Final Flashcards

1
Q

Offshoring

A

the business practice sending jobs to other countries, overall goal is to save money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Outsourcing

A

Contracting out work that was formerly done by employees

One of its key goals is to save money

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Michael Porter’s model

A

substitutes, rival firms, new entrants, customers, suppliers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

human capital

A

the collective brainpower in an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Pay Equity

A

means equal pay for work of equal value and equal pay for similar or substantially similar work – makes it illegal for employers to discriminate against

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Pay Equality

A

equal pay for equal work – men and women must be paid the same wage doing identical work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Diversity Management

A

The optimization of an organization’s multicultural workforce to each business objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Employment Equity

A

everyone gets a chance

Employee equity act, Canadian Charter of Rights and Freedoms, Human Rights Act

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Undue Hardship

A

refers to the point where the financial cost or health and safety risks make accommodation impossible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

BFOR

A

A justifiable reason for discrimination based on business reasons related to safety or effectiveness, which is considered a necessary (not merely preferred) requirement for performing the job

Example: age requirement for driving bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Discrimination:

A

To treat someone differently because of a personal characteristic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Direct (Intentional) Discrimination:

A

the deliberate use of prohibited criteria when making employment decisions, also illegal to have different treatment quality of employees for jobs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Indirect (Unintentional) Discrimination:

A

appear neutral but have adverse effects – job advertisement having a bunch of young white men in the picture (not diverse) – systemic discrimination is the same thing. this is also systemic discrimination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Job Description

A

is a document that states an overview of the duties, responsibilities and functions of a specific job in an organization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Job Specifications

A

is a statement of the qualifications, personality traits, skills, etc. required by an individual to perform the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How are job description and job specifications developed?

A

Developed through job analysis – either work-oriented or worker-oriented

Work-oriented is based on the tasks that need to be completed and their respective importance’s while worker-oriented is created based of KSAOs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

when would job enrichment be beneficial

A

When an employee is feeling unmotivated by work, or that the tasks they are doing could be streamlined/completed differently

A job enrichment to solve this problem is SUGGESTION PROGRAMS – it allows workers to suggest solutions/different approaches to tasks to HR team members, and can have rewards such as bonuses and of course changing the task to the suggested method

The purpose of job enrichment is to make jobs more motivating by increasing meaningfulness, responsibility, and knowledge of the results of a job. This means that an enriched job has a high motivating potential.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Work-Oriented Job Analysis

A

Focus is on generating a list of concise task statements that define the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Worker-Oriented Job Analysis

A

Focus is on generating a list of KSAO statements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Reliability

A

The degree to which interviews, tests, and other selection procedures yield comparable data over time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Validity

A

the degree to which a test of selection procedure measures a person’s attributes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Construct Validity

A

The extent to which a selection tool measures a theoretical construct or trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Criterion Validity

A

The extent to which a selection tool predicts, or significantly correlates with, important elements of work behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

5 Methods of Recruitment

A

Internal job postings, replacement charts, advertising online, job fairs, employee referrals, LinkedIn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Inter-rater Reliability

A

: a selection tool is reliable when it gives consistent results (judges all give you a 7/10)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Test-retest Reliability

A

a selection tool is reliable when it gives consistent results (weigh scale always saying you weigh 130…. But what if you weigh 150?)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Content validity

A

extent to which a selection instrument, such as a test, adequately samples the knowledge and skills needed to perform a particular job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Criterion/predictive validity:

A

extent to which applicants’ test scores match criterion data obtained from those applicants/employees after they have been on the job for an indefinite period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

4 Criterions to Evaluate Training

A

Reactions: assessing the participants’ reactions to the training

Learning: did they actually learn anything?

Behaviour: are they applying what they’ve learned to their jobs?

Results, or ROI: bottom line results

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

3 Parts of Needs Assessment

A

Organization Analysis: Examination of the environment, strategies, and resources of the organization to determine where training emphasis should be placed

Task Analysis: the process of determining what the content of a training program should be on the bass of a study of the tasks and duties involved in the job

Person Analysis: determination of the specific individuals who need training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Advantages of Onboarding

A

The process of systematically socializing new employees to help them get ‘on board’ with an organization

Less turnover from new hires quitting

Improved talent acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

differences between onboarding and orientation training

A

Onboarding is an ongoing process of building engagement from the first contact until the employee becomes established within the organization

Orientation is a stage of onboarding where new employees learn about the company and their job responsibilities.

