Exit Exam Flashcards
- The release of glucagon into the bloodstream stimulates:
a) the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.
b) the liver to take in and store more glucose.
c) the cells to uptake sugar from the bloodstream.
d) the vessels to constrict, thus increasing blood pressure.
a) the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.
2) Which of the following statements regarding insulin is MOST correct?
a) Insulin stimulates the conversion of glycogen to glucose.
b) An increase in insulin levels causes an increase in blood glucose.
c) Insulin is a pancreatic hormone that performs exocrine functions.
d) Insulin is the only hormone that decreases blood glucose levels.
d) Insulin is the only hormone that decreases blood glucose levels.
3) Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as:
a) inadequate insulin secretion, which leads to increased circulating blood glucose levels.
b) a decrease in circulating insulin levels, which results in a drop in serum blood sugar levels.
c) a metabolic disorder in which the body’s ability to metabolize simple carbohydrates is impaired.
d) an endocrine disorder in which the liver is unable to produce and store adequate amounts of glycogen.
c) a metabolic disorder in which the body’s ability to metabolize simple carbohydrates is impaired.
4) A person with type 1 diabetes:
a) is often an older person whose pancreas does not produce adequate insulin.
b) can often control his or her diabetes with a proper diet and regular exercise.
c) is not as likely to experience hypoglycemia as a person with type 2 diabetes.
d) generally does not produce any insulin and requires daily insulin injections.
d) generally does not produce any insulin and requires daily insulin injections.
5) Diabetic patients would MOST likely present with atypical signs and symptoms of:
a) bacterial pneumonia.
b) acute coronary syndrome.
c) an acute ischemic stroke.
d) viral or fungal meningitis.
b) acute coronary syndrome
6) Common symptoms of type 2 diabetes include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) thirst.
b) dysuria.
c) fatigue.
d) blurred vision.
b) dysuria.
7) Prior to administering 50% dextrose (D50) via IV push, it is MOST important to:
a) protect the airway with an endotracheal tube.
b) ensure that the IV line is patent and freely flowing.
c) confirm a blood glucose reading of less than 40 mg/dL.
d) draw blood for later analysis in the emergency department.
b) ensure that the IV line is patent and freely flowing
8) Hyperglycemia is characterized by:
a) a gradual onset and warm, dry skin.
b) shallow respirations and bradycardia.
c) a rapid onset and cool, clammy skin.
d) a blood glucose level above 110 mg/dL.
a) a gradual onset and warm, dry skin
9) An illness or infection would MOST likely cause:
a) diabetic ketoacidosis.
b) acute hyperglycemia.
c) blood glucose above 500 mg/dL.
d) a slow onset of hyperglycemia.
d) a slow onset of hyperglycemia
10) Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) occurs when:
a) blood glucose levels rise above 250 mg/dL.
b) the renal system begins to excrete ketones.
c) the cells metabolize fat and produce ketones.
d) insulin production exceeds glucagon production.
c) the cells metabolize fat and produce ketones.
11) Unlike the patient with hypoglycemia, the patient with severe hyperglycemia:
a) usually does not vomit.
b) has a normal breath odor.
c) rapidly improves with treatment.
d) is tachypneic and hyperpneic.
d) is tachypneic and hyperpneic.
12) Which of the following interventions would the paramedic LEAST likely perform on a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis?
a) Insulin administration
b) Endotracheal intubation
c) Sodium bicarbonate administration
d) Infusion of 1 to 2 L of normal saline
a) Insulin administration
13) Prehospital treatment for patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC) focuses on:
a) intubation and insulin administration.
b) correction of electrolyte abnormalities.
c) high-flow oxygen and IV or IM glucagon.
d) airway management and fluid rehydration.
d) airway management and fluid rehydration
14) Which of the following statements regarding Addison’s disease is MOST correct?
a) It most often occurs when the immune system creates antibodies that attack and destroy the adrenal cortex.
b) Addison’s disease is also known as secondary adrenal insufficiency and is most often the result of a viral infection.
c) The signs and symptoms of Addison’s disease are a direct result of the overproduction of cortisol and aldosterone.
d) Hallmark signs of Addison’s disease are hypertension and fluid retention that result from excess sodium reabsorption.
a) It most often occurs when the immune system creates antibodies that attack and destroy the adrenal cortex.
