Food Hygiene

Question 1

The correct disposition of a bovine tuberculosis reactor without visible lesions of tuberculosis is to:

a. pass for cooking.
b. pass without restriction.
c. condemn the carcass and viscera.
d. condemn the viscera only.
e. allow use for pet, fur-bearer or fish food only.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The toxin of Clostridium botulinum can be removed from most foods by:

a. freezing.
b. boiling.
c. curing.
d. dehydrating.
e. emulsifying.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The safest product to use when fumigating refrigerated warehouses where low temperatures must be maintained to prevent food spoilage or loss during the fumigation is:

a. methyl bromide.
b. calcium cyanide.
c. carbon dioxide.
d. fumarin.
e. carbon monoxide.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Clostridium botulinum Type E has been demonstrated to have a particularly close association with:

a. pork and pork products.
b. cooked beef and gravy.
c. fish and fish products.
d. poultry and poultry products.
e. home canned vegetables.

Answer 4

C

Question 5

The value of salt as a meat curing agent has been demonstrated to be due to its:

a. bactericidal action.
b. drying properties.
c. inhibitory action.
d. enzyme system destruction.
e. ability to combine with proteins.

Answer 5

D

Question 6

The growth and toxin formation of Clostridium botulinum is effectively inhibited at a pH below:

a. 6.5
b. 6.0
c. 5.5
d. 5.0
e. 4.5

Answer 6

A

Question 7

The ionizing radiation used to preserve foods is:

a. cosmic rays.
b. alpha rays.
c. X-rays.
d. gamma rays.
e. beta rays.

Answer 7

D

Question 8

The three genera most frequently documented as causative agents of human bacterial origin food borne illness in the U.S. are:

a. Streptococcus, Bacillus, and Salmonella.
b. Salmonella, Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.
c. Staphylococcus, Campylobacter and Salmonella.
d. Shigella, Staphylococcus and Salmonella.
e. Staphylococcus, Salmonella and Bacillus.

Answer 8

C

Question 9

The microorganism frequently associated with human food borne illness that is capable of growth in salt concentrations as high as 10% is:

a. Staphylococcus aureus.
b. Vibrio parahemolyticus.
c. Bacillus cereus.
d. Clostridium botulinum.
e. Clostridium perfringens.

Answer 9

A

Question 10

Soybean isolated high protein fractions are:

a. restricted to use in animal feeds.
b. utilized solely as a meat analog.
c. frequently contaminated with Salmonella spp
d. relatively low in microbial population.
e. highly viscous and difficult to process.

Answer 10

D

Question 11

The most toxic substance in the following list is:

a. botulinus toxin.
b. parathion.
c. arsenic.
d. PBB.
e. PCB.

Answer 11

A

Question 12

The type of Clostridium botulinum associated with growth and toxin formation at lower temperatures is:

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
e. E.

Answer 12

E

Question 13

Food borne staphylococcal illness results from the ingestion of preformed:

a. enterotoxins.
b. exotoxins.
c. aflatoxins.
d. endotoxins.
e. alphatoxins.

Answer 13

A

Question 14

Food borne staphylococcal illness results from the ingestion of preformed:

a. enterotoxins.
b. exotoxins.
c. aflatoxins.
d. endotoxins.
e. alphatoxins.

Answer 14

A

Question 15

The micro flora that would likely predominate in a food product that has a pH of 3.5 and is held in an anaerobic condition is:

a. Clostridium perfringens Type D.
b. Pedicoccus cereviscae
c. Salmonella pullorum.
d. Vibrio parahemolyticus.
e. Staphylococcus aureus.

Answer 15

B

Question 16

A change in product content or manufacturing process that may inhibit nitrosamine formation in cured meat products is to:

a. increase erythrorbate or ascorbate levels in the finished product .
b. reduce ingoing nitrite level to 170 ppm.
c. increase nitrate levels in the curing solution.
d. use spice-nitrate premixes.
e. stabilize the residual nitrite maximum level to 200 pp, in finished product.

