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Fire & Emergency Services Company Officer 4th Edition > Fire Officer I Final Exam > Flashcards

Fire Officer I Final Exam Flashcards

0
Q

As a supervisor, a company officer must: (14)

A. provide leadership
B. negotiate contracts and grievances
C. refrain from giving advice to subordinates
D. refrain from getting involved in personal issues

A

A. provide leadership

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1
Q

Which of the following is NOT a challenge a new company officer will encounter? (16)

A. Group dynamics
B. Concept changes
C. Perception changes
D. Relationship changes

A

B. Concept changes

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2
Q

A company officer’s responsibility to ___ includes providing ethical leadership and fair and just supervision. (22)

A. family
B. the public
C. subordinates
D. the organization

A

C. subordinates

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3
Q

Which of the following is an example of a leadership trait? (33)

A. Sense of priority
B. Living in the past
C. Ability to take orders
D. Desire for personal success

A

A. Sense of priority

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4
Q

Which of the following theories is represented by a four-quadrant chart that compares the degree of the job structure to the degree of employee consideration? (34-35)

A. Transactional leadership style
B. Charismatic leadership style
C. Contingency leadership theory
D. Two-dimensional leadership style

A

D. Two dimensional leadership style

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5
Q

Which leadership theory explains that leadership ability should not be judged by personal traits alone but by the results those traits have on the success of the organization? (38-39)

A. Path-goal theory
B. Leadership-continuum theory
C. Achievement-oriented theory
D. Results-based leadership theory

A

D. Results-based leadership theory

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6
Q

Getting a raise or bonus is an example of which type of power? (48)

A. Expert
B. Reward
C. Coercive
D. Identification

A

B. Reward

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7
Q

To create a command presence, what is the first step a leader should take? (50)

A. Know what the situation is.
B. Listen to all points of view
C. Know what resources are available
D. Know the strategy and tactics required to resolve the situation.

A

A. Know what the situation is.

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8
Q

Priorities are based primarily on the: (56)

A. mission statement of the organization
B. organizational duties of the personnel
C. goals and objectives of the organization
D. emergency response plans of the organization

A

A. mission statement of the organization

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9
Q

Groupings of people with the common purpose of completing specific objectives within the organization are known as: (60)

A. units
B. teams
C. groups
D. workgroups

A

D. workgroups

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10
Q

Which of the following is a formal process that involves activities that assist participants in identifying and resolving personal, behavioral, or career problems that are adversely affecting performance? (65)

A. Rewarding employees
B. Coaching employees
C. Counseling employees
D. Empowering employees

A

C. Counseling employees

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11
Q

Which of the following is the process of reaching a specific conclusion based on a general statement or principal? (75)

A. Causal reasoning
B. Inductive reasoning
C. Deductive reasoning
D. Analogical reasoning

A

C. Deductive reasoning

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12
Q

Which of the following tries to make the connection that everyone is doing something or believes something so that makes it the correct point of view or activity? (77)

A. Straw man
B. Bandwagon
C. Red herring
D. Non sequitur

A

B. Bandwagon

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13
Q

The primary source of an individual’s ethics is (are): (79)

A. peers
B. religion
C. society
D. the family

A

D. the family

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14
Q

When defining the problem, which type of problem requires more data to determine the specific problem? (87)

A. Generic problem
B. Rational problem
C. Alternative problem
D. Exceptional problem

A

A. Generic problem

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15
Q

Which of the following is a question a fire officer should ask to determine if a decision is ethical? (92)

A. Is the decision based on facts?
B. Will the decision benefit the organization?
C. Will the decision benefit the company officer?
D. Is the decision based on ethical values held by the company officer?

