Flashcards in EPPP Test Questions Deck (310)
The major advantage of using a forced-choice method as an employee performance appraisal technique is that:
A. it is easy to develop and use.
B. it provides specific information for employee feedback.
C. it helps alleviate leniency and other biases.
D. it provides an objective measure of job performance.
C. it helps alleviate leniency and other biases (CORRECT) This technique was developed specifically to reduce rater biases, and there is some evidence that it accomplishes this goal. When using the forced-choice technique, the rater chooses the behavior from two or more behaviors that best describe the employee, with behaviors being paired or grouped so that they are similar in terms of social desirability.
A. it is easy to develop and use - Incorrect In fact, a drawback of this technique is the difficulty of its development.
B. it provides specific information for employee feedback - Incorrect The forced-choice technique is considered more useful for obtaining an overall rating of performance than for obtaining the information needed to give employees feedback about their performance.
D. it provides an objective measure of job performance - Incorrect The forced-choice technique is a subjective measure of job performance.
The correction for attenuation formula is used to measure the impact of increasing:
A. a test’s reliability on its validity.
B. a test’s validity on its reliability.
C. the number of test items on the test’s validity.
D. the number of test items on the test’s reliability.
A. a test’s reliability on its validity - (CORRECT) The correction for attenuation formula is used to determine the impact of increasing the reliability of the predictor (test) and/or the criterion on the predictor’s validity. For the exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the purpose of several formulas including the correction for attenuation formula.
B. a test’s validity on its reliability - Incorrect
C. the number of test items on the test’s validity - Incorrect
D. the number of test items on the test’s reliability - Incorrect
Parkinson’s disease is caused by a progressive degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the:
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus.
B. insular cortex.
C. substantia nigra.
D. entorhinal cortex.
C. substantia nigra - (CORRECT) Knowing the substantia nigra is involved in the control of movement would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question. The degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra results in the motor symptoms associated with this disorder. Although the cause of Parkinson’s disease is still unknown, it has been linked to the degeneration of nerves cells in specific regions of the brain.
A. suprachiasmatic nucleus - Incorrect The suprachiasmatic nucleus (SCN) is located in the hypothalamus and is involved the regulation of the body’s circadian rhythms.
B. insular cortex - Incorrect The insular cortex is involved in speech and in the processing of autonomic and sensory information.
D. entorhinal cortex - Incorrect The entorhinal cortex plays a role (in conjunction with the hippocampus) in memory consolidation and is one of the first areas of the brain to be affected by Alzheimer’s disease.
In terms of training program evaluation, Kirkpatrick (1976) contends that _______ criteria are the most important criteria to evaluate but are often the most difficult to develop and, therefore, the most infrequently used.
D. results - (CORRECT) Results criteria are the fourth level in Kirkpatrick’s model and assess the value of the training program in terms of the organization’s goals. According to Kirkpatrick, the higher the level of evaluation, the more difficult and costly the evaluation process are but the more significant the information. Kirkpatrick (1976) distinguishes between four levels of training program evaluation – reaction, learning, behavioral, and results.
A. learning - Incorrect Learning criteria measure how much trainees have learned.
B. behavioral - Incorrect Behavioral criteria assess participants’ change in performance once they return to the job.
C. reaction - Incorrect Reaction criteria assess participants’ subjective reactions to the training program. Reaction criteria represent the first level in Kirkpatrick’s model and provide the least useful information.
The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a:
A. measure of psychomotor skills.
B. measure of clerical skills.
C. brief measure of cognitive ability.
D. brief interest inventory.
C. brief measure of cognitive ability - (CORRECT) The Wonderlic Personnel Test assesses cognitive ability (general intelligence) and is used in organizations as a selection test. The Wonderlic Personnel Test is a 12-minute, 50-item exam.
Children begin to deliberately and regularly use rehearsal, elaboration, and organization as memory strategies by _____ years of age.
A. 2 to 3
B. 5 to 7
C. 9 to 10
D. 13 to 15
C. 9 to 10 - (CORRECT) The research has shown that the deliberate and consistent use of the memory strategies listed in the question begins at about 9 to 10 years of age. The consistent and deliberate use of memory strategies does not occur until age 9 or 10.
A. 2 to 3 - Incorrect
B. 5 to 7 - Incorrect Preschoolers sometimes use memory strategies but do so in non-deliberate and often ineffective ways. In addition, children of this age can be taught to use memory strategies for a specific task but do not apply them to new tasks.
D. 13 to 15 - Incorrect The use of these strategies continues to be “fine-tuned” during adolescence.
Heteroscedasticity in a scattergram suggests that:
A. the relationship between the predictor and criterion cannot be described by a straight line.
B. there is a restriction of range of scores on the predictor and/or the criterion.
C. the variability (range) of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor.
D. there is a statistically significant correlation between the predictor and criterion.
C. the variability (range) of scores on the criterion varies for different scores on the predictor - (CORRECT) Heteroscedasticity is occurring when variability of scores on the criterion differs for different scores on the predictor – e.g., when there is a narrow range of criterion scores for low and high predictor scores but a wide range of criterion scores for moderate predictor scores. “Heteroscedasticity” means unequal variability.
A. the relationship between the predictor and criterion cannot be described by a straight line - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram.
B. there is a restriction of range of scores on the predictor and/or the criterion - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram.
D. there is a statistically significant correlation between the predictor and criterion - Incorrect This is not a conclusion that can be drawn from knowing that there is heteroscedasticity in a scattergram.