Answer 16

A

Question 17

A factor that does NOT affect the diffusion rate of curing ingredients into meat products is the:

a. pigmentation of the tissue.
b. method of application.
c. size of the piece.
d. amount of fat covering.
e. temperature of the curing solution.

Answer 17

A

Question 18

Ultraviolet light utilized in food processing plants is most effective against:

a. bacterial spores.
b. yeasts.
c. sub-surface bacteria.
d. surface or airborne bacteria.
e. molds.

Answer 18

D

Question 19

The pH of muscle tissue may NOT be lowered by:

a. fermentation.
b. addition of acidic compounds.
c. addition of Na and PO4.
d. cooking.
e. pickling.

Answer 19

D

Question 20

A test that may NOT be used to assess the stability or rancidity of fats is the:

a. Kjedahl.
b. active O2.
c. thiobarbituric acid.
d. peroxide value.
e. carbonyl.

Answer 20

C

Question 21

The factor(s) commonly associated with discoloration of canned meat products are:

a. formation of iron sulfate.
b. excessive amounts of nitrate.
c. presence of tannins.
d. action of certain molds.
e. All of the above.

Answer 21

E

Question 22

A highly significant factor in food borne disease outbreaks in the U.S. today is:

a. infected food handlers.
b. inadequate refrigeration.
c. inadequate cooking.
d. unsanitary utensils.
e. insect and rodent contamination.

Answer 22

C

Question 23

The dairy product in which you would be most likely to enumerate Staphyloccus aureus is:

a. pasteurized fluid milk.
b. nonfat dry milk.
c. raw milk.
d. yogurt.
e. ice cream.

Answer 23

C

Question 24

The toxicity indicated by basophilic stippling of erythrocytes and increased urine aminolevulinic acid levels is:

a. NO3.
b. Hg
c. As.
d. Pb.
e. Sn.

Answer 24

D

Question 25

The scientific apparatus that has the capability of confirming the presence of a drug residue in the tissue of food animals with a 99.9% accuracy is the:

a. recording spectrophotometer.
b. high pressure liquid chromatograph.
c. high speed ultra centrifuge.
d. gas chromatograph.
e. mass spectrometer.

Answer 25

E

Question 26

The pasteurization temperature/times established by the USPHS milk ordinance and code are keyed to the conditions necessary to destroy the organisms of:

a. Coxiella burnetti.
b. Foot and Mouth Disease.
c. Clostridium botulinum.
d. Toxoplasmosis.
e. Escherichia coli.

Answer 26

A

Question 27

A friend who dined at a seafood restaurant three hours ago calls to describe experiencing a strange tingling and numbness of the lips, tongue, and fingertips. These symptoms suggest an etiological agent of:

a. scrombotoxin or cigautoxin.
b. tetrodotoxin or saxitoxin.
c. mullet toxicosis.
d. Clostridium botulinum Type E toxin.
e. oyster poisoning.

Answer 27

A

Question 28

The microorganism most resistant to destruction by ionizing radiation is:

a. PA 3679 spores.
b. Clostridium botulinum spores.
c. Salmonella spp.
d. Clostridium perfringens spores.
e. Bacillus anthracis spores.

Answer 28

B

Question 29

The vitamin most susceptible to damage during the ionizing radiation process of meat is:

a. thiamin.
b. riboflavin.
c. ascorbic acid.
d. calciferol.
e. niacin.

Answer 29

A

Question 30

Sour spots in cured ham often are the result of:

a. insufficient rapid cooling of the ham.
b. failure of the curing agent to penetrate all parts of the ham.
c. curing “stale” meat.
d. penetration of the product by molds before curing.
e. abnormal amounts of muscle pigment.

Answer 30

B

Question 31

The occurrence of coliform organisms in pasteurized milk indicates:

a. fecal contamination.
b. product unfit for human consumption.
c. post-pasteurization contamination.
d. likelihood of the product containing other pathogens.
e. All of the above.

Answer 31

C

Question 32

Freezing point determination of milk is useful to detect:

a. abnormally high bacterial count.
b. improper pasteurization.
c. adulteration with water.
d. presence of inhibitory substances.
e. None of the above.