The goal of onboarding is to make the potential employee feel that they want to work here; the goal of orientation is to integrate new employees into the organization as seamlessly as possible.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

major differences between training and development

A

Training is mostly short term while development is long-term and continuous

Training focuses on the role vs development focuses on the person

Training revolves around immediate or the present need while development activities are futuristic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

two main purposes of performance appraisal (according to your
book)

A

Initiate a dialogue that will help employees improve performance

Reveal which employees are not hitting expectations

35
Q

Performance Management

A

the process for creating a work environment in which people can perform to the best of their abilities in order to meet a company’s goals

fluid process

36
Q

Performance Appraisal

A

the result of process in which a manager evaluates an employee’s performance relative to the requirements of his or her job

result

37
Q

criterion deficiency

A

Aspects of the actual performance that are not measured

The performance standards should capture the entire range of an employee’s performance. When they focus on a single criterion to the exclusion of other important but less quantifiable performance dimensions, then the performance management system is said to suffer from criterion deficiency

38
Q

Base Pay vs Variable Pay

A

The base rate of pay for a job or activity, excluding additional payments such as overtime or bonuses

Variable pay is the portion of sales compensation determined by employee performance

39
Q

Straight Piecework

A

an incentive plan under which employees receive a certain rate for each unit produced

40
Q

Standard Hour Plans

A

an incentive plan that sets rates based on the compensation of a job in a predetermined standard time

41
Q

Merit Raises

A

links an increase in base pay to how successfully an employee performs his or her job

42
Q

Bonuses

A

an amount of money added to wages on a seasonal basis, especially as a reward for good performance

43
Q

Sales Commission

A

an additional compensation the employee receives for meeting and exceeding the minimum sales threshold. Employers pay employees a sales commission to incentivize the employees to produce more sales and to rewards and recognize people who perform most productively

44
Q

Gainsharing plans

A

programs under which both employees and the organization share financial gains according to a predetermined formula that reflects improved productivity and profitability

45
Q

Team Bonuses

A

Cons: free riders, revolt by top performers, management losing sight of individual performance

Pros: increased productivity, increased teamwork/corporate culture

46
Q

Profit Sharing

A

any procedure by which an employer pays, or makes available to all regular employees, in addition to base pay, profits

47
Q

Stock Ownership

A

giving non-monetary bonuses to employees in the forms of stock in the company, when employee performs well stock prices rise so value increases

48
Q

Equity Theory

A

Equity theory is a motivation theory that explains how people respond to situations in which they have received less or more than they deserve

employees want to feel as though they’re being compensated for their work safety

49
Q

Duties of employers:

A

Providing a hazard-free workplace and complying with the applicable statues and regulations

Inform their employees about safety and health requirements

Keep certain records

50
Q

Duties of workers:

A

Comply with all applicable acts and regulations

Report hazardous conditions or defective equipment

Follow all employer safety and health rules and regulations

51
Q

Duties of supervisors:

A

Advise employees of potential workplace hazards

Ensure that workers use or wear safety equipment, devices, or clothing

Provide written instructions where applicable

Take every reasonable precaution to guarantee the safety of workers

52
Q

Duties of joint health and safety

A

Be set up with both union and management representation

Establish a no adversarial climate for creating safe and healthy workplaces

53
Q

reasons for safety-related accidents at work

A

Fatigue

Distracted driving

Workplace violence

Workplace bullying

Workplace emergencies

54
Q

Stress and sources of job-related stress

A

any adjustive demand caused by physical, mental, or emotional factors that require coping behaviour

high demand, high effort, low control, low reward

55
Q

Procedural justice:

A

Procedural justice is the idea of fairness in the processes that resolve disputes and allocate resources: employees perceived fairness of the procedures

56
Q

Interactional justice:

A

degree to which the people affected by decision are treated by dignity and respect

57
Q

Distributive justice:

A

equity – getting back what you put in: employees perceived fairness of organizational outcomes

58
Q

Constructive Dismissal

A

Occurs when an employer commits a significant or fundamental breach of the contract, such as eliminating an important benefit enjoyed by the employee, reducing compensation, or demoting an employee

59
Q

Wrongful Dismissal

A

A lawsuit filed in a court by an employee alleging that he or she was dismissed without proper contractual or reasonable notice

