to cattle?
    a. early spring, when the young growth first appears
    b. mid-summer, as the flowering stalk appears
    c. late summer, when the mature seeds are present
    d. late spring, when the foliage is fully developed
    e. winter, when range cattle may be forced to browse on the erect flowering stalks
A

early spring, when the young growth first appears

57
Q

PCB found in milk samples in dairy herds indicates:

a. normal residue
b. a need to embargo the milk
c. a need to slaughter all animals
d. a need to embargo milk; determine source of PCB; and treat milk

samples for compliance of tolerance levels

e. found only in spring when cows go to pasture

A

a need to embargo milk; determine source of PCB; and treat milk

samples for compliance of tolerance levels

58
Q

*36. The Michigan problem associated with PBB in cattle, hogs, sheep and poultry,

has been attributed to:

a. an infectious agent
b. contaminated feed
c. aerosol pollutants
d. impurities in drinking water
e. improper waste disposal

A

contaminated feed

59
Q
  1. The specific morbidity rate is usually the number of:
    a. cases of a specific disease per 1,000,000 population
    b. deaths from a specific disease for a geographical area
    c. cases of a specific disease for a political area
    d. deaths from a specific disease per 100,000 population
    e. deaths from a specific disease per 100 cases of that disease
A

cases of a specific disease per 1,000,000 population

60
Q

Using the following 2x2 display which relationship correctly depicts the specificity of a diagnostic test?

a. A/(C+D)
b. D/(A+B)
c. A/(A+C)
d. D/(B+D)
e. A/(C+D)

A

D/(B+D)

61
Q

The amount of health disorder existing in a population at one particular time,

regardless of time of onset is known at the:

a. prevalence
b. incidence
c. moribidity rate
d. mortalitiy rate
e. attack rate

A

prevalence

62
Q

In prospective study or cohort type of epidemiologic study, two types of cohorts

are selected. One of these is the exposed and the other is:

a. cases
b. susceptible
c. affected cohorts
d. non-exposed
e. immune populations

A

non-exposed

63
Q

Clinical scrapie is most frequently observed in sheep at:

a. weanling
b. 2-4 years of age
c. 5-7 years of age
d. less than 2 years of age
e. ages over 7 years

A

2-4 years of age

64
Q
  1. Scrapie is a chronic degenerative neurologic disease which naturally affects only:
    a. Sheep
    b. Cattle
    c. Swine
    d. Warm blooded ruminants
    e. Sheep, goats, and probably minks
A

Sheep, goats, and probably minks

65
Q
  1. Controls help most in providing:
    a. Randomness
    b. Representative nature
    c. Comparability
    d. Accurate reporting
    e. Literature compatability
A

Comparability

66
Q

The frequency of disease at a specific time is referred to as:

a. rate
b. ratio
c. incidence
d. prevalence
e. association

A

prevalence

67
Q

The first step in investigating an outbreak of disease is to:

a. institute treatment
b. verify an outbreak occurred
c. institute controls
d. search for causes
e. conduct serologic survey

A

verify an outbreak occurred

68
Q

A new good treatment available for a disease would affect:

a. incidence
b. prevalence
c. morbidity
d. cumulation ???
e. incidence density

A

prevalence

69
Q
  1. The duration of a chronic disease process may complicate the epidemiologic

study of its prevalence because of:

a. loss of people or animals from the study by death from other causes
b. changes in diagnostic techniques during the period of study
c. changes in medical or veterinary care during the period of study
d. decrease in interest level on the part of workers in the study
e. all of the above

A

all of the above

70
Q
  1. If an epidemiologist is called to investigate a communicable disease emergency, the first thing he/she should determine is:
    a. possible sources of infection
    b. methods of transmission
    c. accuracy of the diagnosis
    d. methods of control
    e. extent of spread
A

accuracy of the diagnosis

71
Q
  1. The term used to express the amount of virus in a live virus vaccine is:
    a. virus count (2 answers circled)
    b. viability factor
    c. reciprocal dilution
    d. potency
    e. virus titer
A

potency

72
Q
  1. A disease due to a specific infectious agent transmitted by either direct or by

indirect modes of conveyance is described as:

a. nosocomial
b. communicable
c. iatrogenic
d. contagious
e. inapparent

A

communicable

73
Q
  1. The occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness in the human population clearly in excess of normal expectancy and derived from a common propagated source is an:
    a. epidemic
    b. endemic
    c. pandemic
    d. epizootic
    e. anthropozoonosis
A

epidemic

74
Q
  1. Which of the following agent characteristics is most likely to be seen in a disease which occurs in epidemic proportions:
    a. high infectivity
    b. high pathogenicity
    c. high virulence
    d. low antigenicity
    e. viability
A

high infectivity

75
Q

Herd immunity is least affected by:

a. antigenic portion of the agent
b. antigenic stability of the agent
c. serologic epidemiology
d. random distribution of immune individuals within the herd
e. movements within the population

A

antigenic portion of the agent

76
Q

Communicable disease is not contagious when there is

a. illness
b. latency
c. incubation period
d. convalescence
e. all of the above

A

latency

77
Q
  1. The serologic test which best detects antibody associated with immunity to viral

infection is:

a. conglutination test
b. complement-fixation test
c. agar gel precipitin test
d. neutralization test
e. hemagglutination-inhibition test

A

neutralization test

78
Q
  1. Incommunicable diseases with long-lasting immunity, endemic diseases usually have the highest infection rates in the:
    a. aggressive
    b. closed population
    c. stressed
    d. old
    e. young
A

young

79
Q
  1. In vertical transmission, the source is the:
    a. parent
    b. sibling
    c. pet
    d. food
    e. vehicle
A

parent

80
Q
  1. An individual with high serologic titer against a Group B arborvirus is most likely not to have:
    a. dengue fever
    b. yellow fever
    c. St. Louis encephalitis
    d. Eastern equine encephalitis
    e. Japanese B. encephalitis
A

Eastern equine encephalitis

81
Q
  1. Select the one correct statement:
    a. endemic or enzootic disease results from some ecological imbalance
    b. epidemiology refers only to the study of infectious diseases
    c. the most important host factor in the distribution of a disease in a population is sex
    d. natural barriers are no longer of importance in the transmission of infectious diseases
    e. disease causality must be viewed in terms not only of an agent but also of the host and its environment
A

disease causality must be viewed in terms not only of an agent but also of the host and its environment

82
Q

Which of the animal host variables listed below may be considered the most

important due to influence on resistance, physiological state, and risk of

exposure?

a. husbandry
b. sex
c. age
d. breed
e. use

A
83
Q

Public health professionals consider the most significant type of bacteria found in drinking water supplies to be:

a. Bacillu sp.
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Clostridium sporogenes
e. Escherichia coli

A

Escherichia coli

84
Q
  1. The reservoirs of Chagas’ Disease (Trypanosoma cruzi) are man and the
    a. dog, cat, pig, deer, and birds
    b. armadillo, opossum, bat, dog, and cat
    c. rat, mouse, monkey, raccoon, and parrot
    d. cow, sheep, goat, deer, and horse
    e. monkey, dog, rat, fish, and sheep
A

armadillo, opossum, bat, dog, and cat

85
Q

The swine lungworms, Metastrongylus apri, M. pudendstectus, and H. salmi, require as intermediate hosts various species of:

a. ticks
b. snails
c. earthworms
d. fleas
e. rodents

A

earthworms

86
Q
  1. The MOST important of the factors which have contributed to the great decline in the incidence of typhoid fever in the U.S. during the last 50 years is generally accepted to be:
    a. development of immunizing procedure
    b. improvements in health habits of the people
    c. pasteurization of milk
    d. improvements in environmental sanitation
    e. development of anti-typhoid serum
A

improvements in environmental sanitation

87
Q

If appropriate practices are followed, for approximately how many hours will a retail cut of meat retain an attractive color?

a. 12
b. 24
c. 36
d. 72
e. 120

A

120

88
Q

Under Federal regulations, the maximum amount of added water or moisture that sausage to be cooked, such as frankfurters & bologna, may contain is:

a. 1.5%
b. 3.0%
c. 3.5%
d. 10%
e. 20%

A

10%

89
Q

Which of the following chemicals would an efficient pest control company rendering service to a food products establishment be most likely to use in rodent control work?

