Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which tract fibers cross gradually to the other side

A

Ipsilateral fibers

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2
Q

Which tract fibers cross immediately

A

Contralateral fibers

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3
Q

What percentage of corticospinal tract fibers originate from areas behind the central sulcus including the primary somatosensory cortex

A

40%

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4
Q

What percentage of corticospinal tract fibers originate from the precentral gyrus

A

60%

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5
Q

Greater than 1/2 of the primary motor cortex is devoted to control of what

A

Hands and speech

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6
Q

What assumes the least amount of space on the motor homonculous

A

Axial trunk/ equilibrium

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7
Q

A stroke that lesions the posterior limb internal capsule would be associated with what

A

Loss of movement

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8
Q

A stroke that lesions the post central gyrus would be associated with what

A

Loss of sensation

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9
Q

A stroke that lesions the occipital lobe would be associated with what

A

Loss of vision

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10
Q

If there is a lesion of the high brain stem also known as a decorticit lesion would have what clinical findings

A

Spasticity

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11
Q

If there is a lesion of the middle brain stem also known as a deceribrit lesion would have what clinical findings

A

Rigidity

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12
Q

If there is a lesion of the low brain stem also known as a spinal lesion would have what clinical findings

A

Flaccidity

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13
Q

Which brainstem area that receives stimulation from the vestibular nuclei and transmits excitatory signals to stimulate the axial trunk and extensor muscles that support the body against gravity

A

Pontine reticular nuclei

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14
Q

What nucleus stimulates extensor tone

A

Pontine reticular nuclei

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15
Q

What nuclei inhibits extensor tone

A

Medullary reticular nuclei

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16
Q

With regard to postural control, if descending cortical signals are blocked, what is expected result

A

Increased extensor tone

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17
Q

What is the function of dynamic signal from pyramidal cells to alpha motor neurons

A

Initiation of skeletal muscle contraction

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18
Q

What is true about postural reflexes

A

Impossible to separate from voluntary movements
Maintain body in up-right balanced position
Maintain stable postural background for voluntary movement
Adjustments include both static reflexes and physic reflexes
Can be altered with training

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19
Q

As the neck is rotated to the right what happens

A

Flexors facilitated on the left, extensors facilitated on the right

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20
Q

At the onset of clockwise rotation what would you expect happens in the VIII cranial nerve on the left side

A

Decrease in firing rate

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21
Q

After 20 clockwise rotations with the eyes closed on a revolving stool the subject is abruptly stopped and the eyes are opened. What is observed

A

Lateral nystagmus with the slow component clockwise

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22
Q

When supine head tilt is best detected by what

A

Saccule

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23
Q

What is used to detect head tilt when the person is upright, sitting or standing

A

Utricle

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24
Q

Signals from neck proprioceptors typically augment signals from the vestibular apparatus as the head and neck are rotated and have similar effects on limb flexion

A

False

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25
Q

In backward sway what sequence of contraction of muscles to maintain balance would occur

A

Tibialis, quadriceps and abdominals

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26
Q

When leaning forwards what is the sequence of muscle contractions

A

Gastronemius, hamstrings, then paraspinals

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27
Q

What would happen to a repetitive simple stretch reflex if when the muscle contracts it destabilizes posture

A

It would be inhibited

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28
Q

What are the spinal pathways discussed in class

A

Spinocerrebellar
Nigralstriatal
Rubrospinal

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29
Q

Which basal ganglia circuit plays a major role in cognitive control of motor activity

A

Caudate circuit

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30
Q

What circuit is related to muscle memory of learned movement

A

Putamen circuit

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31
Q

Ones sense of upright is generally a combination of cues that include both visual and vestibular formation

A

True

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32
Q

What effect does the striatum babe on the substantial nigra

A

Inhibitory GABA projections

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33
Q

Which area acts As a comparator, comparing intention with actual , motor performance and can effect the cerebellum via climbing fibers

A

Inferior olivary nucleus

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34
Q

Strong stimulation of one climbing fiber would elicit what

A

Complex action potential from a few purkinje cells

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35
Q

Spontaneous and continuous writhing movements is associated with a lesion in which are

