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A&PII > FINAL EXAM > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM Flashcards

1
Q

Endocrine cells…

a. release their secretions directly into body fluids
b. release their secretions onto an epithelial surface or into an epithelial lined duct
c. are modified connective tissue cells
d. are a type of nerve cell
e. contain few vessels

A

a. release their secretions directly into body fluids

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2
Q

Hormones can operate on the _____ level of organization.

a. organismic
b. cellular
c. tissue
d. organ
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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3
Q

Hormones known as “catecholamines” are…

a. derivatives of amino acid tryptophan
b. steroid
c. derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine
d. lipids
e. peptides

A

c. derivatives of the amino acid tyrosine

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4
Q

Why is it that steroid hormones use receptors inside of target cells, whereas protein, peptide and amino acid hormones do not?

a. steroids can cross the cell membrane because they are lipids and the membrane is lipid
b. cells are full of steroid molecules so it is easy for steroid molecules to enter
c. Amino acids and peptide hormones do not have a 3 dimensional structure that can bind to internal receptors
d. the target cells affected by steroid hormones have all of their receptors in the cytoplasm
e. All of the above

A

a.steroids can cross the cell membrane because they are lipids and the membrane is lipid

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5
Q

When adenyl cyclase (aka adenylate cyclase) is activated

a. cAMP is broken down
b. ATP is consumed
c. ATP is produced
d. cAMP is formed
e. ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed

A

e. ATP is consumed and cAMP is formed

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6
Q

The most complex endocrine responses involve the…

a. pancreas
b. hypothalamus
c. thyroid gland
d. thymus gland
e. suprarenal glands

A

b. hypothalamus

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7
Q

Neurons of the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus manufacture_____ that are later secreted from the neurohypophysis.

a. TSH and FSH
b. FSH and PRL
c. CRF and GnRH
d. ADH and oxytocin
e. GHIH and GHRH

A

d. ADH and oxytocin

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8
Q

The main action of antidiuretic hormone is:

a. increase urine output to remove excess
b. increased blood pressure by increased Na+ reabsorption
c. increased water conservation by kidneys
d. inhibition of adolsterone

A

c. increased water conservation by kidneys

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9
Q

Which of the following is NOT an action of TSH?

a. increase cyclic AMP concentration within thyroid follicle cells
b. stimulates pinocytosis of colloid by thyroid follicle cells
c. stimulates T3 and T4 secretion
d. inhibits T3 and T4 secretion
e. stimulates iodine trapping the thyroid follicle cells

A

d. inhibits T3 and T4 secretion

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10
Q

Before the discovery of these glands, thyroid surgery often led to a rapid drop in blood calcium levels, which triggered muscle contractions and cardiac arrhythmias. What glands are these and which hormone is lacking?

a. parathyroid glands; levothyroxine
b. thyroid glands; calcitonin
c. thyroid glands; levothyroxine
d. parathyroid glands; calcitonin
e. parathyroid glands; parathyroid hormone

A

e. parathyroid glands; parathyroid hormone

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11
Q

Growth hormone does all of the following EXCEPT…

a. spare glucose
b. speed up metabolism
c. promote bone growth
d. promote amino acid uptake by cells
e. promote muscle growth

A

b. speed up metabolism

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12
Q

Reduction of fluid losses at the kidneys due to the retention of Na+ is the action of…

a. cortisone
b. calcitonin
c. oxytocin
d. aldosterone
e. antidiuretic hormone

A

c. oxytocin

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13
Q

If a diabetic patient received too much insulin, the low blood sugar could be corrected by injecting:

a. glucagon
b. thyroid hormone
c. GHIH
d. aldosterone
e. antidiuretic hormone

A

a. glucagon

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14
Q

Shelly has a hormone- secreting tumor of the adrenal gland. The tumor is causing her to have a deep voice, to grow extensive body hair, and to stop menstruating. This tumor probably involves cells of the

a. zona reticularis
b. zona glmerulosa
c. pars intermedia
d. zona fasciculata
e. adrenal medulla

A

a. zona reticularis

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15
Q

A rise in blood glucose level will trigger all these responses except…

a. increased epinephrine secretion
b. increased beta cell secretion
c. increased glycogen
d. storage of triglycerides

A

a. increased epinephrine secretion

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16
Q

Type II diabetes is characterized by:

a. excessive secretion of glucagon
b. inadequate insulin production
c. a lack of response by target cells to insulin
d. low blood glucose concentration
e. a decrease in secretion by pancreatic beta cells