Answer 32

C

Question 33

The USDA Food Safety and Inspection Service regulations have set cooking time and temperature data for beef roasts based on the:

a. destruction of vegetative cells of Clostridium perfringens.
b. destruction of salmonella.
c. time-temperature minimums ranging from 121 minutes at 130 degrees F. to instantly at 145 degrees F.
d. Both “a” and “b” above.
e. Both “b” and “c” above.

Answer 33

E

Question 34

Animals showing clinical evidence or parturient paresis on antemortem examination:

a. may be sold for any purpose whatever.
b. may be slaughtered as suspects.
c. may be passed, if temperature does not exceed 103 degrees F.
d. may be held for treatment under supervision and slaughtered on recovery.
e. must be condemned.

Answer 34

D

Question 35

When a fixed sterilization temperature is employed in food processing, which one of the following statements regarding initial contamination with the same organism is generally correct?

a. The greater the initial contamination, the shorter the time necessary to kill all organisms.
b. The length of exposure is of no significance in the processing procedure.
c. The greater the initial contamination, the longer the time necessary to kill all organisms.
d. The smaller the initial contamination, the longer the time necessary to kill all organisms.
e. The organisms will all be destroyed instantly at the suitable time interval, regardless of the initial number of organisms.

Answer 35

C

Question 36

Seafood consumption has been documented to be a source of the following disease of man:

a. cholera and typhoid.
b. schistosomiasis and mycoplasmosis.
c. toxoplasmosis and mycotoxicosis.
d. tuberculosis and anthracosis.
e. anthrax and tetanus.

Answer 36

A

Question 37

A positive phosphatase test on ice cream could indicate:

a. improper pasteurization.
b. high bacterial count.
c. reactivated phosphatase.
d. false-positive test caused by ingredients.
e. All of the above.

Answer 37

E

Question 38

On postmortem inspection, the carcass of an 18-month-old Hereford steer is found to have an enlarged right shoulder and upper leg. There is no sign of an external injury. On cutting into the area it is found to be filled with gaseous-edematous, sour spelling exudate. The lymph nodes of the area are enlarged. The other legs are all normal. The spleen is 1-1/2 times its normal size. Under U.S. Department of Agriculture regulations, the disposition would be to condemn the:

a. forequarters and pass the rear quarters without restriction.
b. affected quarter and pass the remainder of the carcass without restriction.
c. entire carcass.
d. affected quarter and pass the remainder for refrigeration.
e. affected quarter and pass the remainder for cooking.

Answer 38

C

Question 39

A fungal disease often confused with Tuberculosis and Actinobacillosis on postmortem is:

a. mucormycosis.
b. paratuberculosis.
c. coccidiomycosis.
d. caseous lymphadenitis.
e. cysticercosis.

Answer 39

C

Question 40

The main purpose of deep seal flowing traps that are installed at each point where liquid waste enters a disposal system is to:

a. seal off the disposal system so that odors from it cannot enter the plant.
b. seal off the disposal system so rodents and insects in the sewer system cannot enter the plant.
c. prevent physical blockage of the disposal system.
d. reduce the expense involved in constructing dual disposal systems.
e. prevent the entry of liquid wastes into potable water supplies.

Answer 40

A

Question 41

The source of potential food supply contamination currently considered being of most critical importance:

a. industrial pollution.
b. untreated sewage.
c. insecticide misuse.
d. antibiotic misuse.
e. feedlot drainage.

Answer 41

A

Question 42

In the irradiation process of canned, noncured meats, the least physical change (color, odor, taste is accomplished by irradiating the product:

a. below 0 degrees F.
b. between 0 and 32 degrees F.
c. between 32 and 100 degrees F.
d. between 100 and 212 degrees F.
e. at retort temperature.

Answer 42

A

Question 43

Properly glazed eviscerated fish may be satisfactorily freezer-stored up to a maximum time of:

a. 1 week.
b. 1 month.
c. 6 months.
d. 1 year.
e. 2 years.

