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Flashcards in Exam 1 Deck (96)
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1
Q

What is the basic structural unit of a muscle?

A

Muscle Fiber (Cell)

2
Q

Which connective tissue structure surrounds an individual muscle fiber?

A

Endomysium

3
Q

Muscle fibers are grouped into bundles known as ___.

A

Fasciculi

4
Q

Which structure surrounds a fasciculi: endomysium, perimysium, or epimysium?

A

Perimysium

5
Q

Which connective tissue structure continues as the tendon of a muscle?

A

Epimysium

6
Q

T/F: Skeletal muscle fibers are multinucleated.

A

True

7
Q

Which of the following is an increase in the size of a muscle: hypotrophy, hypertrophy, hypoplasia, hyperplasia?

A

Hypertrophy

8
Q

Which fiber type is associated with endurance activities and aerobic metabolism?

A

Type 1

9
Q

Which fiber type has more capillary beds and more mitochondria?

A

Type 1

10
Q

Type II muscle fibers use ____ metabolism.

A

anaerobic

11
Q

Type __ are considered “fast twitch” muscles.

A

Type II

12
Q

What is the name of the muscle cell membrane?

A

Sarcolemma

13
Q

What is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

Store and transport calcium ions

14
Q

What protein pigment gives color to muscle and stores the oxygen needed for the muscle?

A

Myoglobin

15
Q

What is the smallest functional unit of the myofibril?

A

Sarcomere (Z-line to Z-line)

16
Q

What is the thin, dark line down the center of each H-band: I-band, A-band, M-band, or Z-line?

A

M-band (M=middle)

17
Q

Actin is found mainly in the _-bands and myosin is found mainly in the _-bands.

A

Actin=I-band

Myosin=A-band

18
Q

What are the 2 regulatory proteins inhibit the interaction of actin and myosin?

A

Troponin & Tropomyosin

19
Q

Calcium binds with which regulatory molecule?

A

Troponin

20
Q

Where does the aerobic pathway take place?

A

Mitochondria

21
Q

Which pathway prefers to utilize creatine phosphate and glycogen?

A

Anaerobic pathway

22
Q

What two benefits may the use of caffeine provide for athletes?

A

Burn fatty acids more efficiently (aerobic pathway)

Increase calcium permeability

23
Q

Which type of anabolic steroid has fewer side effects but is detectable for a longer period of time?

A

Oil-based

24
Q

What are some short term side effects of anabolic steroid use?

A
Headaches, dizziness, nausea,
back-acne
testicular atrophy
increased aggressiveness
gynecomastia
tendon damage
25
Q

What is the chemical composition of muscle?

A

75% water
20% protein
5% other

26
Q

A single motor neuron and the group of muscle fibers which it supplies is known as the ___ __.

A

Motor unit

27
Q

T/F: Precision type of activities contain motor units with fewer number of fibers.

A

True

28
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction?

A

Acetylcholine (ACH)

29
Q

Which enzyme recycles acetylcholine from the synaptic cleft?

A

Acetylcholinesterase (ACHe)

30
Q

Which autoimmune disease destroys ACH receptor sites?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

31
Q

T/F: Nicotine & snake venom both compete with ACH molecules and produce an action potential.

A

False: Nicotene can produce an action potential but snake venom cannot!

32
Q

What do organophosphates inactivate leading to constant muscle contraction?

A

Acetylcholinesterase

33
Q

T/F: Intrafusal muscle fibers have both afferent & efferent nerve fibers.

A

True

34
Q

Extrafusal muscle fibers only have afferent or efferent nerves associated with them?

A

ONLY efferent

35
Q

What do Golgi tendon organs detect?

A

Stretch of the tendon

36
Q

What are Sharpey’s fibers?

A

Portions of collagen fibers of a tendon or ligament that penetrate into the bone giving a firm attachment site

37
Q

What is an avulsion fracture?

A

When a fragment of bone is pulled out with the collagen fibers

38
Q

Tendons have only ___ innervation.

A

Afferent; there is no motor function to tendons

39
Q

Endurance muscles usually have which type of muscle fiber arrangement?

A

Pennate

40
Q

Type II muscles generally are arranged in which fashion: pennate or parallel?

A

Parallel (aka Strap)

41
Q

A muscle that produces the opposite effect from the agonist is known as the ___.

A

Antagonist

42
Q

What is reciprocal innervation?

A

When a muscle contracts and the antagonist simultaneously relaxes

43
Q

____ Phenomenon occurs in a newborn when both agonists and antagonists contract at the same time.

A

Co-Reflex Phenomenon

44
Q

What 2 bones make up the shoulder girdle?

A

Scapula & Clavicle

45
Q

What are the 3 unique facts about the clavicle?

A
  1. Undergoes both intramembranous and endochondral ossification.
  2. First bone to start ossifying (5th-6th wk of development)
  3. One of last to complete ossification (about 25 y.o.)
46
Q

Where is the clavicle most frequently fractured?

A

First curvature

47
Q

Which condition has abnormal ossification of the clavicle and skull bones, potentially even missing clavicles?

A

Cleidocranial dysostosis

48
Q

How many ossification centers does the scapula have?

A

7; 1 primary and 6 secondary

49
Q

__ ___ is when the acromion process fails to fuse with the rest of the bone.

A

Os Acromidae

50
Q

What is Sprengel’s Deformity?

