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211

The notion that there are three major life tasks – ‬friendship,‭ ‬occupation,‭ ‬and love – ‬is MOST consistent with the philosophy of:
A. Perls.
B. Berne.
C. Rogers.
D. Adler.

D. Adler - CORRECT Adler believed that people are motivated primarily by an innate social interest and that the goal in life is to act in ways that fulfill social responsibilities. The three tasks listed in the question (friendship, occupation, and love) all involve social interactions. Of the individuals listed, one is most associated with an emphasis on social factors (i.e., social interest).(Clinical Psychology)

212

In a research study,‭ ‬a social psychologist offers participants either ‬$1.00‭ ‬or‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬to tell potential participants that a dull experiment was very interesting.‭ ‬With regard to cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory,‭ ‬which of the following is true‭?
A. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment.
B. Self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment.
C. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition.
D. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition.

C. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition - CORRECT Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the $1.00 condition will report liking the dull experiment more than will those in the $20.00 condition in order to reduce the dissonance they feel about describing the dull study as interesting to potential participants. In contrast, self-perception theory predicts that participants in the $1.00 condition will report greater liking for the dull experiment because they will evaluate their actual opinion of the study by looking at their overt behavior (telling others that the experiment was interesting). Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory make the same prediction about the outcome of the study described in this question but do so for different reasons.
A. Cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment - Incorrect
B. Self-perception theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment,‭ ‬while cognitive dissonance theory predicts that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment - Incorrect
D. Cognitive dissonance theory and self-perception theory both predict that participants in the‭ ‬$20.00‭ ‬condition will subsequently report greater liking for the dull experiment than will those in the‭ ‬$1.00‭ ‬condition - Incorrect
(Social Psychology)

213

Trend analysis is a type of analysis of variance that is used when:
A. a study’s independent variable is quantitative.
B. a study’s dependent variable is qualitative.
C. a cross-sectional research design has been used.
D. a factorial research design has been used.

A. a study’s independent variable is quantitative - CORRECT Trend analysis is used when a study involves a quantitative independent variable, and the researcher wants to determine the shape of the relationship between the independent and dependent variables. The results of the trend analysis indicate whether or not there is a statistically significant linear or nonlinear (quadratic, cubic, quartic) trend. Trend analysis is a type of analysis of variance that is used to evaluate linear and nonlinear trends.
B. a study’s dependent variable is qualitative - Incorrect
C. a cross-sectional research design has been used -Incorrect
D. a factorial research design has been used - Incorrect
(Statistics and Research Design)

214

The keyword method is most useful for:
A. remembering word pairs.
B. remembering a long list of unrelated words.
C. recalling the order of mathematical operations.
D. mastering spatial relationships.

A. remembering word pairs - CORRECT The keyword method is useful for learning pairs of words such as the English and Spanish equivalents for words or the capitals of states.
B. remembering a long list of unrelated words - Incorrect An acronym is more useful for learning lists of unrelated words.
C. recalling the order of mathematical operations - Incorrect The method of loci and the pegword method are useful for recalling ordered information.
D. mastering spatial relationships - Incorrect The keyword method is not useful for this purpose.
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

215

Presbyopia refers to loss of:
A. far vision.
B. near vision.
C. color vision.
D. depth perception.

B. near vision - CORRECT People with presbyopia have difficulty focusing on objects that are close. Presbyopia occurs when the lens of the eye loses its ability to focus. Many people begin to experience presbyopia in their mid-40s.
(Lifespan Development)

216

A researcher reports that she calculated a Cohen’s d of‭ ‬.50‭ ‬for the data she collected in a study that compared two brief treatments for generalized anxiety disorder.‭ ‬This means that:
A. there was a difference of one-half standard deviation between the means of the two groups.
B. there was a difference of one-fourth standard deviation between the means of the two groups.
C. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬50%.
D. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬25%.