Answer 43

C

Question 44

Of the following methods of storing cleaned water glasses, the one least likely to expose them to contamination is to store them:

a. upright on a clean noncorrodible shelf or rack.
b. inverted on a shelf or rack covered with a clean cloth.
c. inverted on a noncorrodible tray in the dishwashing area.
d. inverted on a clean noncorrodible rack or tray.
e. stacked one glass in another.

Answer 44

D

Question 45

When potable water is discharged into any reservoir, air gaps are essential to:

a. provide additional oxygen.
b. prevent backsiphonage.
c. keep an even flow of water.
d. aid in collecting condensates.
e. maintain pressure.

Answer 45

B

Question 46

Thin-layer chromatography is a laboratory procedure used to:

a. determine if milk has been properly pasteurized.
b. identify individual species of salmonella.
c. separate chemical residues extracted from foods.
d. identify Clostridium botulinum toxin.
e. identify the species origin of meat.

Answer 46

C

Question 47

Grade A milk that consistently shows bacteria counts in excess of the legally acceptable maximum should be:

a. rerouted to another area of the state.
b. condemned at the point of production.
c. degraded for use in manufactured milk products.
d. pasteurized to reduce the bacteria count below the legal maximum.
e. clarified.

Answer 47

C

Question 48

The most important single protective measure for food handlers to follow is to:

a. keep the hands scrupulously clean while handling food.
b. have a semiannual nose, dental and throat examination.
c. have a complete medical examination every three months.
d. wear caps while preparing food.
e. refuse to touch food when their hands are cut or scratched.

Answer 48

A

Question 49

Which of the following is NOT an example of a cooked, smoked sausage?

a. Bologna.
b. Mortadella.
c. Frankfurter.
d. Knackwurst.
e. Mettwurst.

Answer 49

E

Question 50

Of the following methods of incorporating cure ingredients into meat, which would ordinarily be used only on country cure hams and bacon?

a. Artery pumping.
b. Brine immersion.
c. Multiple injection.
d. Dry cure.
e. Stitch pumping.

Answer 50

D

Question 51

Which of the following is NOT a factor of the extent to which fat is incorporated into a stable emulsion?

a. pH.
b. Fat particle size.
c. Amount and type of soluble protein.
d. Amount of emulsion.
e. Emulsion viscosity.

Answer 51

D

Question 52

An example of a stromal protein is:

a. troponin.
b. hemoglobin.
c. actin.
d. flavoprotein.
e. reticulin.

Answer 52

E

Question 53

Which of the following is a proven essential trace element in the animal body?

a. Selenium.
b. Strontium.
c. Nickel.
d. Fluorine.
e. Lithium.

Answer 53

A

Question 54

In the normal, healthy animal, which of the following body sites is the last to accumulate fat?

a. Beneath the skin.
b. Around the kidneys.
c. Between the muscles.
d. Around the viscera.
e. Between the muscle fibers.

Answer 54

E

Question 55

Which of the following is NOT an intermediate or end product of aerobic metabolism?

a. Water.
b. Carbon dioxide.
c. Pyruvic acid.
d. Hydrogen.
e. Lactic acid.

Answer 55

E

Question 56

Which of the following is NOT a result of exsanguination?

a. Peripheral blood vessels expand.
b. Energy is produced anaerobically.
c. Lactic acid accumulates.
d. The pH in the muscle is lowered.
e. Muscle temperature rises.

Answer 56

A

Question 57

What brings about the completion of rigor mortis.

a. Exsanguination.
b. Depletion of creatinine phosphate.
c. Depletion of glycogen.
d. Degradation of the z-line structure.
e. Lactic acid accumulation.

Answer 57

B

Question 58

The pH at which the number of positively and negatively charged groups in muscle protein are equal is called the:

a. isoelectric point.
b. net charge effect.
c. steric effect.
d. repulsion level.
e. reduction level.

Answer 58

A

Question 59

Which of the following species would ordinarily have the highest myoglobin content in the muscles?

a. Pork.
b. Poultry.
c. Veal.
d. Fish.
e. Lamb.

