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HAZMAT > HAZMAT Prep 11 -1 > Flashcards

HAZMAT Prep 11 -1 Flashcards

1
Q

The piping for the _______ is contained outside of the tank, usually on the ends, with a manhole on top of the tank.

A - IM 101

B - IM 102

C - IM 105

D - IM 107

A

B - IM 102

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2
Q

The statement, “Keep away from waterways,” is found on a pesticide label. This statement is referred to as a/an:

A - signal word

B - hazard statement

C - pest control product warning

D - incompatibility statement

A

B - hazard statement

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3
Q

The vehicle pictured below is an:

A - MC 331

B - MC 338

C - MC 312/DOT 412

D - MC 306/DOT 406

A

C - MC 312/DOT 412

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4
Q

A recon team is sent to observe a tank truck that has rolled over. The team reports that the vehicle is an MC 312. The container most probably contains a:

A - flammable liquid

B - corrosive liquid

C - poison gas

D - flammable solid

A

B - corrosive liquid

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5
Q

In response to an incident involving a jackiknifed tractor trailer, you arrive and size up the situation. From your position, you only have a side view of the tractor trailer. You know it is an:

A - MC 331

B - MC 338

C - MC 312 / DOT 412

D - MC 306 / DOT 406

A

A - MC 331

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6
Q

An MC 307 / DOT 407 low-pressure chemical carrier is designed to carry chemicals with pressures not to exceed _______ psi.

A - 3.0

B - 75.0

C - 40.0

D - 30.0

A

C - 40.0

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7
Q

An uninsulated, single-shell vessel (illustrated below), which carries gases that have been liquefied, is an:

A - MC 306 / DOT 406

B - MC 307 / DOT 407

C - MC 312 / DOT 412

D - MC 331

A

D - MC 331

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8
Q

The V-shaped carrier below depicts a _______ carrier.

A - low pressure

B - high pressure

C - dry bulk

D - cryogenic

A

C - dry bulk

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9
Q

A carboy may be used for transporting materials containing:

A - radioactive substances

B - corrosives

C - explosives

D - poison gases

A

B - corrosives

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10
Q

The proper cargo tank truck to carry a shipment of sulfuric acid is an:

A - MC 306 / DOT 406

B - MC 307 DOT 307

C - MC 312 / DOT 412

D - MC 331

A

C - MC 312 / DOT 412

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11
Q

A cryogenic liquid tank car will have:

A - a single uninsultaed shell

B - an enclosed dome

C - a double shell with insulation

D - fittings and valves visible on top of the tank car

A

C - a double shell with insulation

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12
Q

Which of the following is not mandatory information found on a pesticide label?

A - EPA registration number

B - Signal word

C - NFPA 704 data

D - Active ingredients

A

C - NFPA 704 data

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13
Q

When implementing tactical activities during a bomb event, responders should:

A - stage in the line-of-site path of the suspected device

B - use only one radio when in close proximity to the device

C - be alert for secondary devices

D - move the device away from primary exposures

A

C - be alert for secondary devices

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14
Q

The rail car pictured below is what type of tank car?

A - Nonpressurized tank care with expansion dome

B - Cryogenic tank car

C - Pressurized tank car

D - Spec 51 intermodal car

A

C - Pressurized tank car

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15
Q

While surveying a HMs incident scene, you notice yellowish vapors emitting from a cylinder. The driver of the vihicle carrying the cylinders tells you they contain chlorine. As a responder trained to the operations level one of the ways to verify chlorine could emit these vapors is to:

A - contact CHEMTREC

B - enter the hot zone to read the label on the cylinder.

C - bring a chlorine monitor into the vapor cloud to check the reading.

D - Both A and C are correct

A

A - contact CHEMTREC

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16
Q

The intermodal tank that is designed for working pressures of 100 to 500 psi and usually transports liquefied gases under pressure is known as an:

A - IMO TYPE 1

B - IMO TYPE 2

C - IMO TYPE 5

D - IMO TYPE 7

A

C - IMO TYPE 5

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17
Q
  1. There are many types of intermodal containers, or freight containers that can be used interchangeably on multiple modes of transportation (highway, rail, ship)
  2. Cyrogenic liquids cannot be shipped in intermodal containers because they are considered to be too unstable for this type of shipment.
  3. Radioactive material containers are shipped in either Type A or Type B containers.