A

A. Is the decision based on facts?

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16
Q

Which type of law is based on tradition, custom, usage, and decisions of the judicial courts within a particular country, society, or culture? (100)

A. Common law
B. Statutory law
C. Napoleonic law
D. Administrative law

A

A. Common law

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17
Q

These laws are created by government agencies and are used to enforce and implement statutory law. (100)

A. Common laws
B. Statutory laws
C. Procedural laws
D. Administrative laws

A

D. Administrative laws

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18
Q

Laws regarding ___ are intended to protect members of society from acts that would place their lives and/or property in serious jeopardy. (102)

A. tort liability
B. criminal liability
C. personal liability
D. negligence liability

A

B. criminal liability

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19
Q

Title VII of the ___ eliminated discrimination on the basis of race, color, national origin, religion, and sex (gender). (108)

A. Civil Rights Act
B. Affirmative action
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
D. Americans with Disabilities Act

A

A. Civil Rights Act

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20
Q

Which organization is a private, nonprofit, organization that administers and coordinates the voluntary standardization and conformity assessment system? (116)

A. International Code Council
B. U.S. Department of Defense
C. Underwriters’ Laboratories of Canada
D. American National Standards Institute

A

D. American National Standards Institute

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21
Q

Engaging in dual perspective means: (130)

A. avoiding abstract vernacular.
B. being aware of the receiver’s frame of reference.
C. blaming others for personal feelings and thoughts.
D. continuing a discussion while angry or emotional.

A

B. being aware of the receiver’s frame of reference.

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22
Q

Which of the following best describes kinesics? (131)

A. Body motion and position
B. Vowel sounds
C. Tones used to create the verbal message
D. Touch and proximity

A

A. Body motion and position

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23
Q

Which of the following statements is most accurate? (132)

A. Touch should be avoided in all communication.
B. Keeping hands in pants pockets conveys confidence.
C. Eye contact should be modified for cultural differences.
D. Facial expressions are not a significant nonverbal factor.

A

C. Eye contact should be modified for cultural differences

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24
Q

Which of the following methods is part of “remembering”? (135)

A. Reducing noise
B. Asking questions
C. Analyzing verbal cues
D. Repeating information

A

D. Repeating information

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25
Q

Good research skills involve: (146)

A. gaining the audience’s attention.
B. offering a solution to the situation.
C. analyzing data and applying data to the topic.
D. adapting presentation style and personal appearance to an audience.

A

C. analyzing data and applying data to the topic.

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26
Q

Making an appeal for change by providing the audience with the basic steps needed to accomplish change occurs in the ___ step of Monroe’s sequence. (147)

A. need
B. action
C. satisfaction
D. visualization

A

B. action

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27
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about dealing with the media? (152)

A. Be honest and forthright.
B. Use esoteric fire service terminology.
C. Media can be either a friend or an enemy.
D. Reporters only report statements made “on the record.”

A

B. Use esoteric fire service terminology.

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28
Q

When speaking to an unfamiliar audience, the speaker may need to: (154)

A. determine group values.
B. determine attitudes and beliefs.
C. conduct a formal analysis beforehand.
D. relate the topic to the needs and concerns of the audience.

A

C. conduct a formal analysis beforehand.

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29
Q

Which form of speech delivery works ofr short presentations, but should not be used for longer, more important speeches? (160)

A. Reading the text
B. Memorizing the text
C. Impromptu delivery
D. Extemporaneous delivery

A

B. Memorizing the text

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30
Q

Which of the following statements is a generally accepted writing guideline? (171)

A. Use superfluous details.
B. Write in a passive voice.
C. Use colloquial expressions.
D. Write in a conversational tone.

A

D. Write in a conversational tone.

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31
Q

What part of an email message assigns responsibility for the task or action? (173)

A. Who
B. Why
C. How
D. What

A

A. Who

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32
Q

What letter format part contains the company letterhead or return address? (176)

A. Body
B. Closing
C. Heading
D. Opening

A

C. Heading

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33
Q

Which of the following statements describes a narrative report? (180)

A. Designed to place specific information into spaces or fields
B. Considered legal documents that may be needed in the court of law
C. Used for incident reports, attendance reports, and fire investigation reports
D. Generated as part of a project or analysis and includes a brief review or executive summary

A

D. Generated as part of a project or analysis and includes a brief review or executive summary

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34
Q

Which of the following statements about proposals is LEAST accurate? (188)