a. sodium fluoracetate
b. thallium sulfate
c. sodium thiosulfate
d. sodium fluoride
e. warfarin

A

warfarin

90
Q

An advantage in using hydrocyanic acid gas as a fumigant is that:

a. it does not injure textiles, foodstuffs or painted surfaces
b. it is less toxic than other gases used for fumigation
c. its irritating properties act as a warning to person who might be exposed to dangerous concentrations
d. special precautions are not necessarily in using it in occupied buildings
e. it is heavier than air and stratifies near floor levels

A
91
Q

The most widely used type of treatment for milk plant wastes is:

f. chemical precipitation
g. chlorination
h. primary sedimentation with separate sludge
i. biochemical filtration
j. aeration

A
92
Q

If an unscrupulous butcher fraudulently intended to destroy the offensive odor

and restore the red color of meat that was beginning to spoil he would use:

a. sodium bicarbonate
b. trisodium phosphate
c. sodium chloride
d. sodium sulfide
e. sodium cyanide

A

sodium sulfide

93
Q
  1. According to present-day standards, the most reliable indication that a pasteurizer is operating efficiently would be to:
    a. show that only traces of the enzyme phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer
    b. show that the pasteurizer reduces the total plate count of the raw milk 99.44%
    c. install U.S. Bureau of Standards certified thermocouples in the pasteurizer and show that a temperature of 145°F is maintained for 30 minutes
    d. show that no coliform bacteria are detectable in the pasteurized milk
    e. inoculate the raw milk with the tubercle bacilli and show that they cannot be isolated from the pasteurized milk
A

show that only traces of the enzyme phosphatase are present in the milk as it comes from the pasteurizer

94
Q
  1. The thermal processing of canned foodstuffs to a temperature which destroys all but some highly heat-resistant organisms is called:
    a. thermostatic treatment
    b. thermal sanitation
    c. artificial immunization
    d. high-temperature pasteurization
    e. commercial sterilization
A

commercial sterilization

95
Q

Which of the following conditions of a food medium increases the difficulty of destroying Samonella by heat?

a. low level contamination
b. increased moisture content
c. lowered pH
d. increased viscosity
e. presence of spores formed during prior chilling

A

lowered pH

increased viscosity

96
Q
  1. As the milk dispensing industry of a large city grows with the city’s size, the sources of supply increase in number and recede farther and farther from the consumer. Experience with regard to this condition has shown that when all practical considerations including costs are weighed, the resulting problems may best be met by:
    a. requesting the US Public Health Service to apply and enforce its model milk ordinance in the area
    b. requiring the testing of all cattle in the milkshed for tuberculosis and brucellosis
    c. extending full municipal inspection services to the milkshed
    d. hiring of part time local inspectors by the municipal health department
    e. requiring the milk processors to inspect and regulate dairies and collecting stations subject to supervisory checking by the health department.
A

requesting the US Public Health Service to apply and enforce its model milk ordinance in the area

97
Q

Restaurant owners are advised to purchase foods of animals origin only if they carry a stamp, label, or number indicating that they are from inspected and approved sources. Which one of the following labels would offer least assurance of the safety of the food?

a. “U.S. Inspected and Passed” dressed poultry
b. Grade A raw milk
c. “State Certificate No. 83” oysters
d. “U.S. Inspected and Passed” meat

A

Grade A raw milk

98
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of enzymes in food?

a. hormone
b. organic
c. chemical inhibitor
d. vitamin
e. pathogenic organism

A

organic

99
Q

Molds may be able to grow on food products that have moisture content as low as?

a. 2%
b. 5%
c. 10%
d. 15%
e. 20%

A

15%

100
Q

Pathogenic organisms in freshly frozen food may be expected to die off:

a. slowly over a period of months
b. rapidly over a period of a few weeks
c. not at all, but will retain essentially the same population for years if left in frozen storage
d. rapidly for the first few weeks, and then very slowly for a considerable period of time
e. slowly at first, then quits rapidly

A

rapidly for the first few weeks, and then very slowly for a considerable period of time