60
Q

Just Cause

A

means a legally sufficient reason. Just cause is sometimes referred to as good cause, lawful cause or sufficient cause

61
Q

Mediator

A

a third party in an employment dispute who meets with one party and then the other to suggest compromise solutions or to recommend concessions from each side that will lead to an agreement

62
Q

Mediation

A

the use of an impartial third-party neutral to reach a compromise decision in employment disputes

63
Q

Arbitration

A

The use of an impartial neutral party as decision-maker

to resolve an employment labour dispute by imposing a binding final decision on all parties involved in the dispute

64
Q

Arbitrator

A

A third-party neutral who resolves a labour dispute by issuing a final decision in the disagreement

65
Q

Reasons for Unionization

A

Economic needs: employees perceive the union is likely to be effective in improving various economic conditions of employment

Dissatisfaction with management: employees may want to unionize when they perceive that managerial practices regarding promotion, transfer, shift assignment, or other job-relate policies are administered in an unfair or biased manner

Social and leadership concerns: employees whose needs for recognition and social affiliation are being frustrated may join unions as a means of satisfying these needs

66
Q

Union Organization Process

A

Employee/union contract: employees investigate advantages of unionizing, and union officials begin to gather information on the needs of the employees

Initial organizational meeting: organize all of the collected information, establish communications chains, etc.

Formation of in-house organizing committee: composed of employees and their task is to recruit employees to sign authorization cards (saying that they’re willing to be represented by a union) MAJORITY RULES voting process

Application to labour relations board and receipt of certificate: with all of the information you need to apply for unionization for receipt of certificate

Election of bargaining committee and contract negotiations: who is going to sit at the bargaining table for the union (which employees)

67
Q

Employers during the unionization process

A

Cannot interfere with the labour relations process or certification

Cannot threaten to close the business

Cannot dismiss, discipline or threaten employees who wish to join the union

Must bargain in good faith

68
Q

Unions during the unionization process

A

Cannot interfere with the formation of an employer association

Cannot intimidate or coerce employees to become members of a union

Must provide fair representation for all in the bargaining unit

69
Q

Collective Bargaining Process

A

Prepare for negotiations
Gather data
Form bargaining teams

Develop strategies
Develop management proposals and limits of concession
Consider opponents’ goals
Make strike plans

Conduct negotiations
	Bargain in good faith
	Analyze proposals
	Resolve proposals
	Stay within bargaining zone

Formalize agreement
Clarify contract language
Ratify agreement

70
Q

PEST acronym

A

Political: Political stability, country laws, property rights

Economic: economic forecasts, currency fluctuations, trade cycles

Sociocultural: national culture, human rights, population demographics

Technological: information systems, intellectual property, production technology

71
Q

International Corporation

A

a domestic firm that uses its existing capabilities to move into overseas markets

72
Q

Multinational Corporation

A

Firm with independent business units operating in multiple countries

73
Q

Global Corporation

A

a firm that has integrated worldwide operations through a centralized home office

74
Q

Transnational Corporation

A

a firm that attempts to balance local responsiveness and global scale via a network of specialized operating units

75
Q

Expats

A

Employees from the home country who are on international assignment

76
Q

Host-country Nationals

A

Employees who are natives of the host country

77
Q

Third-country Nationals

A

Employees who are natives of a country other than the home country or the host country

78
Q

Global compensation system

A

a centralized pay system whereby host-country employees are offered a full range of training programs, benefits, and pay comparable with a firm’s domestic employees but adjusted for local differences

79
Q

Home-based pay

A

pay based on an expatriate’s home country’s compensation practices

80
Q

Balance-sheet approach

A

a compensation system designed to match the purchasing power in a person’s home country

81
Q

Split pay

A

a system whereby expats are given a portion of their pay in the local currency to cover their day-to-day expenses and a portion of their pay in their home currency to safeguard their earnings from changes in inflation of foreign exchange rates

82
Q

Host-based pay

A

expats pay is comparable to that earned by employees in a host country to which the expat is assigned

83
Q

Order of Union Organization Process

A

Employee/Union Contract

Initial Organizational Meeting

Formation of In-House Organizing Committee

Application to Labour Relations Board and Receipt of Certificate

Election of Bargaining Committee and Contract Negotiations