15) A 29-year-old man presents with bizarre behavior and profuse sweating. His wife tells you that he is a type 1 diabetic, and that he took his insulin today. During your assessment, you will MOST likely find that the patient is:
a) dehydrated.
b) tachypneic.
c) hyperglycemic.
d) breathing deeply.
b) tachypneic.
16) You are dispatched to the residence of a 60-year-old woman who was found unresponsive by her husband. As you are assessing the patient, her husband tells you that she is a diabetic and has recently experienced several “small strokes.” In addition to properly managing her airway, you should:
a) perform a field glucose test to rule out hypoglycemia.
b) start an IV line and give her 50 mL of 50% dextrose.
c) avoid giving her glucose because of her small strokes.
d) start an IV line and give her a 20 mL/kg fluid bolus.
a) perform a field glucose test to rule out hypoglycemia.
17) A 30-year-old woman presents with 3 days of generalized weakness, dizziness, and excessive urination. She is conscious but restless, and she tells you that she is extremely thirsty. Her blood pressure is 96/66 mm Hg, her pulse is 110 beats/min and full, and her respirations are increased and somewhat deep. On the basis of this patient’s clinical presentation, she will MOST likely require oxygen and:
a) 25 g of 50% dextrose.
b) in-hospital antibiotics.
c) 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon.
d) crystalloid fluid hydration.
d) crystalloid fluid hydration.
18) A 68-year-old obese woman presents with a markedly decreased level of consciousness. She was found in bed by her husband. Your initial assessment reveals that her respirations are slow and shallow, her pulse is slow and weak, and her skin is cold and dry. According to the patient’s husband, she has had a recent infection, but he cannot remember what the doctor called it. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing:
a) myxedema coma.
b) Addisonian crisis.
c) diabetic ketoacidosis.
d) acute hypothyroidism.
a) myxedema coma.
19) When transferring a patient between medical facilities, it is MOST important for the paramedic to:
a) ensure that all appropriate paperwork, x-rays, and lab results are delivered to the receiving facility.
b) request another paramedic if the patient’s clinical condition is too unstable for one paramedic to manage effectively.
c) request that a member of the patient’s family accompanies the patient in case the patient cannot speak for himself or herself.
d) ensure that a physician or nurse accompanies the patient if the patient requires care beyond the paramedic’s scope of practice.
d) ensure that a physician or nurse accompanies the patient if the patient requires care beyond the paramedic’s scope of practice.
20) Scope of practice is defined as:
A. protocols agreed upon by a consensus of emergency physicians.
B. the level of care that a paramedic’s employer allows the paramedic to provide.
C. national patient care guidelines established by the federal government.
D. care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.
D. care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.
21) Abandonment occurs when:
a. a patient is released and did not require further medical care.
b. an emergency nurse takes a verbal report from a paramedic.
c. care of a patient was terminated without his or her consent.
d. a patient refuses care and subsequently dies of his condition.
c. care of a patient was terminated without his or her consent.
22) Patients with decision-making capacity:
a) cannot refuse EMS treatment and transport after they have given consent for it.
b) have the right to refuse all or part of the emergency medical care offered to them.
c) must agree to EMS transport if they give consent for emergency medical treatment.
d) cannot withdraw consent unless their conditions are deemed to be non-life-threatening.
b) have the right to refuse all or part of the emergency medical care offered to them.
23) If a mentally competent adult refuses emergency medical treatment, your FIRST action should be to:
a) call medical control and seek further guidance.
b) determine if his or her condition is life-threatening.
c) assume the refusal is from fear and begin treatment.
d) try to determine why he or she is refusing treatment.
d) try to determine why he or she is refusing treatment.
24) Which of the following statements regarding documentation is MOST correct?
a) The paramedic’s personal opinion is an important part of the patient care report.
b) A thorough and accurate medical record is the paramedic’s best protection in court.
c) Pertinent negatives are of minimal value and should not be part of the patient report.
d) Never quote bystanders directly regarding statements made about the patient’s history.
b) A thorough and accurate medical record is the paramedic’s best protection in court.