A - All three statements are correct

B - only statements 2 and 3 are correct

C - Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

D - Only statement 2 is correct

A

C - Only statements 1 and 3 are correct

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18
Q

The design pressure of an IM 101 portable tank is:

A - 14.5 to 25.4 psi

B - 100 to 500 psi

C - 25.4 to 100 psi

D - 6.89 to 14.5 psi

A

C - 25.4 to 100 psi

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19
Q

An intermodal container that is capable of building high pressure gases 3000 psi or higher is a:

A - cryogenic intermodal tank

B - tube module intermodal container

C - pressurized intermodal tank

D - nonpressurized intermodal tank

A

B - tube module intermodal container

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20
Q

Cylindrical packaging mae of metal, plastic, or fiberboard used to transport solids or liquids best describes:

A - carboys

B - drums

C - pressurized cylinders

D - bins

A

B - drums

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21
Q

In the UN/DOT marking system, hazard Class 3 includes:

A - black powder

B - gasonline

C - ammonium nitrate

D - magnesium

A

B - gasonline

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22
Q

Within the UN/DOT system, a container labled with a hazard classifiation of 4 containes a/an:

A - explosive

B - flammable gas

C - flammable solid

D - flammable liquid

A

C - flammable solid

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23
Q

At an emergency incident, the fire fighter may obtain appropriate MSDS information from:

A - CAMEO

B - the National Response Center

C - OSHA

D - CHEMTREC

A

D - CHEMTREC

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24
Q

A liquis ability to mix with water best defines:

A - solubility

B - surface tension

C - water reactivity

D - instability

A

A - solubility

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25
Q

A reaction that is associated with over-pressurization of closed containers and occurs at a rate of one second or less is called a:

A - rapid relief

B - violent rapture

C - detonation

D - spill

A

B - violent rapture

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26
Q

______ interfere with oxygen exchange during normal respiration.

A - Anesthetics

B - Carcinogens

C - Irritants

D - Ashphyxiants

A

D - Ashphyxiants

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27
Q

_______ is the minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixure with air:

A - Ignition temperature

B - Autoignition temperature

C - Flash point

D - Reactivity point

A

C - Flash point

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28
Q

Determining whether a vapor will rise or fall is commonly referred to as:

A - vpor dispersion

B - vapor density

C - vaporization

D - specific gravity

A

B - vapor density

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29
Q

Chemicals that are classified as _______ can cause a severe allergic reaciton.

A - asphyxiants

B - sensitizers

C - irritants

D - convulsants

A

B - sensitizers

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30
Q

What would be the likely result of allowing a contaminated individual to leave the hot zone without being decontaminated?

A - Nothing, all contaminates would likely be gone after the individual exited the hot zone.

B - The contaminants would likely be transferred to other personnel or equipment, resulting in secondary contamination.

C - The individual would be treated for exposure but is no risk to others.

D - There would be direct contamination of the warm zone.

A

B - The contaminants would likely be transferred to other personnel or equipment, resulting in secondary contamination.

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31
Q

Blood agents, such as Arsine, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard Class and division

A - 1.1

B - 1.2

C - 6.1

D - 2.3

A

D - 2.3

32
Q

Vesicants/blister agents, such as nitrogen mustard, would fall under which UN/DOT hazard Class and division?

A - 6.1

B - 6.2

C - 4.1

D - 4.2

A

A - 6.1

33
Q

The minimum temperature at which a liquid gives off sufficient vapors to form an ignitable mixture, with air near the surface, is called the _______ point.

A - combustion

B - Ignition

C - flash

D - fire

A

C - flash

34
Q

Which DOT hazard class covers nerve agents used in chemical warfare?

A - DOT 6.3

B - DOT 6.1

C - DOT 6.2

D - DOT 5.2

A

B - DOT 6.1

35
Q

Most riot control agents are considered to be in DOT hazard class:

A - 6.2

B - 6.1

C - 6.3

D - 5.2

A

B - 6.1

36
Q

Pepper spray is considered an irritant. Which of the following is not a symptom of irritant exposure?

A - Excessive tearing

B - Difficulty swallowing

C - Chest tightness

D - Fluid in lungs

A

D - Fluid in lungs

37
Q

The concentration that should never be exceeded is called:

A - TLV-C

B - PEL

C - TLV-TWA

D - STEL

A

A - TLV-C

38
Q

The measurement commonly used by OSHA in evaluating workplace exposure during an 8 - hour period is:

A - PEL

B - LC

C - TLV-C

D - STEL

A

A - PEL

39
Q

Which of the following resources are available for determining the concentrations of a released HM in an endangered area?

A - Concentrations can be estimated using the ERG

B - Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that HMs technicians are needed to operate this equipment.

C - It is impossible to determine concentrations of HMs

D - Concentrations can be estimated by the odor of the leaking product.

A

B - Monitoring equipment should be utilized, keeping in mind that HMs technicians are needed to operate this equipment.