A. Has specific schedule outline, and delivery dates
B. Prevents jurisdiction from controlling which companies can bid
C. Reduces number of bidders to those capable of meeting the bid specifications
D. Eliminates companies that lack established financial support to complete the contract

A

B. Prevents jurisdiction from controlling which companies can bid

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35
Q

Which customers are members of the political body who govern or influence the organization? (195)

A. Advocates
B. Stakeholders
C. Internal customers
D. External customers

A

B. Stakeholders

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36
Q

Which method of gathering information gives supervisors the opportunity to learn from employees whether changes are needed in the work environment? (199)

A. Surveys
B. Points of contact
C. Periodic meetings
D. Informal interviews

A

D. Informal interviews

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37
Q

Which type of budgeting requires all expenditures to be justified at the beginning of each budget cycle? (206)

A. Matrix budgeting
B. Program budgeting
C. Zero-based budgeting
D. Performance budgeting

A

C. Zero-based budgeting

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38
Q

A ___ is a levy based on the assessed value of property specified as millage and collected by the local government for a specified government purpose. (208)

A. fee
B. sales tax
C. personal income tax
D. special purpose levy tax

A

D. special purpose levy tax

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39
Q

In the ___ step of budget development, chief officers meet with personnel to review the budget and explain what it means to the organization’s operation. (214)

A. revising
B. evaluating
C. monitoring
D. implementing

A

D. implementing

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40
Q

Which of the following is among the most common emergency scene injuries to medical services personnel? (220)

A. Trauma
B. Back Injuries
C. Thermal Stress
D. Cuts and bruises

A

B. Back Injuries

41
Q

Volunteer firefighters who respond in privately owned vehicles should be provided all of the following EXCEPT: (225)

A. emergency lighting.
B. defensive driver training.
C. audible warning devices.
D. immunity for traffic tickets.

A

D. immunity for traffic tickets.

42
Q

How long must an organization maintain an employee’s exposure reports? (227)

A. 20 years after the exposure occurs
B. 20 years after the employee’s termination or retirement
C. 30 years after the employee’s termination or retirement
D. 30 years after the employee’s death

A

C. 30 years after the employee’s termination or retirement

43
Q

The primary purpose of accident investigations is to: (227)

A. reduce the potential for similar accidents.
B. determine who was to blame for the accident.
C. establish the monetary costs of the accident.
D. fulfill requirements for receiving government funding.

A

A. reduce the potential for similar accidents.

44
Q

Which of the following is basic to any exposure investigation? (230)

A. Avoiding legal responsibility
B. Determining who is to blame
C. Accurate and thorough documentation
D. Investigation immediately after the incident

A

C. Accurate and thorough documentation

45
Q

The ___ organization is a paramilitary, pyramid-type of organization with authority centralized at the top. (236)

A. span
B. scalar
C. unified
D. divided

A

B. scalar

46
Q

Which of the following is NOT a common purpose of the fire and emergency services organization? (244)

A. Rescuing animals in distress
B. Conducting fire and life-safety education programs to improve customer awareness
C. Establishing and maintaining agreements with public and private entities for coordinated responses and mutual aid
D. Preparing the organization and the community to react or respond to natural and human-caused disasters or emergencies

A

A. Rescuing animals in distress

47
Q

Which of the following is a common type of fire district? (248)

A. Tribal
B. State/Provincial
C. Industrial fire brigade
D. Voluntary fire association

A

D. Voluntary fire association

48
Q

Which of the following is the result of a reciprocal agreement between two or more fire and emergency services organizations? (255)

A. Mutual aid
B. Outside aid
C. Requested aid
D. Automatic aid

A

A. Mutual aid

49
Q

In ___, payment is made by one jurisdiction to another, rather than by reciprocal aid. (258)

A. mutual aid
B. outside aid
C. automatic aid
D. compensate aid

A

B. outside aid

50
Q

The purpose of the ___ step of the four-step method of instruction is to reinforce the student’s learning. (266)

A. evaluation
B. application
C. preparation
D. presentation

A

B. application

51
Q

Which of the following describe the level of performance that is required to perform a specific job? (266)