25) The MOST appropriate way to wash your hands following patient care involves:
a) soaking your hands in warm water and rinsing with clean water.
b) washing vigorously with antibacterial soap for at least 30 seconds.
c) using waterless hand cleaner gels or wipes instead of antibacterial soap.
d) applying isopropyl alcohol and then rinsing your hands with clean water.
b) washing vigorously with antibacterial soap for at least 30 seconds.
26) During an emergency call, you begin experiencing a significant amount of anxiety. The patient’s family is present and the patient’s condition is critical. You should:
a) request a relief paramedic and disengage from patient care at once.
b) tighten and then relax specific muscle groups to initiate relaxation.
c) try to ignore the anxiety as best you can and take care of the patient.
d) take deep breaths in through your nose and out through your mouth.
d) take deep breaths in through your nose and out through your mouth.
27) You are driving the ambulance to the hospital as your team is caring for a critically injured patient in the back. As you approach a car in front of you, the driver appears to panic. You should:
a) turn your siren off, turn on your public address (PA) system, and kindly ask the driver to pull over to the right and stop.
b) keep your siren on, remain at least 20 feet behind the vehicle, and then carefully pull around him on the right side.
c) turn your lights and siren off, quickly pass the vehicle on the left side, and then turn your lights and siren back on.
d) keep your lights and siren on, remain a safe distance behind the vehicle, and use your PA system to tell him to stop.
a) turn your siren off, turn on your public address (PA) system, and kindly ask the driver to pull over to the right and stop.
28) Dr. Eugene Nagel advanced emergency medical treatment in 1969 by:
a) training paramedics to administer certain medications directly though the chest wall and into the left ventricle.
b) developing and implementing closed-chest cardiac massage (CPR) in order to pump blood in a patient without a pulse.
c) implementing the “golden hour,” which dramatically increased survival rates of patients who experienced severe trauma.
d) developing a telemetry system that enabled fire fighters to transmit a patient’s electrocardiogram to the physician at the hospital.
d) developing a telemetry system that enabled fire fighters to transmit a patient’s electrocardiogram to the physician at the hospital.
29) The chemical sign for sodium bicarbonate is:
a) NaCl.
b) H2CO3.
c) NaHCO3.
d) KCl.
c) NaHCO3.
30) The net effect of osmosis is to:
a) balance the concentration of water on both sides of the cell wall.
b) equalize solute concentrations on both sides of the cell membrane.
c) utilize ATP to actively move solutes across the cell membrane.
d) maintain a higher concentration of solutes outside of the cell.
b) equalize solute concentrations on both sides of the cell membrane.
31) The cardinal sign of overhydration is:
a) edema.
b) oliguria.
c) weight gain.
d) shortness of breath.
a) edema.
32) How many mg/mL are contained in a prefilled syringe of 50% dextrose with a concentration of 25 g/50 mL?
a) 100
b) 250
c) 500
d) 1,000
c) 500
33) When a drug’s specific action is a negative Chronotropic effect, what effect will it have on the heart?
a) Increased heart rate
b) Decrease heart rate
c) Increase force of muscular contractility
d) Decrease force of muscular contractility
b) Decrease heart rate
34) A drug that influences the rate of the heart is referred to as being
a) Isotropic.
b) Phototropic.
c) Inotropic
d) Chronotropic
d) Chronotropic
35) An exaggerated response by the immune system to a foreign substance is called:
a) an allergic reaction
b) an allergy
c) thyrotoxicolosis
d) an immune response
a) an allergic reaction
36) One kilogram equals:
a) 2 pounds.
b) 2.1 pounds.
c) 2.2 pounds.
d) 2.3 pounds.
c) 2.2 pounds.