Answer 59

E

Question 60

Which of the following is NOT true of the blast freezing process?

a. Temperature range from -10 to -30 C.
b. More severe freezer burn in unpackaged product.
c. Air is the medium of heat transfer.
d. Freezing time faster than plate freezer.
e. Common air velocity of 760 mpm.

Answer 60

A

Question 61

Which carcasses are ordinarily exposed to the most microbial contamination during fabrication?

a. Poultry.
b. Beef.
c. Lamb.
d. Pork.
e. Veal.

Answer 61

A

Question 62

Which of the following is most indicative of anaerobic spoilage in meat?

a. Gray color.
b. Souring.
c. Slime formation.
d. Sticky meat surface.
e. Growth of powdery colonies.

Answer 62

B

Question 63

Which of the following properties is NOT characteristic of yeasts?

a. Divide by budding.
b. Creamy white in color.
c. Slimy in appearance.
d. Multicellular.

Answer 63

E

Question 64

The large scale hydrolysis of fats in meat as it degenerates can produce a flavor best described as:

a. sulfuric.
b. ammoniacal.
c. tallowy.
d. creamy.
e. sour.

Answer 64

C

Question 65

Which of the following meats is the most likely to harbor the Clostridium botulinum organism?

a. Beef.
b. Fish.
c. Swine.
d. Poultry.
e. Equine.

Answer 65

B

Question 66

In which of the following would you normally find the fewest Clostridium perfringens organisms?

a. Processed beef.
b. Fresh poultry.
c. Sliced luncheon meats.
d. Fresh beef.
e. Fresh fish.

Answer 66

C

Question 67

If the source of a food-related illness was determined to be potato salad, which of the following would be the most likely cause?

a. Clostridium perfringens food poisoning.
b. Staphylococcal food poisoning.
c. Salmonellosis.
d. Botulism.
e. Streptococcus faecalis food poisoning.

Answer 67

B

Question 68

Which of the following forms of meat would normally carry the greatest microbial load?

a. Comminuted.
b. Wholesale cut.
c. Carcass.
d. Retail cut.
e. No difference - all carry similar loads.

Answer 68

A

Question 69

Meat from what animal receives an inspection brand in green ink?

a. Horse.
b. Goat.
c. Rabbit.
d. Sheep.
e. Catalo.

Answer 69

A

Question 70

When it is necessary for humane reasons to slaughter an injured animal at a time when an inspector cannot be obtained the animal:

a. can be slaughtered and inspected later if the head and all viscera except the stomach, bladder, and intestines are held by natural attachment.
b. must be sacrificed.
c. can be slaughtered and examined and used for food if the appropriate inspection activity is notified at the earliest possible time.
d. can be slaughtered and used for food without being inspected, as the USDA meat and poultry inspection regulations provide for extenuating situations.
e. can be slaughtered and used for food without being inspected if it is frozen at less than 15 degrees F. for not less than 10 days.

Answer 70

A

Question 71

The expression equal to 72 parts per million is:

a. 0.072 mg/kg.
b. 7.2 ug/100ml.
c. 7.2 ug/mg.
d. 7.2 lb/ton.
e. 72.0 mg/kg.

Answer 71

E

Question 72

Precooked prepared roast beef sandwiches have been incriminated as the food item responsible for multiple outbreaks of salmonellosis probably because:

a. heat applied during cooking was inadequate to destroy Salmonella spp. contaminating the raw meat.
b. cooling of product after cooking was inadequate to prevent the multiplication of airborne Salmonella spp.
c. Salmonella spp. form heat-resistant spores that germinate and multiply at low temperatures.
d. Avian, rodent, and insect contamination of precooked roast beef occurred after cooking.
e. None of the above.

Answer 72

A

Question 73

Strontium-90 and Iodine-131 from nuclear weapons fallout are an especially important public health problem primarily for man because they:

a. may be inhaled in fine particulates from the fallout cloud.
b. may cause radiation burns on exposed skin.
c. have long biological half-lives and concentrate in critical radiosensitive organs.
d. may be ingested in large amounts by consumption of dairy products and foods of plant origin.
e. accumulate in the thyroid gland.