A

Globus pallidis

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36
Q

Lesion in what region is related to hemiballism, violent random movments

A

Subthalamus

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37
Q

Lesion in which region is related to flicking, resting tremor (Parkinsonian tremor)

A

Putamen

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38
Q

A patient presents with a resting tremor, lead pipe rigidity in the extremities, voluntary movments are accurate but sllow where is the lesion likely found

A

Basal ganglia

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39
Q

Lesion in which area would be related to loss of control of emotions and rational

A

Hypothalamus

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40
Q

Lesion in which area is related to loss of control, paralysis

A

Brain stem

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41
Q

Lesion in which area is related to loss of skilled movement

A

Cerebellum

42
Q

A patient presents with ataxia, upon examination they are unable to perform rapid alternating movements and unable to check movements of the right arm, where is the lesion likely found

A

Right side of the cerebellum

43
Q

What is the name up the super long fucking ridiculous spinal tract that we have to know

A

Cortico-ponto-cerebello-rubro-thalamo-cortico-spinal

44
Q

Then ventral spinocerebellar tract gains access to the cerebellum primarily via which peduncle

A

Superior

45
Q

If you administer yohimbine (alpha 2 blocker) and then stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, what effect do you expect on the amount of norepinephrine released

A

Increased

46
Q

What is associated with a mass SNS discharge

A

Increased arterial blood pressure
Decreased flow to visceral organs
Increase in blood glucose metabolism

47
Q

Denervation supersensativity is likely associated with what adaptation

A

Up regulation of receptors by the target tissue

48
Q

What is the effect of the SNS stimulation on most vascular smooth muscle

A

Constrict

49
Q

Inhibitory neurons from the my enteric plexus release what neurotransmitters

A

Dynorphin

Vasoactive intestinal peptide

50
Q

Excitatory motor neurons from myenteric plexus releases what neurotransmitters

A

Acetylcholine

Substance P

51
Q

A patient presents with a slight ptosis of the left eye, but the right pupil appears dilated compared to the left, and they report that the left side of their face never sweats what your opinion Doctor

A

Interruption of the left sympathetic supply to the face

52
Q

In primary cultures of postganglionic SNS neurons, what inhibits the release of norepinephrine

A

Nitric oxide

GABA

53
Q

In primary culture of postganglionic SNS neurons what facilitates the release of norepinephrine

A

Acetylcholine

Corticotrophin

54
Q

If there is a facilitated spinal segment at T6. What would you expect when 3Kg of pressure is applied to the spinous process at T10 which is not in a state of segmental facilitation

A

Exaggerated respond in adjacent paraspinals muscles only at T6

55
Q

How much pressure can be applied to a normal vertebrae eliciting only a minimal response in the adjacent paraspinal muscles

A

7Kg

56
Q

The CNS coordinates host activity

A

True

57
Q

Which corticospinal fibers form the ventral corticospinal tract

A

Ipsilateral fibers

58
Q

Bipolar, ganglionic, horizontal and a scribe cells are all associated with what

A

Retina

59
Q

The image on the retina is inverted, the brain flips the image

A

True

60
Q

What effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the lens

A

Makes it more convex

61
Q

A convex lens with a focal length of 10 meters would have a refractive power of how many diopters

A

1 D’

62
Q

When the lens is concave would the dioptic power be positive or negative

A

Negative

63
Q

If the lens is convex would the dioptic power be positive or negative

A

Positive

64
Q

When reading small print from a book, stimulation of what division of thee autonomic nervous system would help bring those words into focus

A

Parasympathetic

65
Q

In an individual with an astigmatism, what would be most commonly defective

A

Cornea

66
Q

The are of most acute vision on the retina is the fovea central is, what contributes to increased acuity

A

High density of cones
Slender cones
Neuronal retinal layers pushed aside

67
Q

Blockage of the canal of schlemm by debris accumulation in the trabeculae spaces would lead to what condition