37) What is the antagonist for an overdose of a benzodiazapine?
a) narcan
b) mag sulfate
c) romazicon
d) labatelol
c) romazicon
The majority of ischemic strokes are caused by:
a) Thromboembolism
b) Atherosclerotic occlusion
c) Aneurysmal rupture
d) Acute hypertension
a) Thromboembolism
One of the most common causes of PEA is?
a) Pneumothorax
b) Hyperkalemia
c) Hypovolemia
d) Drug Overdose
c) Hypovolemia
40) Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ischemic stroke?
a) Cigarette smoking
b) Hypertension
c) Diabetes mellitus
d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
d) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
41) Which of the following personnel are ultimately responsible for the scene of a multiple casualty incident?
a) Incident commander
b) Triage officer
c) Operations Chief
d) Staging officer
a) Incident commander
42) The maximum amount of fluid given to a trauma patient should be no more than_____.
a) 500 ml’s
b) 1000 ml’s
c) 2000 ml’s
d) 3000 ml’s
d) 3000 ml’s
43) The ligament that suspends the liver and can cause massive bleeding in trauma known as the:
a) Ligimentum arteriosum
b) Ligimentum venosum
c) Ligimentum teres
d) Ligimentum liverosum
c) Ligimentum teres
44) In any hazmat incident, your vehicle and crew should always be ___________ from the incident.
a) Uphill, Upwind
b) Uphill, Downwind
c) Downhill, Upwind
d) Downhill, Downwind
a) Uphill, Upwind
45) . The endocrine system comprises a network of ___________ that produce and secrete chemical messengers called ____________.
a) glands, hormones
b) nodes, catecholamines
c) vessels, leukotrienes
d) synapses, neurotransmitters
a) glands, hormones
46) Molecules that bind to a cell’s receptor and trigger a response, resulting in some kind of action or biologic effect, are called:
a) agonists.
b) mediators.
c) antagonists.
d) neurotransmitters.
a) agonists.
47) The primary anatomic link between the endocrine system and the nervous system is/are the:
a) thalamus.
b) adrenal glands.
c) hypothalamus.
d) adrenal cortex.
c) hypothalamus.
48) The adrenal cortex produces hormones called _______________, which:
a) catecholamines, increase the blood pressure.
b) glucocorticoids, stimulate energy production.
c) gonadotropin, regulate testosterone production.
d) corticosteroids, regulate the body’s metabolism.
d) corticosteroids, regulate the body’s metabolism.
49) If the body experiences a drop in volume or blood pressure:
a) aldosterone stimulates the sweat glands, resulting in diaphoretic skin.
b) adrenocorticotropic hormone causes a reduction in the secretion of cortisol.
c) aldosterone secretion stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium from the urine.
d) catecholamine release inhibits the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver.
c) aldosterone secretion stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium from the urine.
50) The adrenal medulla secretes norepinephrine following stimulation from the:
a) brain stem.
b) diencephalon.
c) hypothalamus.
d) pituitary gland.
c) hypothalamus.
51) When the pancreas does not produce enough insulin or the cells do not respond to the effects of the insulin that is produced:
a) the cells will metabolize oxygen and function normally.
b) glucose levels in the blood and urine will be elevated.
c) serum glucose levels will fall and brain damage may occur.
d) the body will stop making glucose as a protective mechanism.
b) glucose levels in the blood and urine will be elevated.
52) Type 1 diabetes that is secondary to an autoimmune disorder occurs when:
a) the body builds up antibodies that destroy the islets of Langerhans.
b) insufficient white blood cells predispose the pancreas to infection.
c) glucagon and insulin are destroyed by phagocytic white blood cells.
d) the patient experiences an allergic reaction to his or her own glucose.
a) the body builds up antibodies that destroy the islets of Langerhans.
53) Patients with hyperosmolar hyperglycemic nonketotic coma (HHNC):
a) present with severe dehydration and neurologic deficits.
b) experience more severe acidosis than patients with DKA.
c) typically require prehospital sodium bicarbonate therapy.
d) most commonly have a history of type 1 diabetes mellitus.
a) present with severe dehydration and neurologic deficits.
54) Adrenal insufficiency is characterized by decreased function of the ______________ and consequent underproduction of:
a) adrenal glands, catecholamines.
b) adrenal medulla, norepinephrine.
c) adrenal cortex, cortisol and aldosterone.
d) adrenal glands, epinephrine and norepinephrine.
c) adrenal cortex, cortisol and aldosterone.
