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microbiology > FINAL > Flashcards

FINAL Flashcards

1
Q

MOs include

A 
viruses
bacteria
algae
protozoa
fungi
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2
Q

why study micro

A

start of many food chains

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3
Q

beneficial indigenous microbiota

A

normal flora

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4
Q

1st person to see live bacteria and protozoa with microscope and report it

A

anton van leeuwenhoek

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5
Q

created 1st vaccine via smallpox

A

edward jenner

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6
Q

deprived theory of spontaneous generation

A

pasteur

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7
Q

significant contributions to germ theory of disease

A

robert koch

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8
Q

discovered use of dilute carbolic acid/phenol during surgery

A

lister

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9
Q

accidentally discovered 1st antibiotic- pencilin

A

fleming

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10
Q

lenses to manipulate light beam

A

compound light micro

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11
Q

electromagnets to manipulate electron beam

A

electron microo

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12
Q

calculate total mag

A

ocular X objective

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13
Q

ability of the lens system to distinguish between 2 adjacent objects

A

resolution

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14
Q

beam passes through specimen; shows internal structures

A

transmission em

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15
Q

beam passes over specimens surface

A

scanning em

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16
Q

more complex w organelles and true nucleus with membrane

A

eurkaryotes

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17
Q

less complex with no organelles nor true nucleus

A

prokaryotes

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18
Q

similar in structure and fx to eukaryotic cells; controls entrance and exit of materials

A

cell membrane

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19
Q

where does cellular respiration occur

A

cell membrane

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20
Q

how many chromosomes do prokaryotics have

A

1

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21
Q

small circular molecules of extrachromosomal DNA; antibacterial resistant

A

plasmids

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22
Q

fx. protein synthesis

A

ribosomes

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23
Q

peptidoglycan- thick layer

A

gram +

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24
Q

peptidoglycan- much thinner layer; outer membrane with phospholipid layer

A

gram -

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25
Q

lose ability to make cell walls; ex.

A

cell wall deficient bacteria; lyme disease

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26
Q

thick slimy layer secreted outside cell wall

A

glycocalyx

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27
Q

firmly attached to cell wall and highly organized

A

capsule

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28
Q

threadlike appendages; fx. movement

A

flagella

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29
Q

allows bacteria to adhere to surfaces so they can colonize

A

attachment pili

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30
Q

attach 2 cells and DNA is transferred from one cell to another thru it

A

sex pili

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31
Q

bacteria having sex

A

conjugation

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32
Q

certain bacteria form one for survival with decrease moisture or nutrient supply

A

endospores

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33
Q

most common endospores

A

bacillus

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34
Q

when the right environment comes along what happens for cells to become active

A

germinate

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35
Q

one cell splits into 1/2 to become 2 cells

A

binary fission

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36
Q

time it takes for binary fission to occur

A

generation time

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37
Q

science of classification

A

taxonomy

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38
Q

2- part latin name
Genus
species

A

binomial nomenclature

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39
Q

acellular (nonliving) obligate intracellular parasites

A

viruses

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40
Q

char of viruses

A

possess either RNA or DNA

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41
Q

viruses that infect bacteria

A

bacteriophages

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42
Q

virus is in cell but doesnt multiply until triggered; ex

A

latent virus infection; herpes

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43
Q

short naked pieces of RNA; cause some plant disease

A

viroids

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44
Q

small infectious proteins; cause fatal neurological animal disease

A

prions

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45
Q

ex of prions

A

kuru

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46
Q

MO bible

A

bergeys manual

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47
Q

contains over 5000 species of bacteria

A

bergeys manual

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48
Q

how many human pathogens are in the bergeys manual

A

less than 10%

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49
Q

3 shapes

A

coccus
bacillus
spirilum

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50
Q

mound of many cells originating from 1 cell

A

colony

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51
Q

what is motile and non motile

A

cocci nonmotile; bacili and sprillum are motile

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52
Q

very important in IDing bacteria

A

gram stain

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53
Q

crystal violet
iodine
alcohol
safranin

A

gram staining

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54
Q

gram pos- purple
gram neg- pink
WHY

A

gram - loses crystal violet w decolorizer bc of cell wall thickness and structure