A. Standard learning parameters
B. Job performance requirements
C. Skills assessment requirements
D. Minimum knowledge standards

A

B. Job performance requirements

52
Q

When told to make a presentation without an existing lesson plan, the company officer can rely on all the following EXCEPT: (269)

A. experience
B. model lesson plan
C. feedback from students
D. assistance of the training division

A

C. feedback from students

53
Q

The ___ format allows interaction between the company officer (instructor) and students and among students. (272)

A. discussion
B. presentation
C. demonstration
D. practical training evolution

A

A. discussion

54
Q

When controlling an evolution, the ___ process involves observing the progress of the evolution to ensure that all lesson objectives are performed and accomplished. (280)

A. teaching
B. managing
C. monitoring
D. supervising

A

C. monitoring

55
Q

Results of ___ activities provide the background information for emergency incident planning. (288)

A. incident
B. emergency
C. pre-incident
D. post-incident

A

C. pre-incident

56
Q

How does a Fire Officer I usually perform an informal evaluation? (295)

A. Through a job skills assessment
B. Through a written questionnaire
C. Through the observation of subordinates’ daily activities
D. Informal evaluations fall solely to the Level II Fire Officer.

A

C. Through the observation of subordinates’ daily activities

57
Q

If the cause of an employee’s absence was a personal problem, the company officer should: (298)

A. terminate employment.
B. publicly reprimand the employee.
C. counsel personally with the employee.
D. refer the employee to the employee assistance program for counseling.

A

D. refer the employee to the employee assistance program for counseling.

58
Q

Someone who is ___ conflict is taking a nonassertive approach; they may deny that a problem exists. (301)

A. forcing
B. avoiding
C. negotiating
D. acommodating

A

B. avoiding

59
Q

In ___, the company officer will give the employee notice of possible sanctions. (307)

A. punitive action
B. corrective action
C. preventative action
D. punishment action

A

A. punitive action

60
Q

Which of the following made yellow dog contracts unenforceable by any U.S. court? (315)

A. New Deal
B. Taft-Hartley Act
C. Norris-La Guardia Act
D. National Industrial Recovery Act

A

C. Norris-La Guardia Act

61
Q

Which of the following was passed as a reaction to the revelation that widespread corruption was found in older local unions? (317)

A. New Deal
B. Landrum-Griffin Act
C. Fair Labor Standards Act
D. National Industrial Recovery Act

A

B. Landrum-Griffin Act

62
Q

Which of the following include areas regarding wages, salaries, and fringe benefits? (320-321)

A. Routine clauses
B. Sections that list the conditions of employment
C. Clauses describing the rights and prerogatives of management
D. Sections that describe how the department/organization will handle employee grievances

A

B. Sections that list the conditions of employment

63
Q

In ___, a third, neutral party talks with each side and discovers real issues and concerns that are stalling negotiations. (322)

A. strike
B. mediation
C. arbitration
D. fact-finding

A

B. mediation

64
Q

Which of the following is NOT a review step in the grievance process? (325-326)

A. Request grievance hearing
B. Request review by immediate supervisor
C. Request review by labor union’s legal counsel
D. Request review of decision by the chief of the organization

A

C. Request review by labor union’s legal counsel

65
Q

Communities are best served when: (331)

A. public fire and life-safety education programs are modified to meet the needs of each population group.
B. public fire and life-safety education programs are the same for each population group, creating uniformity.
C. public fire and life-safety education programs are presented sparingly, preventing community burnout.
D. public fire and life-safety education programs are presented by a local collage or university, rather than the public fire and life-safety organization.

A

A. public fire and life-safety education programs are modified to meet the needs of each population group.

66
Q

Which if the following is NOT a category into which education programs can be easily divided? (339)

A. How to save others in a fire emergency
B. How to prevent a fire or emergency from occurring
C. What to do in the event a fire or other emergency occurs
D. How to persuade others to use fire or life-safety behaviors

A

A. How to save others in a fire emergency

67
Q

News media programs: (341)

A. are not an effective means of communicating with the public.
B. cannot be aired on the local public-service cable television channel.
C. can be a very effective way to increase public awareness while enhancing an organizations image.
D. should be conducted by the company officer; subordinates do not have the experience necessary to present accurate information.