A. there was a difference of one-half standard deviation between the means of the two groups - CORRECT A Cohen’s d of .50 indicates that one group obtained a mean that is one-half standard deviation higher than the mean obtained by the other group. Cohen’s d is a measure of effect size. It indicates the difference between the means of two groups in terms of standard deviations.
B. there was a difference of one-fourth standard deviation between the means of the two groups - Incorrect
C. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬50% - Incorrect
D. the percent of variance accounted for by the difference in treatments was‭ ‬25% - Incorrect
(Statistics and Research Design)

217

A person who received a Level‭ ‬4‭ ‬rating on the Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning:
A. is nonresponsive to visual or auditory stimuli and seems to be in a state of deep sleep.
B. is confused and incoherent,‭ ‬may exhibit bizarre behavior,‭ ‬and is unable to care for him/herself.
C. is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairment in judgment,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬and abstract reasoning.
D. is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for his/her age,‭ ‬education,‭ ‬and demographic background.

B. is confused and incoherent,‭ ‬may exhibit bizarre behavior,‭ ‬and is unable to care for him/herself - CORRECT The behaviors described in this answer are characteristic of Level 4. The Rancho Los Amigos Scale of Cognitive Functioning was developed as a method for monitoring recovery from head trauma and involves rating the individual in terms of eight levels of functioning.
A. is nonresponsive to visual or auditory stimuli and seems to be in a state of deep sleep - Incorrect This describes behaviors characteristic of Level 1.
C. is alert and oriented and can remember and integrate remote and recent events but may have some impairment in judgment,‭ ‬planning,‭ ‬and abstract reasoning - Incorrect This answer describes Level 8 functioning.
D. is functioning at an intellectual level that is superior for his/her age,‭ ‬education,‭ ‬and demographic background - Incorrect This answer does not accurately describe any of the levels of functioning assessed by the Rancho Los Amigos Scale.
(Psychological Assessment)

218

According to Hersey and Blanchard’s situational leadership model,‭ ‬a leader should use a‭ "‬participative‭" ‬style for subordinates who have:
A. low ability and low motivation.
B. low ability and high motivation.
C. high ability and low motivation.
D. high ability and high motivation.

C. high ability and low motivation - CORRECT According to Hersey and Blanchard, a participative leadership style is most effective when subordinates have high levels of ability and low levels of motivation. Hersey and Blanchard's situational leadership model proposes that a leader is most effective when his/her leadership style matches subordinates' ability and motivation (willingness to accept responsibility).
A. low ability and low motivation - Incorrect A telling style is most effective for employees low in both ability and motivation.
B. low ability and high motivation - Incorrect A selling style is most effective for employees who are low in ability and high in motivation.
D. high ability and high motivation - Incorrect A delegating style is most effective for employees who are high in both ability and motivation.
(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

219

A score of‭ ‬50‭ ‬on the Beck Depression Inventory-II suggests:
A. no or minimal depression.
B. mild depression.
C. moderate depression.
D. severe depression.

D. severe depression - CORRECT An examinee’s score on the BDI-II can range from 0 to 63, and scores of 29 and above are considered indicative of severe depression. The Beck Depression Inventory-II consists of 21 items that the examinee’s rates on a four-point scale ranging from 0 (minimal) to 3 (severe).
(Psychological Assessment)

220

A person who is ‬low in self-monitoring (‬Snyder,‭ ‬1987‭) ‬will rely on which of the following when deciding how to act in a particular social situation?
A. his/her life scripts.
B. his/her own feelings,‭ ‬attitudes,‭ ‬and beliefs.
C. the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people he/she is interacting with.
D. internal working models that were acquired during infancy and early childhood.