A

c. a lack of response by target cells to insulin

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17
Q

If stress lasts longer than a few hours, an individual will enter the _____ phase of general adaptation syndrome .

a. alarm
b. resistance
c. extension
d. exhaustion

A

b. resistance

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18
Q

Two hormones that have additive physiological effects are called….

a. agonists
b. antagonists
c. resistors
d. synergists

A

d. synergists

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19
Q

The hormone(s) that may be slowly administered by intravenous drip accelerate labor and delivery is/are…

a. luteinizing hormone
b. oxytocin
c. both oxytocin and luteinizing hormone
d. prolactin
e. non; only extra fluids are needed

A

b. oxytocin

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20
Q

Interstitial cells surrounding seminiferous tubules produce testosterone in response to _____.

a. FSH
b. LH
c. GnRH
d. ACTH

A

b. LH

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21
Q

Arrange the four structures listed below in the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the urethral meatus.

  1. ductus deferens
  2. Urethra
  3. ejaculatory duct
  4. epididymis
A

4,1,3,2

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22
Q

Where in the male reproductive system would you expect to find the most mature spermatozoa?

a. in the seminal gland
b. in the head of the epididymis
c. in the seminiferous tubules
d. in the prostate gland
e. in the ductus deferens and the ejaculatory duct

A

e. in the ductus deferens and the ejaculatory duct

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23
Q

The nurse cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following EXCEPT that they…

a. secrete androgen- binding protein
b. secrete inhibin
c. maintain the blood testis barrier
d. support spermiogenesis
e. secrete testosterone

A

e. secrete testosterone

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24
Q

If the prostate stopped secreting fluid, this would result in semen…

a. with a higher than normal pH
b. that lacked sperm
c. that was rich in prostaglandins
d. with no mucus
e. with less fructose

A

a. with a higher than normal pH

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25
Q

A male bodybuilder starts taking injections of testosterone (an anabolic steroid) on a daily basis. After 3 weeks, which of the following would you expect to observe?

a. decreased levels of GnRH
b. increased sex drive
c. increased muscle mass
d. decreased levels of LH and FSH
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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26
Q

Which of the following is NOT a similarity between the testis and ovary?

a. both produce gametes
b. both respond to follicle- stimulating hormone.
c. both produce progesterone
d. meiosis takes place in both
e. both respond to luteinizing hormone

A

c. both produce progesterone

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27
Q

Follicle-stimulating hormone….

a. is important only in females
b. stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary
c. stimulates ovulation
d. stimulates the thyroid follicles
e. all of the above

A

b. stimulates maturation of primordial follicles in the ovary

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28
Q

A rise in the blood levels of follicle- stimulating hormone at the beginning of the ovarian cycle is to ______ as the surge in luteinizing hormone that occurs during the middle of the ovarian cycle is to ______.

a. a rise in estrogen; menstruation
b. ovulation; follicle maturation
c. follicle maturation; ovulation
d. menstruation; ovulation
e. follicle maturation; a rise in estrogen

A

c. follicle maturation; ovulation

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29
Q

Arrange the ovarian cells and structures listed below in the correct developmental order for the meiotic process of oogenesis

  1. corpus albicans
  2. Graafian follicle
  3. oogonium
  4. primordial follicle
  5. corpus luteum
A

3, 4, 2, 5, 1

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30
Q

TRUE or FALSE: a hormone can change the biochemical, gene expression, metabolic activity, and/or physical structure of its target cell

A

TRUE

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31
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Grave’s disease results from the aberrant production of thyroglobulin by immune system plasma cells

A

FALSE

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32
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Chief cells of the parathyroid secrete the hormone calcitonin to increase blood-calcium

A

FALSE

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33
Q

TRUE or FALSE: Melanin, produced by the pineal gland, helps regulate circadian rhythms and sleep in humans.

A

FALSE

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34
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The mature egg released into the uterine tube by ovulation has already completed meiosis II

A

TRUE

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35
Q

TRUE or FALSE: In males and females, smooth muscle and ciliated columnar epithelial cells are both strategies used to move the gametes successfully through some of the reproductive ducts

A

TRUE

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36
Q

TRUE or FALSE: The basilar zone of the endometrium is nourished by estrogen and progesterone sensitive spiral arteries.