A

Glaucoma

68
Q

Sympathetic stimulation has what effect on the amount of light entering the eye

A

Increases

69
Q

Light striking the retina causes what effect in the rods and cones

A

Hyperpolarization which decreases the neurotransmitter release

70
Q

Which bipolar cells are depolarizes by the neurotransmitter glutamate

A

OFF cells

71
Q

As the head moves, objects closer move across the visual field at what rate compared to objects further away

A

At a faster rate

72
Q

What is the function of a scribe cells in the retina

A

Transform sustained signal in the retina

73
Q

Which ganglion cells receive input mostly from bipolar cells, project to the parvocellular layers of the lateral geniculate nucleus, and are important in color vision

A

X cells (also known as P cells)

74
Q

In the visual cortex what is important in deciphering color signals

A

Blobs

75
Q

A lesion destroying the right optic tract would cause what type of visual field loss

A

Complete loss of vision in the left eye, left half of visual field bilaterally

76
Q

Loss of what population of cones results in the greatest reduction in their overall visual spectrum, in addition to creating color blindness

A

Red

77
Q

In dark adaptation which receptors adapt faster

A

Cones

78
Q

A lesion in the right IV CN would be detected in which of the following eye movements

A

Right eye unable to look up and medial

Right eye unable to look down and medial

79
Q

In the primary visual cortex, which cells are motion sensative to a bar of light moving across the retina

A

Complex

80
Q

Sound at 20 dB and 2000 Hz would be perceived as which of the following

A

Whisper

81
Q

As frequency of a sound increases from 20 to 1000 Hz what happens to hearing threshold

A

Decreases

82
Q

What best describes the normal function of the ossicles as sound is transmitted from the tympanic membrane to the oval window

A

Increases force but decreases amplitude

83
Q

Contraction of the draperies and tensor tympani muscles would hav what effect on impedance matching the ossicles

A

Decrease

84
Q

A person with know hearing loss in the right ear is tested with a tuning fork. Upon activation the tuning fork is placed on the midline of the skull and the sound lateralizes to the right ear. What can you conclude about hearing loss

A

Air conduction loss in the right ear

85
Q

Increased dis placement of the basilar membrane is associated with an increase in which aspect of sound

A

Loudness

86
Q

Which chamber is filled with endolymph

A

Scali media

87
Q

Hair cells near the helicotrema respond best to what sound

A

Low frequency

88
Q

What is the function of endochoclear potential

A

Sensitized hair cells

89
Q

What is part of the central auditory pathway

A

Cochlear nucleus
Lateral leminiscus
Inferior colliculus
Medial geniculate nucleus

90
Q

In the primary auditory cortex, low frequency sounds activate which neurons

A

Those located more anterior

91
Q

If an individual is blindfolded, a sound originating from directly in front of the subject is likely to be confused with a sound originating directly behind the subject due to primarily to what mechanism

A

In both cases no difference in time lag

92
Q

Which taste is most likely to cause a rejection of food

A

Bitter

93
Q

How is propylene glycol (anti-freeze) likely to taste

A

Sweet

94
Q

The VII CN carried impulses for taste from which area

A

Anterior 2/3 of the tongue

95
Q

All neural traffic for taste is projected to which stem nuclei

A

Nucleus traffic solitarius

96
Q

Corticofugal fibers can inhibit olfactory transmission by stimulation of what cells in the olfactory bulb

A

Granule cells

97
Q

Olfactory stimulation can elicit powerful emotional responses due to what

A

Connections with the luminiferous system

98
Q

Which olfactory pathway projects to the cortex without relaying through the thalamus

A

Less old-lateral

99
Q

The medial olfactory area is concerned primarily with what

A

Basic olfactory reflexes

100
Q

The lower tip of the post-central gyrus in the parietal Cortes and adjacent opercular insular area in the Sylvia’s fissure is the critical processing area for which modality

A

Conscious analysis of taste

101
Q

What is the date of an olfactory cell firing at a rate of 20 impulses/sec

A

That is a normal level of activation associated with stimulation