B. his/her own feelings,‭ ‬attitudes,‭ ‬and beliefs - CORRECT A person who is low in self-monitoring relies on his/her own feelings, attitudes, and beliefs when determining how to act in social situations and, as a result, acts similarly in different social situations. As defined by Snyder (1987), self-monitoring refers to the degree to which people are concerned about the impressions they convey to others in social situations and are able to control those impressions.
C. the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people he/she is interacting with - Incorrect People who are high in self-monitoring are concerned about the impressions that others have of them and, as a result, adapt their behaviors to the emotional reactions and behaviors of the people in each social situation.
D. internal working models that were acquired during infancy and early childhood - Incorrect.
(Social Psychology)

221

According to‭ ‬Bem’s‭ (‬1972‭) ‬self-perception theory:
A. people experience discomfort (‬dissonance‭) ‬when their behaviors are not consistent with their attitudes,‭ ‬beliefs,‭ ‬or values.
B. people enhance their own sense of self-worth by associating or identifying with others who are successful.
C. people tend to attribute their successes to dispositional factors and failures to situational factors.
D. people infer their own attitudes and emotions by observing their own behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur.

D. people infer their own attitudes and emotions by observing their own behaviors and the circumstances in which those behaviors occur - CORRECT According to self-perception theory, we’re most likely to rely on external information for determining or judging our internal states when internal cues are ambiguous, weak, or difficult to interpret. Self-perception theory predicts that people judge or determine their own internal states in the same way that they determine the states of other people – i.e., by considering external cues.
A. people experience discomfort (‬dissonance‭) ‬when their behaviors are not consistent with their attitudes,‭ ‬beliefs,‭ ‬or values - Incorrect This is predicted by cognitive dissonance theory but not by self-perception theory.
B. people enhance their own sense of self-worth by associating or identifying with others who are successful - Incorrect This is not a prediction of self-perception theory.
C. people tend to attribute their successes to dispositional factors and failures to situational factors - Incorrect This answer describes the self-serving bias.
(Social Psychology)

222

Unilateral damage to the left‭ (‬dominant‭) ‬hemisphere is‭ ‬least likely to result in an inability to:
A. memorize vocabulary words.
B. construct a daily schedule.
C. read a map.
D. use the process of elimination to answer multiple-choice questions.

C. read a map - CORRECT Of the activities listed in the answers, the ability to read a map would most likely be impaired by damage to the right hemisphere. In contrast, damage to the left hemisphere would have the effects listed in answers a, b, and d. Although the two hemispheres of the cerebral cortex play a role in most behaviors, each hemisphere specializes with regard to certain functions. For most people language, math, and analytical thinking are left hemisphere functions, while the understanding of spatial relations, creativity, intuitive thinking, and the ability to recognize faces are right hemisphere functions.
(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

223

A person with Wernicke's aphasia has impaired language comprehension and:
A. nonfluent and unintelligible speech.
B. nonfluent but intelligible speech.
C. fluent but unintelligible speech.
D. fluent and intelligible speech.

C. fluent but unintelligible speech - CORRECT People with Wernicke's aphasia have fluent speech, but their speech is unintelligible because it contains multiple errors including sound and word substitutions. Wernicke's aphasia is characterized by a disruption in the ability to produce and comprehend language.
(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

224

A psychologist is designing a study that will investigate the impact of age on intelligence.‭ ‬The results of the psychologist’s study will most likely indicate that intelligence test scores begin to decline in early adulthood if she uses which of the following research designs‭?
A. cross-sequential
B. cross-sectional
C. longitudinal
D. analogue

B. cross-sectional - CORRECT Early cross-sectional studies on the relationship between age and IQ suggested that IQ scores begin to drop in late adolescence or early adulthood. Subsequent longitudinal and cross-sequential studies found, however, that this result was due more to methodology than to actual IQ score declines – i.e., the apparent age-related declines identified in cross-sectional studies were due to cohort (intergenerational) effects. The research has confirmed that the method used to investigate the impact of age on IQ can bias the results of the study.
(Psychological Assessment)

225

A primary concern about the long-term use of chlorpromazine is that it may result in the development of which of the following‭?
A. acute hypertensive crisis
B. profound anterograde amnesia
C. tardive dyskinesia
D. renal toxicity

C. tardive dyskinesia - CORRECT The long-term use of an antipsychotic drug – especially chlorpromazine or other conventional antipsychotic – can result in tardive dyskinesia, a neurological movement disorder involving involuntary movements of the lips, tongue, face, trunk, and extremities (e.g., facial grimacing, tongue protrusion, guitar and piano-playing movements).
A. acute hypertensive crisis - Incorrect This is a side effect of the MAOIs.
B. profound anterograde amnesia- Incorrect This is a potential side effect of triazolam and other benzodiazepines.
D. renal toxicity - Incorrect This is associated with the use of lithium.
(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