101
Q

On postmortem examination, a well-nourished cow is found to have numerous lesions of tuberculosis of the same size throughout both lungs and in the bronchial and mediastinal lymph nodes. A careful search reveals no other lesions elsewhere in the carcass. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most appropriate disposition?

a. pass the carcass without restriction after condemning the lungs
b. pass the carcass for refrigeration, after condemning the lungs
c. condemn the lungs; pass the carcass for cooking
d. condemn the entire carcass
e. pass the rear quarters for cooking; condemn the forequarters

A

condemn the entire carcass

102
Q

A swine carcass is found on postmortem examination to be affected with Cysticercus cellulosae. Only two cysts are found in the heart. A careful search reveals no others. According to current USDA regulations, which of the following is the most acceptable disposition?

a. condemn the entire carcass
b. pass the entire carcass without restriction
c. pass the entire carcass for appropriate refrigeration
d. condemn the heart, pass the carcass without restriction
e. pass the carcass for cooking

A
103
Q

The lesions of avian tuberculosis in a poultry carcass are:

carcass, regardless of their numbers or location

a. evidence of systemic infection warranting condemnation of the whole
b. usually calcified and located in the liver, spleen, lungs , or intestinal walls
c. a cause of major concern to producers of all classes of poultry
d. very infectious to man
e. located in the lungs more often than in any other tissue, particularly when the disease has not progressed very far

A

evidence of systemic infection warranting condemnation of the whole

carcass, regardless of their numbers or location

104
Q
  1. Which one of the following is correct procedure for tanking condemned carcasses and products?
    a. a house employee seals the lower opening, if any; after the tank is filled, a meat inspection employee inspects the contents and seals the upper opening
    b. a meat inspection employee seals the lower opening, if any, supervises filling of the tank, seals the upper opening, and sees that the contents are properly heated
    c. condemned material is freely slashed by a meat inspection employee who then pours coal oil over it. From this point on the responsibility for suitable disposal becomes that of the plant and its employees, with checking at unspecified intervals by meat inspector
    d. tanking and denaturing is conducted by a house employee who provides a certified record of the steps taken and the time at which each was carried out
    e. weekly meetings are held at which the detailed records are studied jointly by the house employee in charge of the tanking and the meat inspector. This includes the charts from recording thermometers. A report is prepared and signed by both parties. Copies are made for both plant and meat inspection records.
A

a meat inspection employee seals the lower opening, if any, supervises filling of the tank, seals the upper opening, and sees that the contents are properly heated

105
Q

Which one of the bovine products listed below would normally have the longest shelf life when held under refrigeration at temperatures of 40-45°F?

a. rump roast
b. ground kidneys
c. blood
d. whole liver
e. ground round

A

rump roast

106
Q

In the case of Ms Brown vs. the Super-Ultra Canning Co., the plaintiff is suing the canning company for the death of her husband, who is alleged to have contracted botulism from eating beans canned by the company. If you were an expert witness called in to testify in this case, which of the following pieces of evidence presented by the plaintiff’s attorney would you consider the most important in rendering a verdict for the plaintiff?

a. while preparing the beans for the meal, the wife tasted them and felt “sick to her stomach” shortly after
b. Clostridium botulinum toxin was definitely detected and identified in the uneaten portion of the beans remaining in the incriminated can
c. Clostridium botulinum spores were isolated form the stools of the victim while in the moribund state
d. Chickens which were fed the uneaten portion of the beans in the can became sick shortly after
e. No other canned food beside the beans was eaten by the victim at the meal when the intoxication was thought to have occurred

A

Clostridium botulinum toxin was definitely detected and identified in the uneaten portion of the beans remaining in the incriminated can

107
Q

*83. Which of the following procedures would be least likely to result in contamination of foods with pathogens?

a. open display of food, such as pies, on a back bar or counter
b. cooking in a utensil which has not received effective bacteriacidal treatment since last use
c. manual contact with inner surfaces of food service utensils
d. manual contact with food after it is cooked
e. serving food in a utensil which has not received effective bacteriacidal treatment since last use

A

cooking in a utensil which has not received effective bacteriacidal treatment since last use

108
Q
A

acvpm ARMY practice exam (8 decks)

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