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55
Q

require lots of o2

A

obligate aerobes

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56
Q

grow best with lower levels of o2

A

microaerophiles

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57
Q

can grow w or without o2

A

faculative anaerobes

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58
Q

grows best without o2 but can tolerate o2

A

aerotolerant anaerobes

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59
Q

can only grow without o2

A

obligate anaerobes

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60
Q

causes disease or not

A

pathogenicity

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61
Q

obligate intracellular parasites; pathogenic

A

rickettsias and chlamydias

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62
Q

diseases via arthropod vectors

A

rickettsia

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63
Q

energy parasites; transferred via inhalation or direct contact

A

chlamydia

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64
Q

smallest of cellular microbes; no cell walls and no distinct shape

A

mycoplasmas

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65
Q

what are algae

A

photosynthetic and aquatic

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66
Q

causes red tides and many produce neurotoxins

A

dinoflagellates

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67
Q

how are protozoa split up

A

based on locomotion

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68
Q

some saprophytic and some parasitic

A

fungi

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69
Q

normally harmless until host is vulnerable

A

opportunistic

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70
Q

ex of fungi

A

yeasts

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71
Q

fungal infections of humans

A

mycoses

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72
Q

combo of alga and fungus living together and appear to be one organism

A

lichens

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73
Q

worms

A

helminths

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74
Q

2 groups of helminths

A

round worms

flat worms

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75
Q

segment of chromosome with directions to make one particular protein

A

gene

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76
Q

why is genetic variability in MOs important

A

improve species chance for survival

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77
Q

change in nucleotide sequence of a gene

A

mutation

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78
Q

process that leads to new combos of genes on a chromosome

A

recombination

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79
Q

a change in the char of a cell caused by a change in the DNA that is transmissible to the offering

A

mutations

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80
Q

enables MO to be antibiotic resistent

A

beneficial

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81
Q

leads to production of nonfunctional enzymes

A

harmful

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82
Q

have no effect on cell; neutral

A

silent

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83
Q

mutations that occur random and naturally

A

spontaneous

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84
Q

occurs after exposure to mutagens

A

induced

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85
Q

exchange of genetic material between bacterial cells

A

recombinations

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86
Q

putting new genes into cells thus causing it to make a new gene product

A

genetic engineering

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87
Q

insertion of a normal gene into cells with a defective gene to correct it

A

gene therapy

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88
Q

most common method for inserting genes into cells

A

viral delivery

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89
Q

phages injects DNA into cell; cell can now produce gene products coded for by phage genes

A

lysogenic conversion

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90
Q

phage infects donor cell; phage DNA causes bacterial chromosome to break up; during phage assembly, piece of bacterial DNA gets picked up by phage and it infects recipient bacterium and injects its DNA; donor DNA combines

A

transduction

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91
Q

recipient cell takes up small piece of donor DNA from environment; donor DNA recombines with recipient DNA

A

transformation

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92
Q

donor cell attaches to recipient cell via sex plus; some of donors genetic material is transferred through hollow sex plus to recipient cell