A

FALSE

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37
Q

List the 3 locations for the thyroid hormone receptors in target cells and the cellular effect of the binding of tri- iodonthyronine (T3) to each.

A

A. cytoplasm – no effect; storage for T3
B. Mitochondria – ATP production to get target responses
c. Nuclear receptor – gene expression activated. induction of genes

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38
Q

Identify the form of estrogen produced in females a A. menopause B. after menarche C. during pregnancy

A

A. estrone
B. estradiol
C. estriol

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39
Q

What is the correct order for the flow of blood entering from the systemic circulation.

  1. right atrium 5. Venae cavae
  2. left atrium 6. aorta
  3. right ventricle 7. pulmonary trunk
  4. left ventricle 8. pulmonary veins
A

5, 1, 3, 7, 8, 2, 4, 6

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40
Q

The pulmonary veins carry ____ blood to the ____.

a. deoxygenated; right atrium
b. oxygenated; right atrium
c. oxygenated; left atrium
d. deoxygenated; left atrium

A

c. oxygenated; left atrium

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41
Q

The superior portion of the heart where major blood vessels enter and exit is the ____, where are the inferior point of the heart is called the ____.

  1. Hilum
  2. mediastinum
  3. apex
  4. Septum
  5. Base
A

Base, Apex

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42
Q

The structure that permits blood flow from the right atrium to the left atrium in the fetal circulation is the…

a. interatrial septum
b. foramen ovale
c. fossa ovalis
d. ligamentum arteriosus
e. coronary sinus

A

b. foramen ovale

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43
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a. cardiac muscle contractions cannot be summated
b. skeletal muscle contractions may be summated
c. cardiac muscle stimulation requires a neural action potential (s).
d. cardiomyocytes are interconnected through intercalated discs
e. skeletal muscle stimulation requires a neural action potential(s).

A

c. cardiac muscle stimulation requires a neural action potential (s).

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44
Q

Intercalated discs serve to transfer ____ from cell to cells.

a. electrical signals
b. ionic currents
c. action potentials
d. the force of contraction
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

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45
Q

Tetanic muscle contractions DON’T occur in a normal cardiac muscle because…

a. cardiac muscle tissue contracts on its own
b. the refractory period ends before the muscle reaches peak tension
c. potassium channels outnumber sodium channels
d. neural stimulation is lacking
e. the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes

A

e. the refractory period lasts until the muscle relaxes

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46
Q

Contractions of the papillary muscles…

a. eject blood from the ventricles
b. eject blood from the atria into the ventricles
c. close the atrioventricular valves
d. close the semilunar valves
e. prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria

A

e. prevent the atrioventricular valves from reversing into the atria

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47
Q

If the pacemaker cells in the SA node become more permeable to potassium ions, the…

a. a heart will increase
b. heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize
c. cells with hyperpolarize
d. cells will depolarize
e. heart rate will decrease

A

b. heart rate will decrease and cells will hyperpolarize

48
Q

The long plateau of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to…

a. increased membrane permeability to potassium ions
b. increased membrane permeability to sodium ions
c. movement of fewer sodium ions across the cell membrane
d. calcium channels remaining open
e. decrease in the amount of calcium diffusing across the membrane

A

d. calcium channels remaining open

49
Q

Put in the correct order in which excitation would move through the conducting system.

  1. Purkinje fibers 4. SA node
  2. AV bundle 5. bundle branches
  3. AV node 6. internodal pathways
A

4, 6, 3, 2, 5, 1,

50
Q

Analysis of the electrocardiogram can reveal all of the following information EXCEPT the…

a. cardiac effects of drugs and poisons
b. heart rate
c. stroke volume
d. duration of the ventricular action potential
e. condition of the heart conducting system

A

c. stroke volume

51
Q

If the connection between the SA node and the AV node becomes blocked…

a. the atria will contract more forcefully
b. the ventricles will beat more slowly
c. the ventricular beat will remain unchanged
d. the ventricles will beat faster
e. cardiac output will increase

A

b. the ventricles will beat more slowly

52
Q

_____ is to slow heart rate as ____ is to fast heart rate

a. tachycardia; bradycardia
b. angina; infarction
c. bradycadia; cardiomyoptathy
d. cardiac tamponade; bradycardia
e. bradycardia; tachycardia

A

e. bradycardia; tachycardia

53
Q

Considering the left ventricle, why does isovolumetric ventricular contraction occur during ventricular systole?

a. the ventricle is still firing with blood and therefore cannot eject blood during this time
b. the ventricle needs to pressurize the blood to close the aortic valve
c. aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve
d. the bicuspid valve needs time to shut before the ventricle can eject blood
e. ventricular pressure is greater than atrial pressure so the ventricle cannot eject blood.