A

Undescended scapula due to it’s attachment to cervical vertebra.

51
Q

The mammary glands are superficial to which muscles?

A

Pectoralis major

Serratus Anterior

52
Q

What is the space where a small drop of milk can accumulate near the end of the lactiferous duct?

A

Lactiferous sinus

53
Q

How many lobes are in each mammary gland?

A

15-20 lobes

54
Q

__ & __ are hormones secreted by the ovaries and placenta.

A

Estrogen & Progesterone

55
Q

Where is prolactin secreted from and what is it’s action?

A

Anterior pituitary; promotes milk production after birth

56
Q

Where is oxytocin secreted from and what is it’s action?

A

Posterior pituitary; promotes the release of milk

57
Q

What are the 1st secretions from the functional mammary gland?

A

Colostrum

58
Q

Which contains the most immunoglobulins: colostrum, transitional milk, or mature milk?

A

Colostrum

59
Q

When are inverted nipples concerning?

A

If it’s recent; could be indicative of carcinoma pulling on the ducts.

60
Q

What is galactorrhea?

A

Secretions from the breast that is not associated w/ pregnancy or lactation

61
Q

What is gynecomastia?

A

Enlargement and development of breast tissue in males; common in puberty

62
Q

How many ossification centers does the humerus have?

A

8; 1 primary & 7 secondary

63
Q

A humeral fracture at the surgical neck could injure which nerve?

A

Axillary nerve

64
Q

A humeral fracture of the shaft could injure which nerve?

A

Radial nerve

65
Q

What is the nerve supply to the pectoralis major?

A

Medial & Lateral Pectoral nerves

66
Q

What muscles are absent in Poland’s Syndrome?

A

Pectoralis Major, Pectoralis Minor

also atrophy of mammary glands on that side, and absence of ribs

67
Q

Where does the pectoralis minor insert?

A

Coracoid process of the scapula

68
Q

T/F: Pectoralis major and minor have the same innervation.

A

False: Pec. major is Medial & Lateral Pectoral nerves

Pec. minor is MEDIAL Pectoral only!

69
Q

Which roots help supply the subclavius muscle?

A

C5, C6

70
Q

What is the anterior wall of the axilla formed by?

A

Pectoralis major

71
Q

T/F: The posterior wall of the axilla is formed by the latissimus dorsi and the teres minor.

A

False…latissimus dorsi and teres MAJOR

72
Q

The lower trunk of the brachial plexus is formed by the union of __ and __.

A

C8 & T1

73
Q

Which roots help to make up the lateral cord?

A

C5, C6, C7

74
Q

The cords of the brachial plexus are named to show their relationship to what?

A

The axillary artery

75
Q

Which two nerves come directly off spinal nerves?

A

Dorsal Scapular,

Long Thoracic

76
Q

What 3 muscles are supplied by the dorsal scapular nerve?

A

Rhomboid Major & Minor, Levator Scapulae

77
Q

What is the serratus anterior supplied by?

A

Long Thoracic Nerve (C5, C6, C7)

78
Q

Which nerve passes through the belly of the coracobrachialis muscle?

A

Musculocutaneous Nerve

79
Q

Which nerve may give off the accessory phrenic nerve?

A

Nerve to Subclavius (C5, C6)

80
Q

Which nerve continues into the forearm as the lateral antebrachial cutaneous nerve?

A

Musculocutaneous Nerve

81
Q

What is the segmental innervation of the medial brachial cutaneous nerve?

A

T1 only

82
Q

What is the only branch of the brachial plexus which is formed from more than one cord?

A

Median Nerve

83
Q

Which nerve would supply the cutaneous region over the thumb?

A

Median Nerve

84
Q

What is the motor supply from the upper subscapular nerve?

A

Subscapularis

85
Q

The triceps brachii are supplied by which nerve?

A

Radial Nerve

86
Q

The lateral side of the arm is which dermatome level?

A

C5

87
Q

The skin of the palm is in which dermatome level?

A

C7

88
Q

Which roots would contribute in a prefixed brachial plexus?

A

C4, C5, C6, C7, C8

89
Q

T/F: Erb-Duchenne Palsy results from an injury to the upper roots of the brachial plexus.

A

True

90
Q

How would an individual w/ Erb-Duchenne Palsy present?

A

Greatly disabled shoulder movements
Reasonably functional hand & digit movement
Loss of sensation on lateral aspect of arm & forearm

91
Q

What is an injury to the lower roots of the brachial plexus called?

A

Klumpke’s Palsy

92
Q

Which is more common: Erb-Duchenne or Klumpke?

A

Erb-Duchenne

93
Q

What is Thoracic Outlet Syndrome?

A

Compression of cords of brachial plexus and axillary artery (both neurological and vascular problems)

  • pain & paresthesia
  • decr. skin temp and limb fatigue
94
Q

What does the axillary artery continue as?

A

Brachial artery

95
Q

What are the 6 specific branches of the axillary artery?

A
  1. Superior Thoracic
  2. Thoracoacromial
  3. Lateral Thoracic
  4. Subscapular
    5 & 6. Anterior and Posterior Humeral Circumflex
96
Q

Which of the following is not a branch of the thoracoacromial artery: acromial, scapular, pectoral, clavicular, or deltoid?

A

Scapular