55) The primary role of cortisol is to:
a) Maintain an adequate blood pressure.
b) Assist with the body’s response to stress.
c) Regulate the metabolism of carbohydrates.
d) Decrease the body’s inflammatory response.
b) Assist with the body’s response to stress.
56) Which of the following would MOST likely cause Cushing’s syndrome?
a) Abrupt termination of steroids such as prednisone and hydrocortisone
b) Administration of large amounts of methylprednisolone to an asthma patient
c) An acute decrease in cortisol secretion secondary to an infection or malignancy
d) Underuse of corticosteroids for illnesses such as rheumatoid arthritis and asthma
b) Administration of large amounts of methylprednisolone to an asthma patient
57) Signs and symptoms of hypothyroidism include:
a) tachycardia and hypertension.
b) hot, flushed skin and restlessness.
c) diarrhea and emotional lability.
d) bradycardia and sluggish reflexes.
d) bradycardia and sluggish reflexes.
58) Unlike hypothyroidism, hyperthyroidism:
a) results in a decreased cardiac output.
b) causes a decrease in the metabolic rate.
c) causes an increase in oxygen demand.
d) often results in acute myxedema coma.
c) causes an increase in oxygen demand.
59) An antigen is MOST accurately defined as a:
a) chemical the immune system produces to destroy an allergen.
b) substance that causes the immune system to produce antibodies.
c) chemical mediator that deactivates foreign substances in the body.
d) harmless substance that the body does not recognize as being foreign.
b) substance that causes the immune system to produce antibodies.
60) An abnormal immune response that the body develops when it is reexposed to an allergen is called:
a) anaphylaxis.
b) secondary response.
c) hypersensitivity.
d) an allergic reaction.
d) an allergic reaction.
61) Physiological effects of histamine include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) systemic vasodilation.
b) pulmonary vasodilation.
c) severe bronchoconstriction.
d) increased vascular permeability.
b) pulmonary vasodilation.
62) When a person is vaccinated against a disease:
a) the body develops antibodies in response to the vaccine and produces an immune response before the disease can enter the body and cause damage.
b) the immune system does not produce any antibodies against that particular disease unless he or she is directly or indirectly exposed to it.
c) a secondary response occurs, as antibodies are produced and the vaccinated person experiences a milder form of the disease against which he or she has been vaccinated.
d) smaller titers of the disease are injected into the person, which results in the production of antibodies that cause histamine release and a mild allergic reaction.
a) the body develops antibodies in response to the vaccine and produces an immune response before the disease can enter the body and cause damage.
63) Histamine release causes all of the following effects, EXCEPT:
a) vasodilation, which results in flushed skin and hypotension.
b) contraction of the smooth muscles of the respiratory system.
c) increased cardiac contractility, which results in hypertension.
d) increased vascular permeability, which results in tissue edema.
c) increased cardiac contractility, which results in hypertension.
64) Hypotension secondary to histamine release is due to:
a) profound bradycardia and vascular dilation.
b) decreased cardiac filling because of tachycardia.
c) vasodilation and decreased cardiac contractility.
d) capillary leakage and increased cardiac afterload.
c) vasodilation and decreased cardiac contractility.
65) Early clinical manifestations of an allergic reaction include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) pruritis.
b) stridor.
c) urticaria.
d) coughing.
b) stridor.
66) The three MOST significant indicators of anaphylactic shock are:
A. hives, chest tightness, and restlessness.
B. dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia.
C. pruritis, peripheral swelling, and urticaria.
D. dizziness, flushed skin, and abdominal pain.
B. dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia.
67) The MOST ominous respiratory sign in a patient with anaphylactic shock is:
A. diminished lung sounds.
B. loud expiratory wheezing.
C. diffuse coarse crackles.
D. labored tachypnea.
A. diminished lung sounds.
68) In the absence of IV or IO access, the \_\_\_\_ route is the MOST appropriate route for the administration of an adrenergic agonist to a patient in anaphylactic shock. A. IM B. ET C. SC D. intradermal
A. IM
69) Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) is used to treat allergic reactions because it:
A. binds to H2 receptors and blocks histamine release.
B. blocks the histamine effects at the H1 receptor sites.
C. destroys histamines and blocks their further release.
D. reverses the vasodilatory and bronchoconstrictive effects.
B. blocks the histamine effects at the H1 receptor sites.
70) Which of the following medications has the SLOWEST onset of action when given to a patient with a severe allergic reaction?