A

c. aortic pressure is higher than ventricular pressure and the ventricle must pressurize the blood to open the aortic valve

54
Q

The volume of blood ejected from each ventricle during a contraction is called…

a. end systolic volume
b. stroke volume
c. end diastolic volume
d. cardiac output

A

b. stroke volume

55
Q

Increased levels of epinephrine release, increased sympathetic stimulation of the SA node, decreased parasympathetic stimulation of SA and AV nodal fiber and faster depolarization of the pacemaker potential all increase heart rate.

a. all statements are false
b. all statements are true

A

b. all statements are true

56
Q

Which of the following factors in the ONLY one that will decrease cardiac output?

a. increased heart rate
b. increased force of contraction
c. increased sympathetic stimulation
d. increased parasympathetic stimulation
e. increased venous return

A

d. increased parasympathetic stimulation

57
Q

The cardioacceleratory center activates sympathetic neurons and the cardioinhibitory center controls parasympathetic neurons.

a. both are false
b. both are true
c. the first part is true but second part is false
d. the first part is false but the second part is true.

A

b. both are true

58
Q

An increase in the rate of action potentials from the baroreceptors will trigger a reflex to…

a. increase heart rate
b. both increase heat rate and increase pressure
c. decrease heart rate
d. both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure
e. decreased blood pressure

A

d. both decrease heart rate and decrease pressure

59
Q

Compared to arteries, veins….

a. have thinner walls
b. have more smooth muscle in their tunica media
c. hold their shape better when cut
d. have a pleated endothelium
e. are more elastic

A

a. have thinner walls

60
Q

The layer of the arteriole wall that can produce vasoconstriction is the…

a. tunica intima
b. tunica media
c. tunica externa

A

b. tunica media

61
Q

Blood moves forward through veins because of all of the following EXCEPT…

a. the pressure in the veins is lower than in the arteries
b. the respiratory pump
c. valves in the veins from preventing the backward flow of blood
d. muscular compression
e. pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein

A

e. pumping by the smooth muscle in the wall of the vein

62
Q

List in the correct order the sequence of blood vessels that blood would travel in the systemic circuit starting at the aorta.

  1. venules 5. medium veins
  2. arterioles 6. large veins
  3. capillaries 7. muscular arteries
  4. elastic arteries
A

4, 7, 2, 3, 1, 5, 6

63
Q

These exchange vessels may be continuous or fenestrated.

a. arteries
b. veins
c. venules
d. capillaries
e. arterioles

A

d. capillaries

64
Q

Blood flow to a tissue will increase if the….

a. arterioles constrict
b. level of the carbon dioxide at the tissue decreases
c. level of oxygen at the tissue increases
d. arterioles dilate
e. veins constrict

A

d. arterioles dilate

65
Q

Blood pressure increases with all of the following EXCEPT increased…

a. force of cardiac contraction
b. blood volume
c. cardiac output
d. peripheral resistance
e. parasympathetic stimulation

A

e. parasympathetic stimulation

66
Q

In which of the following would the blood flow be the highest?

a. a vessel .5 cm in diameter and 2 meters long
b. a vessel .5cm in diameter and 4 meters long
c. a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 10 meters long
d. a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 2 meters long

A

d. a vessel 1.0 cm in diameter and 2 meters long

67
Q

Which of the following is normally the greatest source acting against blood flow?

a. viscosity of blood
b. turbulence
c. vessel length
d. venous pressure
e. vascular resistance

A

e. vascular resistance

68
Q

Which of the following factor(s) will increase the net filtration pressure to move fluid out of capillaries?

a. increased blood hydrostatic pressure
b. increased plasma albumen and decreased blood hydrostatic pressure
c. increased tissue hydrostatic pressure
d. decreased plasma albumen
e. both increased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressure

A

e. both increased plasma albumin and increased blood hydrostatic pressure

69
Q

The atrial reflex is initiated by atrial stretch receptors as a result of decreasing venous return.

a. both parts are true
b. both parts are false
c. the first part is true and the second is false
d. the first part is false and the second is true