40
Q

Read the following statements regarding remote shutoffs, then select your answer from A - D below

  1. Remote shutoffs are usually well marked and in an easy-to-find location.
  2. Remote shutoffs in fixed facilities are typically located near the entrance.
  3. On vehicles, the two most common locations for remote shutoffs are at the valve controls and behind the driver’s door.

A - Only statement 1 is correct

B - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

C - Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

D - All three statements are correct

A

D - All three statements are correct

41
Q

Which of the following is not an appropriate procedure or consideration before applying foam?

A - Ensure the material is contained

B - The use of foam is limited to combustible liquids.

C - Ensure that foam will not cause any further problems.

D - Ensure that the foam is compatible with the spilled material.

A

B - The use of foam is limited to combustible liquids.

42
Q

Defensive control techniques that operations level personnel are permitted to engage in are

A - monitoring and capping

B - Diking, damming, diversion, ad retention

C - overpacking and diluting

D - clamping and neutralizing

A

B - Diking, damming, diversion, ad retention

43
Q

A process by which a hazardous-liquid flow is redirected away from an area is called:

A - absorption

B - dispersion

C - diversion

D - retention

A

C - diversion

44
Q

Read the following statements regarding vapor dispersion, then select your answer from below.

  1. Vapor dispersion involves using water spray or fans to intnetionally move vapors away from certain areas.
  2. Vapor dispersion is always a good idea when flammable substances are the problem.
  3. Vapor dispersion is only effective with materials that are water soluble.

A - All three sttements are correct

B - Only statement 1 is correct

C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

D - Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

A

B - Only statement 1 is correct

45
Q

Diversion, diking, and retention are all techniques used in:

A - confinement

B - containment

C - neutralization

D - disposal

A

A - confinement

46
Q

Actions taken to confine a product release to a limited area, performed remotely are considered to be:

A - offensive strategies

B - poor strategies

C - defensive strategies

D - unacceptable actions

A

C - defensive strategies

47
Q

The zone where contamination has occurred or has the potential to occur,which requires established entry and exit control points, is known as the _______ zone.

A - warm / contamination reduction

B - safety

C - hot / exclusion

D - Cold / Support

A

C - hot / exclusion

48
Q

Read the following statements regarding HMs incident control zones, then select your anwer from below

  1. The hot zone is the area immediately around the release.
  2. The warm zone includes the decontamination area
  3. The command post is located in teh warm zone.

A - All three statements are correct

B - Only statement 1 is correct

C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

D - Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

A

C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

49
Q

In level 1 incidents, the resonse team should be able to deal with:

A - LPG leaking from full 1000 pound tanks

B - ruptures of hig-pressure gas lines

C - spills requiring evacuation

D - a natrual gas leak in an ocupancy

A

D - a natrual gas leak in an ocupancy

50
Q

The safety officer notices a critical emergency conition at an incident. The safety officer should.

A - Intervene in the unsafe action

B - discipline the offenders

C - take over the incident commaner’s position

D - consult with on-scene personnel

A

A - Intervene in the unsafe action

51
Q

Which of the following tasks at a HMs incident is/are provided by logistics?

A - Providing information to the media

B - Coordinating interaction between law enforcement personnel and emergency response operations.

C - Monitoring the incident and personnel, while assuring compliance with safety procedures.

D - Securing facilities, services, and equipment.

A

D - Securing facilities, services, and equipment.

52
Q

The person who advises the incident commander of existing or potentially unsafe conditions, monitoring conditions of personnel, and compliance with standard operating procedures is the:

A - operations officer

B - Safety officer

C - recon officer

D - team leader

A

B - Safety officer

53
Q

At the HMs emergency, the Operations section is resonsible for:

A - establishing incident objectives

B - controlling and overseeing equipment and personnel inventories.

C - controlling the tactical portion of the incident

D - cooridnating all medical and health concerns at the incident

A

C - controlling the tactical portion of the incident

54
Q

“The individual responsible for establishing and managing the overall plan, developing an organizational structure, and allocating resources,” best describes the:

A - safety officer

B - Incident commander

C - Operations Section Chief

D - decontamination officer

A

B - Incident commander

55
Q

The first step and most important thing to accomplish upon arrival at a HMs or sustpected HMs incident is:

A - identification of the spilled or released product.

B - victim recovery

C - notification of the hms resonse team

D - isolation of the area and prevention of entry.

A

D - isolation of the area and prevention of entry.

56
Q

When resonding to a potential HM incident, the safest way to approach the scene is to:

A - take the most direct route

B- approach from downwind as this will allow you to detect any odors from a greater distance.

C - approach from uphilland upwind, even if it requires a longer response time.

D - stage the vehicles downhill and upwind until the HM team arrives.

A

C - approach from uphilland upwind, even if it requires a longer response time.