A

conjugation

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93
Q

name 2 factors the affect MO growth

A

pH

temp

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94
Q

all living organisms require what for basic metabolism; besides endospores

A

h2o

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95
Q

temp that MO grows best

A

optimal growth temp

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96
Q

MOs prefer close to neutral pH

A

7.0-7.4

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97
Q

where can acidophiles be found

A

stomach

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98
Q

where can alkaliphiles be found

A

intestines

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99
Q

what inhibits growth of MOs

A

salts

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100
Q

some thrive with increase atmospheric pressure

A

barophiles

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101
Q

contains special nutrients to help growth fastidious MOs

A

enriched medium

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102
Q

encourages growth of some and surpasses growth of other MOs

A

selective medium

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103
Q

distinguishes between different groups of bacteria

A

differential medium

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104
Q

why is it important to know the number of bacteria in a specimen

A

it tests the contaminants in drinking water, milk, foods

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105
Q

4 phases of bacterial pop growth

A

lag phase
log phase
stationary phase
death phase

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106
Q

no increase in cell number; no division

A

lag phase

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107
Q

max growth rate

A

log phase

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108
Q

number of live cells stay constant

A

stationary phase

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109
Q

decrease in number of viable population

A

death phase

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110
Q

devoid of microbial life- including cells, spores, and viruses

A

sterilization

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111
Q

kills/removes pathogens from nonliving objects

A

disinfection

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112
Q

type of disinfection of liquids

A

pasteurization

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113
Q

chemical to disinfect skins and other living tissues

A

antiseptics

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114
Q

decrease in MO population to levels considered safe but public health standards

A

sanitation

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115
Q

kills MOs

A

microbial agents

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116
Q

inhibit growth and reproduction of MOs

A

microbistatic agents

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117
Q

freeze drying

A

lyophilization

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118
Q

another term for baking

A

dry heat

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119
Q

2 methods to inhibit MOs

A

heat and cold

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120
Q

burning via transfer loops

A

incineration

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121
Q

another name for drying

A

desiccation

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122
Q

used to sterilize heat sensitive material; operating rooms

A

filtration

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123
Q

remove o2 they die

A

aerobes and microaerophiles

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124
Q

add o2 and they die

A

obligate anaerobes

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125
Q

chemical agents to inhibit MOs

A

soaps and detergents

heavy metals

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126
Q

skin antiseptic; disinfectant for thermometers, stethoscopes, etc

A

alcohols

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127
Q

surface disinfectants

A

phenols

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128
Q

clean puncture wounds and disinfect contacts;h2o2

A

oxidizing agents

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129
Q

sterilizes items increase temps would harm

A

gaseous ethylene oxide

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130
Q

treatment of disease with chemical substance

A

chemotherapy

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131
Q

chemical substance used to treat infectious disease

A

antimicrobial agent

132
Q

substance produced by MOs that inhibits the growth of or destroys other MOs

A

antibiotic

133
Q

chemically modified antibiotic

A

semisynthetic antibiotic

134
Q

destroy or inhibit a range of bacteria both gram - and +

A

broad spectrum antibiotics

135
Q

attacks narrow range of bacteria- typically gram + or gram -

A

narrow spectrum antibiotics

136
Q

which spectrum antibiotic is preferred

A

narrow

137
Q

lack of competition allows opportunistic MOs to flourish

A

superinfection

138
Q

more difficult to use than antibacterials; tend to be more toxic

A

antifungal and antiprotozoal agents

139
Q

why are antiviral agents difficult to develop and use

A

viruses are made in host cells and thus hard to kill without killing cells

140
Q

how do antiviral agents work

A

inhibit viral replications

inhibit viral release

141
Q

another name for disk diffusion method

A

kirby-baur method

142
Q

advanced diffusion method- measures lowest antibiotic concentration needed to prevent bacterial growth

A

e test

143
Q

use micro dilution plate w wells and w different dilutions of antibiotics

A

broth dilution tests

144
Q

what is the advantage of using these tests

A

avoid use of ineffective antibiotics

145
Q

drug resistance

A

super bugs

146
Q

name 2 super bugs

A

MRSA

MRSE

147
Q

bacteria change structure of a drug binding site so the drug can’t bind to cell anymore and thus can’t enter to harm cell

A

chromosomal mutation

148
Q

bacterium produces a new enzyme that destroys or inactives drug

A

conjugation and getting plasmid/getting a new gene

149
Q

3 ways how to help drug resistance problem

A

education
use marrow spectrum
prescribe antibiotics only when needed

150
Q

what should be considered when prescribing antimicrobials

A

pregnant
allergies
age

151
Q

study of interrelationships between MOs and everything else

A

microbial ecology

152
Q

living together or close assoc of 2 different species of organisms

A

symbiosis

153
Q

2 species with one benefitting and one neither harmed nor benefitted

A

common salism

154
Q

2 species with both benefitting

A

mutualism

155
Q

2 species with one benefitting and one harmed

A

parasitism

156
Q

all MOs that live on or in a person

A

normal flora

157
Q

where in the body does it have sterile normal flora

A

blood, lymph

158
Q

most common skin MO

A

staph. spp

159
Q

usually sterile but MOs can be carried thru eustachian tubes when coughing, sneezing, or blowing nose