Answer 73

D

Question 74

The chief bacteriostatic substance in wood smoke is:

a. acetic acid.
b. benzoic acid.
c. lactic acid.
d. formaldehyde.
e. methanol.

Answer 74

D

Question 75

A swine carcass showing no evidence of systemic changes, but with arthritis of both carpal and both tarsal joints must be:

a. passed for human food after removal and condemnation of all affected parts.
b. passed for animal food only, after removal and condemnation of all affected parts.
c. passed for cooking only, after removal and condemnation of all affected parts.
d. passed for human food only, after the carcass is boned out and all bones and joints are condemned.
e. condemned for polyarthritis.

Answer 75

A

Question 76

Nitrite in bacon is a current public health concern because:

a. the nitrite maintains a fresh red meat color even when bacon has actually deteriorated from overage or mishandling.
b. the proposed ban of nitrite would eliminate its proven bacteriostatic and toxin- inhibiting effects.
c. nitrites form carcinogens by reacting hydroperoxides from unsaturated fatty acids during cooking.
d. of the lack of effective chemical inhibitors to the formation of nitrosamines from nitrates.
e. All of the above.

Answer 76

B

Question 77

Which of the following statements concerning epithelioma of the bovine eye is correct?

a. Metastasis from the eye to the corresponding parotid lymph node requires condemnation of the carcass.
b. The eye and its corresponding parotid lymph node may be involved without carcass condemnation.
c. It the osseous structure of the head is affected with necrosis, the carcass would not be condemned unless there is evidence of metastasis to the internal organs.
d. Neoplasm is classified as a squamous cell carcinoma.
e. Never requires antemortem inspection of the animal.

Answer 77

A

Question 78

The lesions of Tuberculosis, Coccidioimycosis, Phygomycosis, Actinobacillosis and Actinomycosis can:

a. easily be differentiated by gross examination.
b. easily be differentiated by microscopic examination.
c. be differentiated only if the causative agent is positively identified.
d. easily be differentiated from neoplasms by gross examination.
e. occur only in the thoracic cavity of cattle.

Answer 78

C

Question 79

When chlorine is used as a sanitizing agent for utensils, its bactericidal effect is reduced if:

a. the chlorine solution is permitted to have an acid reaction.
b. the solution is made up on an “available” instead of a “total” chlorine basis.
c. more chlorine is used in the solution than the directions call for.
d. food residues are present.
e. the chlorine solution is used in tepid water.

Answer 79

D

Question 80

Gram negative bacteria that are rod shaped and ferment lactose with the production of acid and gas when incubated at 37 degrees C. for 48 hours could best be described as:

a. food poisoning bacteria.
b. coliform organisms.
c. salmonellae.
d. enteropathogenic streptococci.
e. IMVIC negative bacteria.

Answer 80

B

Question 81

Group D Streptococci are considered to be a better index for evaluating food wholesomeness than coliform bacteria because they:

a. are considered to be more accurate indicators if fecal contamination.
b. are more resistant to freezing, heating, and desiccation.
c. have been more commonly associated with food borne disease.
d. Both A and B above.
e. All of the above.

Answer 81

D

Question 82

The type of Clostridium botulinum most commonly associated with seafood products is:

a. A.
b. B.
c. C.
d. D.
e. E.

Answer 82

E

Question 83

Commingled milk has a tolerance of parts per million of penicillin.

a. 1.0
b. 0.1
c. .01
d. 0
e. 2

Answer 83

D

Question 84

Death from poisoning with botulinum toxin is usually due to:

a. respiratory paralysis causing asphyxia or from secondary bronchopneumonia.
b. dehydration of the patient as a result of dysphagia.
c. direct action of the toxin on cardiac musculature.
d. high blood pressure as a result of extreme cardiac stimulation.
e. secondary bacterial infection of the patient.