A

C. can be a very effective way to increase public awareness while enhancing an organizations image.

68
Q

What is the first skill required of company officers when dealing with irate customers? (348)

A. Patience
B. Effective listening
C. Empathetic attitude
D. Ability to solve the problem

A

B. Effective listening

69
Q

When can members of a fire and life-safety services organization provide classified information to the media? (352)

A. Never
B. Always
C. When they believe benefits outweigh the risks
D. When they have permission from the head of the organization

A

D. When they have permission from the head of the organization

70
Q

Which step in the information process involves determining whether to send reports to branches within the organization or to send them to the archives? (360)

A. Acquiring
B. Analyzing
C. Organizing
D. Distributing

A

D. Distributing

71
Q

Which step in the information process includes examining the department’s forms and narrative reports, along with site plans, local newspapers, and professional journals. (368)

A. Acquiring
B. Analyzing
C. Organizing
D. Distributing

A

A. Acquiring

72
Q

Which type of personnel records includes data concerning sick leave? (368)

A. Training
B. Exposure
C. Attendance
D. Performance

A

C. Attendance

73
Q

Which of the following hardware devices is a peripheral? (370)

A. Mouse
B. Keyboard
C. Scanner
D. Dumb terminal

A

C. Scanner

74
Q

Which of the following is a computer concern? (369)

A. Zip drives
B. Virus protection
C. Special interest groups
D. Hard copy cross-references

A

B. Virus protection

75
Q

Which of the following is NOT one of the four components of pre-incident planning? (379)

A. Evaluating code enforcement
B. Developing pre-incident plans
C. Conducting the pre-incident survey
D. Developing positive public relations relationships with building owners/occupants

A

A. Evaluating code enforcement

76
Q

Which type of roof is most likely to have parapets and dead loads such as water tanks or air-conditioning equipment? (385)

A. Flat
B. Arched
C. Pitched
D. Scuppered

A

A. Flat

77
Q

When should pre-incident surveys be scheduled? (391)

A. When normal activity is not underway
B. When the number of occupants is as low as possible
C. Soon after the building has had a code enforcement inspection
D. At times that are convenient for the building owners/occupants

A

D. At times that are convenient for the building owners/occupants

78
Q

What should be the main focus of an exterior survey? (394)

A. Code violations
B. Information for the plot plan
C. The occupancy’s entrances and exits
D. Public relations with the owner/occupant

A

B. Information for the plot plan

79
Q

Which type of drawing shows the number of floors in a building and the grade of the surrounding ground? (406)

A. Plot plan
B. Elevation
C. Floor plan
D. Landscape

A

B. Elevation

80
Q

FCC mandates require reallocating radio frequencies of ___ for public safety use. (414)

A. 700-800 MHz
B. 729-735 MHz and 749-750 MHz
C. 764-776 MHz and 794-806 MHz
D. 780-810 MHz

A

C. 764-776 MHz and 794-806 MHz

81
Q

The focal point for emergency scene communication is the: (415)

A. portable radio.
B. communications center.
C. incident command post.
D. apparatus on-board computer.

A

B. communications center.

82
Q

Standard operating procedures for communications should be defined by the organization’s: (425)

A. radio operators.
B. company officers.
C. training guidelines.
D. communications management policy.

A

D. communications management policy.

83
Q

Which of the following statements about radio communications is MOST accurate? (428)

A. Direct orders should be delivered face-to-face rather than by radio communications.
B. Radio communications should never be used to transmit confidential information.
C. Company officers are responsible for ensuring that their crews do not attempt to perform basic radio maintenance.
D. Field units should route all messages through the communications center rather than communicating directly with each other.

A

B. Radio communications should never be used to transmit confidential information.

84
Q

A good way to make communications clear is to: (429)

A. allow space between orders to different units.
B. issue orders for related tasks all at the same time.
C. use highly technical language and creative terminology.
D. issue orders well before operations are ready to be undertaken.