A

middle and inner ear

160
Q

name an ear defense

A

ear wax

161
Q

name an eye defense

A

tears

162
Q

what have more MOs upper resp tract or lower resp tract

A

upper has lots of MO

lower is usually free

163
Q

name an upper tract defense

A

mucus

164
Q

lots of MOs- warm, moist, lots to eat

A

mouth

165
Q

name a mouth defense

A

saliva

166
Q

has few MOs because it is too acidic

A

stomach

167
Q

small intestine defense

A

normal flora

168
Q

has lots of normal flora

A

large intestine

169
Q

many opportunists if put in other areas such as e. coli could cause a UTI

A

large intestine

170
Q

defense of large intestine

A

normal flora

171
Q

includes urinary tract and vagina

A

GU tract

172
Q

what is all sterile in the GU tract? what is not

A

kidney ureter and bladder; vagina is not

173
Q

defense of GU tract

A

normal flora

174
Q

why do females get more UTIs more often

A

urethra is shorter and closer to anus

175
Q

study of factors and mechanisms involved in the spread of disease within a population

A

epidemiology

176
Q

transmissible from one human to another

A

communicable disease

177
Q

a communicable disease that is easily transmitted from one person to another

A

contagious disease

178
Q

number of new cases of a disease in a population during a specific time period

A

incidence

179
Q

number of cases of a disease in a population at a specified time; considers both old and new cases

A

prevalence

180
Q

number of people affected by disease in a given period of time in relation to the total population

A

morbidity

181
Q

number of deaths resulting from a disease in a population in a given period of time in relation to the total population

A

morality

182
Q

one that occurs only occasionally in a population

A

sporadic disease

183
Q

one that is always present within the population

A

endemic

184
Q

greater than usual number of cases of a disease in a particular region usually for a short time

A

epidemic

185
Q

one that is occurring in epidemic proportions in many countries simultaneously sometimes worldwide

A

pandemics

186
Q

name a pandemic

A

HIV/AIDS

187
Q

living reservoirs; those w disease or carriers

A

humans

animals

188
Q

diseases that can be transmitted from animals to humans

A

animals ex. rabies

189
Q

insects and arachnids; are vectors

A

athropods ex. lyme disease

190
Q

include air, soil, dust, food, milk, water, fomites

A

non living reservoirs

191
Q

contaminated non living objects

A

fomites

192
Q

name a fomite

A

bedding

193
Q

immunizations

inspect restaurants and food stores

A

city and county health dept

194
Q

beyond local

ID MO’s vi lab tests

A

state health dept

195
Q

investigates and tries to control epidemics

A

centers for disease control and prevention

196
Q

where is CDC agency located

A

atlanta

197
Q

stats for diseases in us and world

A

morbidity and mortality weekly report

198
Q

those physicians are required by law to report

A

notifiable

199
Q

2 most common notifiable diseases

A

chlamydia

gonorrhea

200
Q

agency of UN based in geneva switzerland

A

who

201
Q

MOs used in war

A

biological werfare

202
Q

MOs used by terrorists or radical hate groups to create fear, chaos, illness and death

A

bioterrorism

203
Q

nosocomial infections that are acquired in the hospital or other medical facility

A

health care associated infections

204
Q

most common causes of healthcare asso infections

A

s. aureus

e. coli

205
Q

most common site of infection in healthcare assoc infections

A

UTI’s

206
Q

besides susceptibility of patients (immunocompromised) what are contributing factors

A

overcrowding of hospitals and shortage of staff

207
Q

2 prevention

A

handwashing and isolation

208
Q

all practices used to exclude pathogens

A

medical asepsis

209
Q

practices used to all MOs

A

surgical asepsis

210
Q

protects others ex, patients, employees and visitors

A

source isolation

211
Q

protect patient

A

reverse isolation

212
Q

oversee nosocomial data and incidents; ID problems; implement safe practices and procedures

A

infection control committee

213
Q

name 2 reasons why infections don’t always occur

A

mo lands at site where it can’t multiply

normal flora inhibit growth of potential pathogen

214
Q

in one site

A

localized

215
Q

spread throughout body, usually via lymph or blood

A

systemic

216
Q

rapid onset and relatively rapid recovery

A

acute

217
Q

intermediate between acute and chronic

A

subacute

218
Q

slow onset and lasts a long time

A

chronic

219
Q

evidence of a disease that is experienced or perceived by the patient; is subjective

