GOM Ch. 1 - Operational Control Flashcards Preview

XOJET Captain Upgrade > GOM Ch. 1 - Operational Control > Flashcards

Flashcards in GOM Ch. 1 - Operational Control Deck (46)
Loading flashcards...
1

 

 

 

What is a form 600?

(1.12.4.a)

 

 

 

Aviation Safety Report (WBAT)

2

 

 

 

What restrictions apply to management flying?

(1.3.11.)

 

 

 

Must focus on flight tasking, not company business.

3

 

 

 

What is a form 502?

(1.12.2.f)

 

 

 

RTS Release

4

 

 

 

What happens when an aircraft is 45 minutes overdue?

(1.10.3.b)

 

The CP or DO will:

1. Initiate the Emergency Response Plan (ERP)

2. Notify the FSDO

3. Reference NTSB Part 830

5

 

 

 

When must SOC be immediately notified?

(1.3.1d)

1. Incidents or Accidents

2. Delay greater than 15 minutes

3. Flight that encountered weather of a nature or severity that is significant to other flight operations or any unforecasted weather conditions

4. Significant deviation from the planned route

5. Other information relating to the safety of flight

6

 

 

 

What is the definition of operational control?

(1.3.1.a)

 

 

 

The ability to initiate, conduct, or terminate a flight.

7

 

 

 

Who maintains broad responsibility for operational control?

(1.3.2.)

 

 

 

The certificate holder.

8

 

 

 

What is the minimum number of aircraft that have to be exclusively available for part 135 operations?

(1.3.5.)

 

 

 

One.

9

 

 

 

When must the DO, Chief Pilot, or their designee be immediately notified?

(1.3.1.d)

 

1. Safety Violation

2. Unscheduled Landings (Including return to field)

3. Aborted Takeoffs

4. Deviations from normal procedures

5. Inability of a flight crew member to perform normal duties

10

 

 

 

What is a level 2 release?

(1.3.1.a) (1.7.2.)

 

 

 

A crew self-release without passengers. Call SOC before fueling.

11

 

 

 

What is the definition of an aborted takeoff?

(1.3.1.d)

 

 

 

The aircraft is positioned onto a runway with the intent to takeoff, but instead vacates the runway for any reason other than the controller cancelling the clearance.

12

 

 

 

What are the restrictions that apply to handling aircraft wreckage?

(1.9.4.)

 

 

Wreckage and cargo may only be moved:

1. To remove persons injured or trapped

2. To protect the wreckage from further damage

3. To protect the public from injury

13

 

 

 

Which aircraft are the company allowed to use?

(1.3.4.)

 

 

 

Only those that are owned or leased by the certificate holder, and always in the company's custody.

14

 

 

 

What is a form 709?

(1.12.3.c)

 

 

 

Pilot Peer Evaluation

15

 

 

 

What is a form 130?

(1.12.2.d)

 

 

 

Discrepancy Log and Instructions

16

 

 

 

Who assumes the role of DO in the DO's absence? (1.3.1.c)

 

 

 

The Chief Pilot.

17

 

 

 

What is a form 108?

(1.12.2.b)

 

 

 

Aircraft Status Sheet

18

 

 

 

What is a form 106?

(1.12.2.a)

 

 

 

VOR Check

19

 

 

 

What is a level 1 release?

(1.3.1.a) (1.7.1.)

 

 

 

A crew self-release with passengers.

20

 

 

 

What is a form 757?

(1.12.3.g)

 

 

 

Wake Turbulence Report

21

 

 

 

What is a level 3 release?

(1.3.1.a) (1.7.3.)

 

A release requiring the ODO's approval. Some self-release conditions exist.

1. International

2. Class II Navigation

3. Contaminated runways

4. Special Airports

22

 

 

 

When does the FOM have operational control?

(1.5.e)

 

 

 

When appointed by the DO or CP.

23

 

 

 

What are the operating requirements for persons exercising operational control?

(1.6.)

1. Only authorized operations are conducted

2. Ensure only qualified crew members are assigned to flight tasking

3. Ensure all crew members are in compliance with duty, flight, and rest requirements

4. Designate a PIC and SIC for each flight

5. Ensure the assigned aircraft has been released by MXC

6. Remove unairworthy aircraft from service

7. When particular flight release conditions cannot be met, the flight is cancelled, delayed, or re-routed

8. The aircraft manufacturer's operational advisory information is treated as an operational limit and never exceeded.

9. Monitor the progress of each flight and be proactive about making changes to the flight when it cannot be completed as planned

10. Within 10 business days after a declared emergency, the FSDO is notified via certified mail

11. Receive annual training

24

 

 

 

Does the company use other business names (DBAs)? (1.3.6.)

 

 

 

No. Only names listed in the Operations Specification.

25

 

 

 

What restrictions apply to the PIC when exercising operational control?

(1.5.g)

 

 

1. May Level 3 self-release referencing the flow charts if applicable

2. Any safety of flight concerns immediately elevate operational control to the next level

26

 

 

 

What is a form 503?

(1.12.2.g)

 

 

 

Airworthiness Release

27

 

 

 

What is a form 756?

(1.12.3.f)

 

 

 

Altitude Deviation/TCAS Report

28

 

 

 

What is a level 4 release?

(1.3.1.a) (1.7.4.)

A release requiring DO, CPO, or ODO approval.

1. Part 91

2. Destination Airport Analysis Program (DAAP)

3. Ferry flights

4. High speed taxi checks

5. Maintenance check and confidence flights

6. Supplemental O2 required

7. RCAM 2

8. CSE Red

29

 

 

 

What situations require notification to the NTSB?

(1.9.)

1. Flight control malfunction

2. Inability of a required crew member to perform normal duties due to injury or illness

3. Failure of structural components in a turbine engine

4. In-flight fire

5. Aircraft collide in flight

6. Damage to property (other than aircraft) exceeding $25,000

7. In-flight failure of an electrical system resulting in the sustained use of an emergency bus

8. In-flight failure of a hydraulic system that results in sustained reliance on the sole remaining hydraulic system

9. Sustained loss of power produced by two or more engines

10. An evacuation of an aircraft in which an emergency egress system is used

11. An aircraft is overdue and is believed to have been involved in an accident

30

 

 

 

What requirements do crew members have to abide by?

(1.3.3.)

1. Must be direct employees

2. All flights will be carried out in accordance with all policies and procedures as outlined in this manual

3. Qualified, trained and checked per the FAA approved GTM for all aspects of the operation

4. Qualified to accept the specific flight assignment, considering flight and rest requirements, airspace qualification and the type of operation intended in the assignment

5. Specifically listed by name and airman certificate number on a list of pilots maintained by the company

6. ARG/US PROS or WYVERN WINGMAN where applicable

7. Not assigned to operate more than two aircraft types except when required for flight standard/safety certification with the approval of the DO or CPO