A

A. allow space between orders to different units

85
Q

When is the use of the National Incident Management System-Incident Command System required? (435-436)

A. At all incidents no matter how large or small
B. At all incidents that involve more than one company
C. At all incidents that involve more than one jurisdiction
D. At all incidents that involve more than one agency within a jurisdiction

A

A. At all incidents no matter how large or small

86
Q

The predesignated facility that houses equipment and personnel support functions is the: (443)

A. camp.
B. incident base.
C. incident command post.
D. mobilization/staging area.

A

B. incident base.

87
Q

Incident priorities in order of importance are: (445)

A. life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation.
B. life safety, property conservation, and incident stabilization.
C. incident stabilization, life safety, and property conservation.
D. incident stabilization, property conservation, and life safety.

A

A. life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation.

88
Q

When does scene size-up begin? (446)

A. When the alarm sounds
B. When the dispatcher receives the call
C. When pre-incident planning is conducted
D. When the first responding unit arrives on scene

A

A. When the alarm sounds

89
Q

The area where support functions such as hydraulic tool power plants and emergency lighting are performed is the: (452)

A. hot zone.
B. perimeter.
C. cold zone.
D. warm zone.

A

D. warm zone.

90
Q

The element of the Layman decision-making model that applies to the concept of resolving the problem at any emergency is: (464)

A. cessation.
B. resolution.
C. neutralizing.
D. extinguishment.

A

D. extinguishment.

91
Q

Which mode of command requires the company officer to perform multiple tasks including active tasks? (478)

A. Battle command
B. Combat command
C. Working command
D. Functional command

A

B. Combat command

92
Q

When conditions require transitional operational mode, the company officer should: (483)

A. have all units withdraw simultaneously.
B. temporarily suspend the personnel accountability system.
C. send the rapid intervention crew to assist withdrawing personnel.
D. maintain hose lines unless abandoning them is absolutely necessary.

A

D. maintain hose lines unless abandoning them is absolutely necessary.

93
Q

Which of the following Federal Aviation Administration emergency levels signifies that an aircraft is involved in an accident? (489)

A. Alert I
B. Alert II
C. Alert III
D. Alert IV

A

C. Alert III

94
Q

Which of the following statements regarding return to service is MOST accurate? (495)

A. Mutual aid units should be retained at the scene as long as possible.
B. The IC should release active-duty personnel and switch those who were off duty to active-duty status.
C. Once the IC returns a unit to service, it must leave the incident and may not remain in the staging area.
D. Units are returned to service when they have retrieved their equipment, are fully rehabilitated, and are no longer needed.

A

D. Units are returned to service when they have retrieved their equipment, are fully rehabilitated, and are no longer needed.

95
Q

Which of the following statements about a secure perimeter is LEAST accurate? (500)

A. It may be established by rope.
B. In non-fire emergencies, it may not be larger than for fire emergencies.
C. In the case of fire, it can be the same one used to define the hot zone during suppression.
D. It must be established within which only those responsible for determining the cause of the emergency are allowed.

A

B. In non-fire emergencies, it may not be larger than for fire emergencies.

96
Q

What is the objective of an interview? (502)

A. To gather information related to the incident
B. To promote a positive relationship with customers
C. To question an individual who is suspected of committing a crime
D. To question an individual who may be reluctant to answer an investigator’s questions

A

A. To gather information related to the incident

97
Q

Which of the following characteristics of an incident report includes describing details of the company’s involvement in an incident? (505)

A. Clarity
B. Factuality
C. Objectivity
D. Completeness

A

D. Completeness

98
Q

Which of the following occurs when all of the combustible materials in the compartment are involved in the fire? (508)

A. Decay
B. Ignition
C. Flashover
D. Fully developed fire

A

D. Fully developed fire

99
Q

Which of the following is a key to minimizing potential evidence contamination? (513)

A. Good scene security
B. Not allowing anyone to enter the scene
C. Interrogating all who are part of the chain of custody
D. Hosing down all equipment prior to allowing it to enter the scene.

A

A. Good scene security

Fire & Emergency Services Company Officer 4th Edition (1 decks)

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