57
Q

At a HMs incident which function area is responsible for adding a special techincal group to the basic incident command system (ICS).

A - Planning

B - Loistics

C - Command

D - Operations

A

D - Operations

58
Q

“Work uniforms that provide minimal protection,” best defines EPA Level _______ protection.

A - A

B - B

C - C

D - D

A

D - D

59
Q

The type of brathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygeen-deficient atmosphere is a / an:

A - supplied air respirator

B - rebreather equipment

C - air-purification respirator

D - SCBA

A

C - air-purification respirator

60
Q

Dizziness, headache,, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and decreased urine output are all signs of:

A - heat stroke

B - heat cramps

C - heat exhaustion

D - Both B and C are correct

A

C - heat exhaustion

61
Q

Read the following regarding excessiveheat dissorders, then select your answer.

  1. Heat exhaustion occurs because the body is unable to dissipate excessive heat and becomes overheated.
  2. Heat stroke results from the failure of the temperature - regulating capacity of the body
  3. both heat exhaustion and heat stroke are immediate life-threatening conditions

A - All three statements are correct

B - Only statement 1 is correct

C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

D - Only statements 2 and 3 are correct

A

C - Only statements 1 and 2 are correct

62
Q

The following limitations are indicative of what type of chemical vapor suit?

  1. SCBA is exposed to the atmosphere without protection
  2. Face-piece compatability may not be equivalent to suit compatibility
  3. The chemical compatibilitiy of betls, straps, and harnesses may not be know.

A - Level A

B - Level B

C - Level C

D - Level D

A

B - Level B

63
Q

The most critical parameter when selecting the appropriate level of chemical-protective equipment is:

A - flexibility

B - decontamination abilities

C - available sizes

D - chemical compatibilitiy

A

D - chemical compatibilitiy

64
Q

” The process by which a chemical enters a protective suit through openings in the garment,” best describes.

A - degradation

B - breathrough time

C - penetration

D - permeation

A

C - penetration

65
Q

The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical - protective clothing by a chemical action is called.

A - degreadation

B - Breathrough time

C - penetration

D - permeation

A

A - degreadation

66
Q

“The highest level of respiratory protection is neededbut lesser chemical protection is required for the skin” best describes EPA level _______ protection.

A - A

B - B

C - C

D - D

A

B - B

67
Q

“The chmical action involving hte movement of chemicals, on a molecular level, through intact materials,” best defines:

A - degradation

B - breakthrough time

C - penetration

D - permeation

A

D - permeation

68
Q

_______ is the flow of HM through zippers, pinholes, or other material imperfections found in chemical-protective clothing.

A - Degreadation

B - Penetration

C - Permeation

D - Diffusion

A

B - Penetration

69
Q

“The physical destruction or decomposition of chemical-protective clothing material due to exposure to chemicals, general use, or ambient conditions,” defines:

A - degradation

B - penetration

C - permeation

D - diffusion

A

A - degradation

70
Q

The type of breathing system that cannot be utilized in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere is:

A - a supplied-air respiratot

B - rebreather equipment

C - an air purification repirator

D - SCBA

A

C - an air purification repirator

71
Q

Self-contained breathing apparatus and supplied-air respirators are two types of:

A - rebreather equipment

B - air-purification devices

C - air-filtration devices

D - atmosphere supplied devices

A

D - atmosphere supplied devices

72
Q

The highest level of protection from hazardous chemicals provided by chemical protective clothing is:

A - LEVEL A

B - LEVEL B

C - LEVEL C

D - LEVEL D

A

A - LEVEL A

73
Q

When using air-purifying respirators, which of the following is not an operational component that should be considered prior to use?

A - The supplied air line cannot exceed 300 feet.

B - The appropriate cartridge / filter is selected prior to use

C - The concentration of the chemical is known

D - Ambient air must contain at least 19.5% of oxygen

A

A - The supplied air line cannot exceed 300 feet.

74
Q

Which of the following is not an operational consideration when using supplied-air respirators?

A - NIOSH certification limits the maximum hose length from the source to 300 feet

B - Use of airlines in an oxygen-deficient atmosphere requires a secondary emergency air supply.

C - The proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected.

D - The air line hose is vulnerable to physical damage, chemical contamination, and degradation.

A

C - The proper air filtering cartridge for the expected contaminants must be selected.

75
Q

An advantage of using a Level A with supplied-air respirators (type 3) chemical bapor suit is:

A - greater comfort and mobility because of the close-fitting cut.

B - a turnout coator limited use garment can be worn over the suit for additional protection.

C - Air cylinders can be removed or changed withoutopening the suit.

D - That it permits extended operations

A

D - That it permits extended operations

HAZMAT (13 decks)

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