A

c. the first part is true and the second is false

70
Q

When a person rises quickly from a sitting position,

a. the carotid baroreceptors become less active
b. venous return is decreased
c. reflex vasoconstriction of peripheral blood vessels occurs
d. heart rate is reflexively elevated
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

71
Q

Venoconstriction _____ the amount of blood within the venous system, which _____ the volume in the arterial and capillary systems.

a. reduces; reduces
b. reduces; increases
c. doubles; decreases
d. decreases; doubles
e. increases; reduces

A

b. reduces; increases

72
Q

Release of which of the following will most likely result in the greatest short-term increase in blood pressure?

a. ADH
b. aldosterone
c. angiotensin II
d. erythropoiten

A

c. angiotensin II

73
Q

The pericardial sac and the heart takes up the majority of this space between the left and right pleural cavities called the (a) ______, whereas the great vessels are located behind in the (b) _____ along with the trachea and esophagus. The heart is cushioned with the pericardial cavity by aqueous (c) ______ that lies between the inner most layer of the pericardial sac, called the (d) ______, and the outer surface of the heart which is the (e) ______.

A

a. pericardial cavity
b. posterior mediastinum
c. pericardial fluid
d. parietal pericardium
e. epicardium/ visceral pericardium

74
Q

(a) _____ cells line the chambers of the heart, covers the heart valves, and is continuous with the tunica intima of the blood vessels, whereas the (b) _____ layer of the heart consists of multiple layers of cardiomyocytes. (c) ______ are the most common type of cardiomyocytes present in the walls of the heart.

A

a. endothelial
b. myocardium
c. contractile cells

75
Q

Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following EXCEPT…

a. warming the air
b. humidifying the air
c. housing tonsils
d. housing olfactory receptors
e. filtering the air

A

c. housing tonsils

76
Q

which of the following is false about the pharynx?

a. solids, liquids anf gasses pass through
b. it is shared by the integumentary and respiratory system
c. the laryngopharynx ends at esophagus opening
d. the oropharynx connects to the oral cavity
e. the nasopharynx superior.

A

b. it is shared by the integumentary and respiratory system

77
Q

The ____ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.

a. larygnopharynx
b. nasal cavity
c. Both a and d
d. oropharynx
e. nasopharynx

A

C. both larygnopharynx and nasal cavity

78
Q

The conchae…

a. provide an increase in surface area for the sense of smell
b. create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus.
c. provide opening to paranasal sinuses
d. divide the nasal cavity into the right and left side
e. provide an opening the the pharynx

A

b. create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus

79
Q

The glottis is…

a. part of the hard palate
b. the opening to the larynx
c. the soft tissue that hangs off the end of the soft palate
d. the opening of the pharyx
e. a flap of elastic cartilage

A

b. the opening to the larynx

80
Q

What is the order in which inhaled air passes through them?

  1. secondary bronchii 5. respiratory bronchiole
  2. bronchioles 6. alveoli
  3. alveolar ducts 7. terminal bronchiole
  4. primary bronchus
A

4, 1, 2, 5, 7, 3, 6

81
Q

Which of the following statements about the trachea is false?

a. tracheal cartilages prevent tracheal collapse
b. it alters its diameter in response to autonomic nervous system
c. it is lined by pseudostatified ciliated columnar epithelium
d. it is reinforced with D- shaped cartilages
e. it contains many mucous glands

A

d. it is reinforced with D- shaped cartilages

82
Q

The number of lobes in the right lung is…

a. less than the number of lobes in the left
b. equal to the number of lobes in the left lung
c. greater than the number of lobes in the left lung

A

c. greater than the number of lobes in the left lung

83
Q

The respiratory membrane of the gas exchange surfaces consists of…

a. ciliated squamous epithelium
b. surfactant cells
c. pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium
d. moist cuboidal epithelium
e. simple squamous epithelium

A

e. simple squamous epithelium

84
Q

Damage to the type II pneumocytes of the lungs would result in…

a. a loss of surfactant
b. decreased surface tension in alveoli
c. an increased rate of gas exchange
d. expansion of alveoli
e. all of the above

A

a. a loss of surfactant

85
Q

respiratory function deteriorates as a result of pneumonia because inflammation..

a. causes the lungs to leak air into the thorax
b. reduced the size of the pleural cavity
c. causes respiratory bronchioles to swell and dilate
d. reduces movement of the epiglottis
e. causes fluids to leak into the alveoli