226

Tourette’s syndrome has been most consistently linked to abnormalities in which of the following structures of the brain‭?
A. dentate gyrus
B. pons
C. basal ganglia
D. mammillary bodies

C. basal ganglia - CORRECT The basal ganglia are involved in the control of movement and include the corpus striatum, caudate nucleus, putamen, and globus pallidus. Basal ganglia dysfunction has been implicated in a number of disorders including Tourette’s syndrome, ADHD, OCD, and schizophrenia. Tourette’s syndrome is a tic disorder that involves a combination of motor and vocal tics.
A. dentate gyrus - Incorrect The dentate gyrus is part of the hippocampus and is believed to be involved in memory consolidation.
B. pons - Incorrect The pons is a hindbrain structure that relays sensory information between the cerebellum and cortex, mediates reflexes related to breathing, and may play a role in sleep and dreaming.
D. mammillary bodies - Incorrect The mammillary bodies are connected to the hypothalamus, are involved in memory, and may play a role in the anterograde amnesia associated with Korsakoff's syndrome.
(Physiological Psychology/Psychopharmacology)

227

A measure of‭ __________ ‬would be most useful for determining the likelihood that employees will remain on the job for a long period of time.
A. job satisfaction
B. job productivity
C. intelligence
D. motivation

A. job satisfaction - CORRECT The correlation between satisfaction and turnover is one of the strongest reported in the literature, with lower levels of satisfaction being associated with higher levels of turnover. The other measures listed in the answers have not been found to correlate highly with turnover. Job satisfaction has been linked to a number of consequences, including turnover.
B. job productivity - Incorrect
C. intelligence - Incorrect
D. motivation - Incorrect
(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

228

According to Noam Chomsky’s nativist theory,‭ ‬language is largely the result of:
A. innate factors.
B. operant conditioning.
C. parental modeling.
D. cognitive development.

A. innate factors - CORRECT Chomsky proposed an innate language acquisition device that consists of language rules and that allows children to acquire language just by being exposed to it. As a nativist, Noam Chomsky views language as an innate skill.
B. operant conditioning - Incorrect
C. parental modeling - Incorrect
D. cognitive development - Incorrect
(Lifespan Development)

229

Which of the following strategies would probably be‭ ‬least effective for reducing‭ ‬aggressiveness in children‭?
A. exposure to a nonaggressive model
B. opportunities for catharsis
C. social skills training
D. a threat of retaliation from a high-status person

B. opportunities for catharsis - CORRECT Catharsis has not been found to be an effective way to reduce aggressive behavior. In fact, there is evidence that it may actually increase aggression. Note that this question is asking for the most ineffective method for reducing aggression.
A. exposure to a nonaggressive model - Incorrect The research has shown that exposure to models can increase both positive and negative behaviors.
C. social skills training - Incorrect In many cases, aggressiveness is due to a lack of alternative behaviors. Consequently, social skills training is often effective because its goal is to replace undesirable behaviors (e.g., aggression) with more desirable ones.
D. a threat of retaliation from a high-status person - Incorrect The research has shown that a threat of retaliation reduces aggression, at least in certain circumstances (e.g., when the threat comes from a person with high status or power and is not accompanied by provocation).
(Social Psychology)

230

Selye‭ (‬1956‭) ‬proposed that which of the following endocrine glands mediate the general adaptation syndrome‭?
A. thyroid and thymus
B. adrenal and pituitary
C. thyroid and parathyroid
D. pancreas and pineal

B. adrenal and pituitary - CORRECT Selye proposed that the general adaptation syndrome is mediated primarily by the adrenal and pituitary glands. For example, during the initial alarm stage, the hypothalamus activates the adrenal medulla which increases the production of epinephrine. According to Selye (1956), the general adaptation syndrome consists of three stages: alarm, resistance, and exhaustion.
(Physiological Psychology/ Psychopharmacology)

231

You would use a‭ "‬multitrait-multimethod matrix‭" ‬in order to:
A. compare a test''s predictive and concurrent validity.
B. determine if a test has adequate convergent and discriminant validity.
C. identify the common factors underlying a set of related constructs.
D. test hypotheses about the causal relationships among variables.