Answer 84

A

Question 85

The two most important factors affecting the growth of meat spoilage microorganisms are:

a. temperature and moisture.
b. moisture and pH.
c. osmotic pressure and pH.
d. temperature and oxygen concentration.
e. salt concentration and moisture.

Answer 85

A

Question 86

The microorganism most likely to cause clinical disease in porcine slaughter personnel is:

a. Erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae.
b. Clostridium perfringens.
c. Staphylococcus aureus.
d. Streptococcus faecalis.
e. Brucella abortus

Answer 86

A

Question 87

The following can be said about irradiation of foods:

a. High-dose irradiation of perishable food products can eliminate the requirement for refrigeration.
b. Irradiation of foods causes chemical changes in foods that prevent the multiplication of microorganisms.
c. Irradiation of foods is ineffective in destroying pathogenic microorganisms unless the irradiation is done at less than 40 degrees C.
d. Irradiation of food is done only under emergency conditions to control food borne disease outbreaks.
e. None of the above.

Answer 87

A

Question 88

An investigation of an outbreak of food borne illness reveals the average interval between the consumption of food and onset of illness to be three hours. Which of the following might be suspected?

a. Staphylococcal food poisoning.
b. Sodium fluoride food poisoning.
c. Shigellosis.
d. Salmonellosis.
e. Botulism.

Answer 88

A

Question 89

The greenish color associated with certain meat items may be caused by:

a. microbial deterioration.
b. chemical deterioration of myoglobin.
c. the addition of sodium bisulfite.
d. A and B above.
e. None of the above.

Answer 89

D

Question 90

The food borne disease that has been directly attributed to the consumption of raw mollusks is:

a. staphylococcal food poisoning.
b. typhoid fever.
c. tuberculosis.
d. anthrax.
e. trichinosis.

Answer 90

B

Question 91

During the pasteurization process, the principal milk constituent lost is:

a. calcium.
b. phosphorus.
c. fat soluble vitamin A.
d. fat soluble vitamin D.
e. water soluble vitamin C.

Answer 91

D

Question 92

Is it advisable to use residual type fogging insect sprays inside a food service establishment to kill flies?

a. Yes, if used after closing and food is covered.
b. No, because they are not effective.
c. No, because food contact surfaces may become contaminated.
d. Yes, as long as the fogging apparatus is approved by the EPA and used according to directions.
e. Yes, but only during non-operating periods.

Answer 92

E

Question 93

“Ham sours” are generally believed to be caused by:

a. too much acid in the cure.
b. putrefactive anaerobes.
c. arthritis and bone disease.
d. incorrect nitrite-sugar ratio.
e. artery pumping of the pickle solution.

Answer 93

B

Question 94

The quantity of chlorine required for effective bacteria reduction is determined by the:

a. hardness of the water.
b. chlorine demand.
c. sulfur content.
d. biological oxygen demand.
e. turbidity.

Answer 94

B

Question 95

Federal meat inspection regulations require water used to sanitize equipment and utensils contaminated with diseased material to be heated to a minimum temperature of degrees F.

a. 180
b. 160
c. 170
d. 190
e. 185

Answer 95

A

Question 96

In accordance with the requirements of the Milk Ordinance and Code recommended by the Food and Drug Administration, U.S. Department of Health and Human Services, any producer or distributor of milk or milk products upon whose dairy farm or in whose milk plant any infectious conditions or communicable diseases occur shall:

a. withhold the milk and milk products from sale.
b. label all milk Grade B.
c. bottle the milk to be distributed at another dairy.
d. pasteurize all the milk.
e. notify the health officer immediately.

Answer 96

E

Question 97

The primary reason that regulatory authorities are recommending elimination of nitrites in meat food products is because evidence indicates that nitrites:

a. react with reduced-state secondary amines to form carcinogenic nitrosamines.
b. impart a false red coloration to cured meat products.
c. reduce flavor even when added at low levels.
d. promote the growth and toxin formation of Clostridium botulinum.
e. lengthen required processing times by reducing certain flavor and smoke reactions.

Answer 97

A