A

symptom

220
Q

objective evidence of a disease

A

sign

221
Q

first disease- usually acute

A

primary infections

222
Q

why does secondary follow primary infections

A

because of decrease immunity and opportunistic MOs

223
Q

more virulent; better able to cause disease

A

degree of pathogenicity

224
Q

physical attributes or properties of pathogens that enable them to escape host defenses and cause disease

A

virulence factors

225
Q

surface molecules on pathogen that enable it to attach to host cells

A

adhesions

226
Q

enable pathogens to stick

A

bacterial fimbriae

227
Q

protect bacteria from being phagocytized by wbc’s

A

capsules

228
Q

enable motile bacteria to invade aqueous areas of the body

A

flagella

229
Q

major way pathogens cause disease

A

exoenzymes and toxins

230
Q

name an exoenzyme

A

coagulase

231
Q

destroy cells and tissues

A

necrotizing enyzmes

232
Q

clots plasma and allows bacteria to form a sticky coat of fibrin around them

A

coagulase

233
Q

digest clots- allowing pathogens to escape from clots

A

kinases

234
Q

enables MO to spread via breaking thru connective tissue

A

hyalurondiase

235
Q

breaks down collagen in tendons cartilage bones and muscles thus allowing them to invade tissues

A

collagenase

236
Q

damage rbc

A

hemolysins

237
Q

partial breakdown of hemoglobin; green zone around colonies on blood agar

A

alpha hemolysis

238
Q

complete lysis of rbcs; clear zone around colonies on blood agar

A

beta hemolysis

239
Q

breaks down lecithin esp in muscles

A

lecithinase

240
Q

lipopolysaccharide parts of cell walls of gram- neg bacteria

A

endotoxins

241
Q

released when cells die and lyse; even w antibiotic caused deaths; what effects does it cause

A

endotoxins; fever and septic shock

242
Q

poisonous proteins produced by pathogens that are highly specific effects on body tissues

A

exotoxins

243
Q

exotoxins make antibodies called what

A

antitoxins

244
Q

altered exotoxins are used as vaccines

A

toxoids

245
Q

most potent exotoxin

A

neurotoxins

246
Q

some mo’s can change their surface antigens periodically so the immune system doesn’t recognize it

A

antigenic variation

247
Q

several mo’s produce an enzyme that destroys antibodies so the fighting capacity of the body is diminished

A

destruction of antibodies

248
Q

skin and mucous membranes
cellular and chemical factors
microbial antagonism

A

1 line of defense

249
Q

what is caused by pyrogens

A

fever

250
Q

fx of fever

A

increase activity of phagocytes

251
Q

antiviral protein produced by virus infected cells

A

interferons

252
Q

cells in blood wander to inflamed and infected tissues and always in many tissues

A

phagocytosis

253
Q

ex of phagocytosis

A

liver

254
Q

a set of proteins in plasma

A

complement system

255
Q

chemical messengers produced by many different cells in body esp helper T cells to recruit phagocytes where they are needed

A

cytokines

256
Q

bodys vascular and cellular reaction to the presence of invading MOs, injury, or nonliving irritants

A

inflammation

257
Q

heat and redness
swelling
pain

A

signs and symptoms

258
Q

fx of inflammation

A

localize infection

259
Q

person makes own antibodies; permanent

A

active immunity

260
Q

person receives antibodies from another person or animal; temporary

A

passive immunity

261
Q

get disease

A

natural acquired active immunity

262
Q

vaccine; stimulates immune system to make antibodies

A

artificially acquired active immunity

263
Q

from mom via across placenta or colostrum

A

naturally acquired passive immunity

264
Q

gamma globulin with antibodies; given to person after exposure

A

artificially acquired passive immunity

265
Q

foreign organic substances the body starts an immune response on

A

antigens

266
Q

2 types of lymphocytes

A

b cells

t cells

267
Q

mainly b cells

A

humoral immunity

268
Q

release antibodies when bound to antigen; in humoral immunity

A

plaza cells

269
Q

how long does it take plasma cells

A

2 weeks after exposure

270
Q

another name for antibodies

A

immunoglobulins; are proteins

271
Q

antibodies bind to antigen and cause:

A

activation of wbc

272
Q

what do memory cells do in humoral immunity

A

turn into plasma cells quickly to make antibodies

273
Q

for bacterial infections, neutralizing toxins and viruses not yet in cell

A

humoral immunity

274
Q

primarily by t cells and macrophages

A

cell mediated immunity

275
Q

since antigens are inaccessible to antibodies what is released to kill cell

A

cytokines

276
Q

for intracellular infections, rejecting tumors, and transplanted tissues

A

cell mediated immunity

277
Q

lab procedures used to help diagnose infectious diseases by detecting antigens and/or antibodies

A

immunodiagnostic procedures

278
Q

if antibody is detected it is

A

bc of past infection
present infection
vaccination

279
Q

what is the best proof of current infections

A

antigens

280
Q

to detect antibody

A

add antigen

281
Q

to detect antigen

A

add antibody

282
Q

all infectious diseases of the skin are

A

s. aureus

283
Q

inflammation of skin

A

dermatitis

284
Q

inflammation of a follicle

A

folliculitis

285
Q

inflammation of a hair follicle of an eyelash

A

sty

286
Q

localized pus producing infection of the skin usually from folliculitis

A

furuncle

287
Q

deep furuncle

A

carbuncle

288
Q

MO feed on sebum and then the ducts and area become inflamed

A

acne

289
Q

causes scarlet fever

A

s. pyogenes

290
Q

can come from strep throat and can lead to rheumatic fever

A

scarlet fever

291
Q

c. perfringens; would contaminated- toxin kills tissues- becomes anaerobic-more grows- more toxins

A

gas gangrene

292
Q

frequently nosocomial esp in immunocompromised patients

A

pseudomonas infections

293
Q

pseudomonas infections are green and

A

smell like grapes

294
Q

skin infections with pus production which then form crusts

A

pyoderma

295
Q

s. aureus and s. pyogenes

A

impetigo

296
Q

from cat bites or scratch; fleas

A

cat scratch disease

297
Q

s. progenies means

A

flesh eating

298
Q

exoenzymes destroy tissue rapidly and must remove dead tissue quickly to prevent spread

A

necrotizing fasciitis

299
Q

most common type of anthrax

A

cutaneous

300
Q

anthrax that is frequently fatal

A

inhalation and GI

301
Q

normally benign skin growths

A

wart/ papillomas

302
Q

what two viral infections have varicella zoster virus

A

chickenpox and shingels

303
Q

when was the last natural case in us of small pox

A

1949

304
Q

another name for measles

A

rubeola

305
Q

congenital- if mom becomes infected during first 8 weeks of preg it can cause birth defects

A

german measles

306
Q

athletes foot

A

tinea pedis

307
Q

body ringworm

A

tinea corporis

308
Q

jock itch

A

tinea cruris

309
Q

nails

A

tinea unguium

310
Q

scalp

A

tinea capitis

311
Q

barbers itch

A

tinea barbae

312
Q

another name for otitis externa; mostly s. aureus or p. aeruginosa

A

ear canal infection

313
Q

another name for otitis media

A

middle ear infection

314
Q

mostly s. pneumoniae, s. progenes, or h. influenza; MO via eustachian tube from throat

A

otitis media

315
Q

infection or inflammation of the cornea

A

keratitis

316
Q

what causes ophthalmia neonatorum

A

n. gonorrhoeae or chlamydia

317
Q

pyogenic eye infection of the eyes

A

ophthalmia neonatorum

318
Q

another name for bacterial conjunctivitis

A

pinkeye

319
Q

transmitted via direct contact with eye and nasal secretions via flies

A

trachoma

320
Q

causes eyelashes to point inward and cause scarring and destruction of cornea

A

trachoma

321
Q

transmitted via deer flies; endemic to african rainforest

A

loaiasis

322
Q

vaccine for diphtheria

A

DTap

323
Q

vaccine for TB

A

bcg

324
Q

no cure but has a vaccine

A

genital warts

325
Q

causes blisters on genitals; recurrence are common

A

genital herpes

326
Q

vaccine for polio

A

salk

327
Q

what kind of infection is CJD

A

prion

microbiology (17 decks)

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