B. determine if a test has adequate convergent and discriminant validity - CORRECT When a measure correlates highly with other measures of the same trait, the measure has convergent validity; when it has low correlations with measures of different traits, it has discriminant (divergent) validity. Convergent and discriminant validity are used as evidence of construct validity, and the multitrait-multimethod matrix contains correlation coefficients that provide information about a measure’s convergent and discriminant validity. A multitrait-multimethod matrix contains the correlation coefficients between measures that do and do not purport to measure the same trait.
A. compare a test''s predictive and concurrent validity - Incorrect Predictive and concurrent validity are types of criterion-related validity. The multitrait-multimethod matrix is used to assess a measure's construct validity.
C. identify the common factors underlying a set of related constructs - Incorrect This answer describes factor analysis, which is used to identify the common factors that underlie a set of tests, test items, or other variables.
D. test hypotheses about the causal relationships among variables - Incorrect This answer doesn't describe the purpose of the multitrait-multimethod matrix.
(Test Construction)

232

Which of the following item difficulty‭ (‬p‭) ‬levels maximizes the differentiation of examinees into high-‭ ‬and low-performing groups:
A. 0.0
B. .50
C. .90
D. 1.50

B. .50 - CORRECT When p equals .50, this means that the item provides maximum differentiation between the upper- and lower-scoring examinees – i.e., a large proportion of examinees in the upper group answered the item correctly, while a small proportion of examinees in the lower group answered it correctly. An item difficulty level (p) ranges in value from 0 to +1.0 with a value of 0 indicating a very difficult item and a value of +1.0 indicating a very easy item. A difficulty index of .50 indicates that 50% of examinees in the try-out sample answered the item correctly.
(Test Construction)

233

According to the levels of processing model of memory,‭ ‬words and other information may be encoded at different levels,‭ ‬with‭ _______ ‬processing being the deepest level.
A. orthographic
B. phonemic
C. semantic
D. perceptual

C. semantic - CORRECT Craik and Lockhart distinguished between shallow and deep processing. According to their theory, shallow processing (processing words on the basis of their phonemic or orthographic characteristics) is less effective than deep processing (processing words at the semantic or meaning-based level). Craik and Lockhart’s (1972) levels of processing model proposes that the level (depth) of processing of information affects how well that information is retained.
D. perceptual - Incorrect Perceptual processing includes orthographic and phonemic processing, which are shallow levels.
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

234

Spinal cord injury at the‭ ________ ‬level is most likely to result in quadriplegia.
A. lumbar
B. sacral
C. cervical
D. thoracic

C. cervical - CORRECT Quadriplegia (the loss of sensory and motor functioning in the arms and legs) results from damage at the cervical level.
A. lumbar - Incorrect Damage at the lumbar level is likely to cause some loss of functioning in the hips and legs.
B. sacral - Incorrect Damage at the sacral level also causes loss of functioning in the hips and legs.
D. thoracic - Incorrect Paraplegia (loss of functioning in the legs) is caused by damage at the thoracic level.
(Physiological Psychology/ Psychopharmacology)

235

A‭ "‬cover story‭" ‬that causes research participants to think that the purpose of the study they are participating in is something other than what it really is would be most helpful for controlling which of the following‭?
A. Hawthorne effect
B. Rosenthal effect
C. demand characteristics
D. differential attrition