A. Albuterol
B. Glucagon
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Methylprednisolone
D. Methylprednisolone
71) Which of the following statements regarding the renal system is MOST correct?
A. Urinary tract infections are more prevalent in men.
B. The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneal space.
C. Urinary tract infections are the most common renal disease.
D. The urethra transports urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
B. The kidneys are located in the retroperitoneal space.
72) Angiotensin II:
A. relaxes smooth muscle.
B. decreases sodium resorption.
C. decreases blood pressure.
D. is a potent vasoconstrictor.
D. is a potent vasoconstrictor.
73) Acute pulmonary edema:
A) commonly results from right-sided heart failure.
B) results in excess elimination of carbon dioxide.
C) is characterized by progressively worsening dyspnea.
D) impairs oxygen diffusion into the pulmonary capillaries.
D) impairs oxygen diffusion into the pulmonary capillaries.
74) Baroreceptors, which are located in the carotid artery, aorta, and kidneys, are MOST sensitive to changes in: A) fluid volume. B) blood pressure. C) acid-base balance. D) sodium concentrations.
B) blood pressure.
75) The MOST prevalent cation of the extracellular fluid is: A) sodium. B) chloride. C) potassium. D) bicarbonate.
A) sodium.
76) When renin is released:
A) the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II is inhibited, which facilitates excretion of sodium via the kidneys.
B) the lungs convert the plasma protein angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, which dilates the renal blood vessels and increases kidney function.
C) the pancreatic alpha cells secrete the hormone glucagon, which facilitates the conversion of glycogen to glucose in the liver.
D) the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which stimulates sodium reabsorption by the renal tubules.
D) the angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II, which stimulates sodium reabsorption by the renal tubules.
77) Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus:
A) need exogenous insulin to survive.
B) are less likely to develop ketoacidosis.
C) experience excessive cellular uptake of glucose.
D) control their disease with dietary modification.
A) need exogenous insulin to survive.
78) Unlike an allergic reaction, an autoimmune reaction: A) targets an antigen or allergen. B) is generally predictable. C) targets a person's own tissues. D) does not involve antibodies.
C) targets a person’s own tissues.
79) All of the following diseases are autoimmune diseases, EXCEPT: A) rheumatoid arthritis. B) type 1 diabetes. C) HIV infection. D) myasthenia gravis.
C) HIV infection.
80) The resistance stage of the stress reaction is characterized by:
A) an immediate release of the catecholamines epinephrine and norepinephrine, which causes the fight or flight response
B) a reduction of cortisol in the body, which predisposes the person to acute inflammatory processes.
C) stimulation of the adrenal glands to secrete hormones that increase blood glucose levels and maintain blood pressure.
D) adrenal gland depletion, which leads to decreased blood glucose levels, physical exhaustion, and immunocompromise.
C) stimulation of the adrenal glands to secrete hormones that increase blood glucose levels and maintain blood pressure.
81) Severe, prolonged stress:
A) is frequently a direct cause of death.
B) results in the destruction of cholesterol and fat.
C) causes the body to lose its ability to fight disease.
D) results in chronically low levels of cortisol.
C) causes the body to lose its ability to fight disease.
82) In contrast to ethics, morality is:
A) how you expect a person to behave.
B) what you think about a given issue.
C) the foundation for the actions you take.
D) your perception of what the patient thinks.
B) what you think about a given issue.
83) Patient autonomy is MOST accurately defined as the:
A) court’s support and upholding of the rights of a patient with regard to health care decisions.
B) patient’s right to direct his or her own care and to decide how end-of-life care should be provided.
C) inability of the patient to refuse medical treatment once he or she has given appropriate consent.
D) right of the patient to determine which medications the paramedic should administer for a given situation.
B) patient’s right to direct his or her own care and to decide how end-of-life care should be provided.
84) The first rule of medical practice is to: A) do no harm. B) provide medical care. C) maintain a sympathetic attitude D) recognize critically ill patients.
A) do no harm.