A

e. causes fluids to leak into the alveoli

86
Q

A unique feature of the left lung compared to the right in most humans is the…

a. carina
b. apex
c. primary bronchus
d. hilum
e. cardiac notch

A

e. cardiac notch

87
Q

Determination of arterial or venous blood gases includes testing a blood sample for…

a. PO2 and PCO2
b. pH
c. PCO2
d. PO2
e. pH, PO2, and PCO2

A

e. pH, PO2, and PCO2

88
Q

When there is not air movement, the relationship between the intrapulmonary and atmospheric pressure is that…

a. they are equal
b. intrapulmonary pressure is greater than atmospheric
c. atmospheric pressure is less than intrapulmonary
d. intrapulmonary pressure is less than atmospheric
e. atmospheric pressure is more than intrapulmonary

A

a. they are equal

89
Q

Low partial pressure of oxygen in tissue is a condition called ____, whereas excessive carbon dioxide accumulation is referred to as _____.

  1. hyperoxia 4. Hypercapnia
  2. Normoxia 5. normocapnia
  3. hypoxia 6. hypocapnia
A

Hypoxia; hypercapnia

90
Q

Which of the following correctly pairs the name of the respiratory process with its description?

  1. cellular respiration
  2. external respiration
  3. internal respiration
    i. exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the blood and tissues and interstitial fluid
    ii. produces carbon dioxide and utilizes oxygen
    iii. diffusion of gases between the alveoli and the circulating blood
A

1 and ii, 2 and iii, 3 an i

91
Q

Air moves out of the lungs when pressure inside the lungs is ___, but air moves into the lungs when pressure inside the lungs is ____.

  1. less than intrapulmonic pressure
  2. greater than atmospheric pressure
  3. less than atmospheric pressure
  4. greater than intraalveolar pressure
  5. equal to atmospheric pressure
A

2; 3

92
Q

during quiet breathing,

a. inspiration is passive and expiration involves muscular contractions
b. inspiration involved muscular contractions and expiration is passive
c. only the internal intercostal costal muscles contract
d. both inspiration and expiration are passive
e. both inspiration and expiration involve muscular contractions

A

b. inspiration involved muscular contractions and expiration is passive

93
Q

if the volume of the lungs increases what happens to the air pressure inside the lungs?

a. it remains constant
b. it increases twice the amount of the increase of volume
c. it increases
d. it increases and possibly damages the lungs
e. it decreases

A

e. it decreases

94
Q

Which gas law best explains the phenomenon of an increase of volume in the lungs and a decrease of pressure.

a. Henry’s law
b. Dalton’s Law
c. Boyle’s Law
d. Frank-Starling principle

A

c. Boyle’s Law

95
Q

When the diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract,

a. the volume of the lungs decreases
b. the lungs shrink
c. expiration occurs
d. the volume of the thorax decreases
e. the volume of the thorax increases

A

e. the volume of the thorax increases

96
Q

During exercise, which of the following contract for the active forced exhalation?

a. diaphragm and external intercostal muscles
b. rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles
c. pectoralis major and serratus anterior muscle
d. diaphragm and internal intercostal muscle
e. rectus abdominis and diaphragm

A

b. rectus abdominis and internal intercostal muscles

97
Q

The term ____ describes the result from an injury that permits air to leak into the intra pleural space.

a. pneumonia
b. pneumothorax
c. pleurisy
d. emphysema
e. pulmonary edema

A

b. pneumothorax

98
Q

_____ is the amount of air that moves into the respiratory system during a single respiratory cycle.

a. inspiratory capacity
b. expiratory reserve volume
c. inspiratory reserve volume
d. tidal volume
e. residual volume

A

d. tidal volume

99
Q

If a patient inhales as deeply as possible and then exhales as much as possible, the volume of air expelled would be the patient’s…

a. vital capacity
b. reserve volume
c. expiratory reserve volume
d. inspiratory reserve volume
e. tidal volume

A

a. vital capacity

100
Q

The primary or direct function of pulmonary ventilation is to…

a. remove air from dead air space
b. maintain adequate alveolar ventilation
c. supply oxygen to the blood
d. prevent gas exchange in the bronchioles
e. remove carbon dioxide

A

b. maintain adequate alveolar ventilation

101
Q

Increasing the alveolar ventilation rate will….