C. demand characteristics - CORRECT Demand characteristics are cues in the experimental setting that inadvertently convey information to participants about what behavior is expected. If participants do not know what the purpose of the study is, they will be less susceptible to the effects of any cues that happen to be present.In the situation described in this question, participants will not know the real purpose of the study. As long as you’re familiar with the phenomena listed in the answers, you should have been able to recognize which phenomenon would be impacted by this lack of knowledge.
A. Hawthorne effect - Incorrect The Hawthorne effect is the tendency for the performance of research participants to improve as the result of the attention they receive as research participants. In other words, it is knowing that they are in a study (not knowing the purpose of the study) that impacts performance.
B. Rosenthal effect - Incorrect The Rosenthal (self-fulfilling prophecy) effect refers to the impact of a teacher's expectations about the performance of his/her students on their actual performance.
D. differential attrition - Incorrect Differential attrition occurs when participants who drop out of one group differ in a systematic way from those who drop out of another group and this difference affects the study’s results.
(Statistics and Research Design)

236

Research comparing heterogeneous and homogeneous work groups has found that,‭ ‬in general,‭ ‬heterogeneous groups:
A. are more creative and better at decision-making.
B. are more creative but less productive overall.
C. make better decisions but are less productive overall.
D. are more creative but worse at decision-making.

A. are more creative and better at decision-making - CORRECT Much of the research on group heterogeneity has focused on its effects on creativity and decision-making and has found a positive effect of heterogeneity on both measures of performance. Most studies have found that groups are more effective when members are heterogeneous with regard to gender, personality, experience, skills, etc.
B. are more creative but less productive overall - Incorrect
C. make better decisions but are less productive overall - Incorrect
D. are more creative but worse at decision-making - Incorrect
(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

237

Which of the following best‭ ‬describes elaborative rehearsal‭?
A. making new information meaningful
B. consciously repeating new information
C. practicing a new skill past the point of mastery
D. ‭“‬thinking aloud‭” ‬while studying

A. making new information meaningful - CORRECT The term elaborative rehearsal is used to describe the process of making new information meaningful in order to enhance its retention and retrieval. Relating new information to previously acquired information is one type of elaborative rehearsal. Researchers interested in memory distinguish between two types of rehearsal – elaborative and maintenance.
B. consciously repeating new information - Incorrect This sounds more like maintenance rehearsal which involves the rote repetition of information.
C. practicing a new skill past the point of mastery - Incorrect This describes “overlearning.”
D. ‭“‬thinking aloud‭” ‬while studying - Incorrect This does not describe elaborative rehearsal.
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)

238

When performing a(n‭) ________ ‬task,‭ ‬group members select a solution offered by one of the group members as the group’s solution.
A. compensatory
B. disjunctive
C. conjunctive
D. additive

B. disjunctive - CORRECT For disjunctive tasks, the group selects a solution (ideally the optimal solution) from those proposed by individual group members.
A. compensatory - Incorrect In a compensatory task, the group’s performance is the average of the effort or performance of the individual members.
C. conjunctive - Incorrect On conjunctive tasks, group members act in unison, which means that the group product is limited by the performance of the weakest member.
D. additive - Incorrect When working on an additive task, the group product is the sum of the contributions of each member.
(Industrial/Organizational Psychology)

239

Research on gender differences in conversation style indicates that,‭ ‬when compared to men,‭ ‬women:
A. talk for longer periods of time.
B. ask more questions.
C. interrupt more often.
D. make more eye contact.

B. ask more questions - CORRECT Women are more likely to ask questions during a conversation, and men tend to talk for longer periods of time, interrupt more frequently, and make more eye contact. Research has identified several consistent gender differences in conversation style.
(Lifespan Development)

240

Images and sounds are maintained in sensory memory for:
A. an indefinite period of time.
B. minutes to days,‭ ‬depending on the depth of encoding.
C. about‭ ‬60‭ ‬to‭ ‬90‭ ‬seconds.
D. less than‭ ‬5‭ ‬seconds.

D. less than‭ ‬5‭ ‬seconds - CORRECT Sensory memory includes a separate store for each sense, and the duration of sensory memory varies somewhat, depending on the sense. For iconic (visual) memories, the duration is about .5 to 1.0 seconds; for echoic (auditory) memories, the duration is up to 4 or 5 seconds. Sensory memory provides very brief storage of incoming sensory input.
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)