a. hardly affect either the partial pressure or diffusion of gases
b. increase the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli
c. decreases the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli
d. decreases rate of carbon dioxide diffusion from the blood to the alveoli
e. decreases the rate of oxygen diffusion from the alveoli to the blood

A

c. decreases the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli

102
Q

Which of the following muscles might be recruited to increase inspired air volume?

a. sternocleidomastoid
b. scalenes
c. serratus anterior
d. pectoralis minor
e. all of the above

A

e. all of the above

103
Q

When the inspiratory muscles relax, the rib cage returns to its original position as a result of….

a. accessory muscle contraction
b. gravity
c. elastic rebound
d. partial pressure difference
e. exhalation

A

c. elastic rebound

104
Q

Dalton’s law of gasses relates to…

a. temperature and pressure gases
b. solubility of gases
c. volume and gas pressure
d. partial pressure of a gas in am mixture of gases
e. gas pressure and saturation of hemoglobin

A

d. partial pressure of a gas in am mixture of gases

105
Q

Henry’s law states that…

a. gas volume and pressure are inversely proportional
b. gas volume and temperature are directly proportional
c. the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure
d. gas pressure is inversely proportional to gas volume
e. in a mixture of gases such as air, the total pressure is the sum of the individual partial pressures of the gases in a mixture.

A

c. the volume of gas that will dissolve in a solvent is proportional to the solubility of the gas and the gas pressure

106
Q

When the blood levels of CO2 rise, which of the following changes will occur?

a. blood pH increases
b. levels of HCO3- increase
c. hemoglobin release more O2
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

107
Q

Low pH alters hemoglobin structure so that oxygen binds less strongly to hemoglobin at low PO2. This increases the effectiveness of….

a. acid- base balance
b. carbon dioxide transport
c. external respiration
d. internal respiration

A

d. internal respiration

108
Q

The partial pressure of carbon dioxide is greatest in….

a. arterial blood
b. alveolar air
c. expired air
d. venous blood
e. inspired air

A

d. venous blood

109
Q

Which of the following statements about the chloride shirt is false?

a. it involves a movement of bicarbonate ions into the plasma
b. it causes RBCs to swell
c. it depend on the chloride-bicarbonate counter-transporters
d. it is driven by a rise of PCO2
e. it involves a movement of chloride ion into RBCs

A

b. it causes RBCs to swell

110
Q

If the dorsal respiratory group of neurons in the medulla oblongata were destroyed bilaterally,

a. alveolar ventilation would increase
b. tidal volumes would decrease
c. pulmonary ventilation would increase markedly
d. the respiratory minute volume would increase
e. a person would stop breathing

A

e. a person would stop breathing

111
Q

the apneustic centers of the pons

a. inhibits the pneumotaxic and inspiratory centers
b. generate the gasp reflex
c. monitor blood gas levels
d. provide stimulation to the inspiratory centers
e. alter chemoreceptor sensitivity

A

d. provide stimulation to the inspiratory centers

112
Q

the normal rate and depth of breathing is established by the _____ center(s).

a. pneumotaxic
b. DRG and VRG
c. apneustic
d. VRG
e. VRG

A

b. DRG and VRG

113
Q

Pneumotaxic centers in the pons

a. receive input from the hypothalamus and cerebrum
b. modify respiratory rate and depth
c. inhibit the apneustic centers
d. promote passive or active exhalation
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

114
Q

Severing the sensory fibers from the lungs would result in all of the following EXCEPT…

a. a drop in tidal volume
b. less inhibition of the inspiratory center during forced breathing
c. a disappearance of Hering-Breuer reflexes
d. potential damage to the lungs due to overinflation
e. less stimulation of the expiratory center during forced breathing

A

a. a drop in tidal volume

115
Q

Which of the following age-based changes is false?

a. the lungs lose elastic tissue
b. Vital capacity increases
c. respiratory muscles weaken
d. the lung’s compliance decreases

A

b. Vital capacity increases

116
Q

The obstructive lung disease in which connective tissue are lost, alveolar surfaces are damaged, and the respiratory surface is reduced is called

a. tuberculosis
b. bronchitis
c. asthma
d. emphysema
e. pneumonia

A

d. emphysema

117
Q

Which of the following will DECREASE the effectiveness of gas exchange across the respiratory membranes of the lungs?

a. adequate surfactant production
b. increased number of alveoli
c. increased difference in partial pressure
d. increased respiratory membrane thickness

A

d. increased respiratory membrane thickness

A&PII (1 decks)

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