(Statistics and Research Design)
In terms of Hofstede’s (1980) five cultural dimensions, the United States scores at the top of the scale on:
B. individualism and power distance.
C. power distance and masculinity.
D. uncertainty avoidance.
A. individualism - (CORRECT) Even if you’re unfamiliar with Hofstede’s research, you probably could have guessed that the United States scores high on individualism. Hofstede’s five cultural dimensions are power distance, uncertainty avoidance, individualism, masculinity, and long-term orientation.
B. individualism and power distance - Incorrect Although the U.S. is high on individualism, it is low on power distance.
C. power distance and masculinity - Incorrect The U.S. is low on power distance and moderate to high on masculinity.
D. uncertainty avoidance - Incorrect The U.S. is low to moderate on uncertainty avoidance.
___________ is a communication disorder that is characterized by difficulties in regulating the rate, rhythm, pitch, and loudness of speech.
C. Dysprosody - (CORRECT) Dysprosody is a disruption in speech melody and rhythm and is characteristic of Broca’s aphasia and other nonfluent aphasias. Although dysprosody has traditionally been linked to right hemisphere damage, its presence in Broca’s aphasia suggests that prosody is also governed, to some degree, by the left hemisphere. The pattern of stress and intonation in speech is referred to as prosody.
A. Dysarthria - Incorrect Dysarthria is a motor speech disorder that produces problems related to articulation.
B. Paraphasia - Incorrect Paraphasia is a type of aphasia that involves the use of unintended syllables, words, or phrases (e.g., unintentionally substituting one word for another).
D. Adynamia - Incorrect Adynamia is a type of aphasia involving difficulty in initiating speech.
(Physiological Psychology / Psychopharmacology )
A psychologist is subpoenaed to testify at a deposition about a current therapy client. This means that the psychologist:
A. must testify about the client as requested.
B. must appear at the deposition as requested.
C. must provide the requested documents.
D. can expect to receive a court order within 60 days.
B. must appear at the deposition as requested - (CORRECT) As noted by R. I. Simon (Clinical psychiatry and the law, Washington, DC, American Psychiatric Publishing, 2003), a subpoena by itself is not "proper legal compulsion" and only requires the psychologist to appear at a deposition or trial, not to testify. After receiving a subpoena, a psychologist should determine if the client has signed a release; if not, the psychologist should assert the privilege rather than provide the information requested in the subpoena when he/she appears at the deposition. A subpoena is a legal document that requests the recipient to appear and testify at legal proceeding.
(Ethics and Professional Issues)
According to Gregory Herek (1992), violence against gays and lesbians is attributable to:
A. heterosexism - (CORRECT) Herek views violence against gays and lesbians to be due to a combination of psychological (individual) and cultural heterosexism. Gregory Herek defines heterosexism is an “ideological system that denies, denigrates, and stigmatizes among nonheterosexual forms of behavior, identity, relationships, or community” (p. 150). [Psychological heterosexism and anti-gay violence: The social psychology of bigotry. In G. M. Herek & K. T. Berrill, Hate crimes: Confronting violence against lesbians and gay men (pp. 149-169), Newbury Park, Sage, 1992].
B. homophobia - Incorrect
C. bigotry - Incorrect
D. stigmatization - Incorrect
With regard to attitude change, inoculation is useful for:
A. increasing a person’s resistance to persuasion.
B. reducing a communicator''s anxiety prior to delivering a message to a hostile audience.
C. distracting a person from a communicator''s message.
D.ensuring that attitude change represents internalization rather than mere compliance.
A. increasing a person’s resistance to persuasion - (CORRECT) Inoculation has been shown to be an effective method for increasing an individual's resistance to persuasion. McGuire found, for example, that it is more effective than providing the individual only with arguments that support his/her initial position.The concept of inoculation (McGuire, 1969) was derived from the medical model and is based on the assumption that a person will be better able to resist a persuasive communication when he/she has been "inoculated" against it. Inoculation involves providing weak arguments against a position and counterarguments refuting those arguments.
B. reducing a communicator''s anxiety prior to delivering a message to a hostile audience - Incorrect This is not the goal of inoculation.
C. distracting a person from a communicator''s message - Incorrect Distraction is associated with increased persuasiveness when a listener is initially opposed to a message and decreased persuasiveness when a listener is initially in favor of a message. Inoculation does not involve distraction.
D.ensuring that attitude change represents internalization rather than mere compliance - Incorrect This is not a goal of inoculation.
A functional analysis is conducted in order to identify _______ variables.
A. controlling - (CORRECT) Functional analysis is used to identify the factors (antecedents and consequences) that are controlling the target behavior so that those factors can be altered.The term “functional analysis” is associated with behavioral assessment and involves identifying the antecedents and consequences of the target behavior.
B. moderator - Incorrect
C. dependent - Incorrect
D. organismic - Incorrect
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)
Research on EMDR (eye movement desensitization and reprocessing) suggests that its effectiveness for alleviating the symptoms of PTSD is attributable to which of the following?
A. imaginal exposure
B. higher-order conditioning
C. relaxation training
D. fixed visual attention
A. imaginal exposure - (CORRECT) Studies that used a dismantling strategy or compared EMDR to exposure-based treatments have generally confirmed that the essential component of EMDR is exposure to the feared stimulus in imagination rather than to lateral eye movements. See, e.g., S. Taylor et al., Comparative efficacy, speed, and adverse effects of three PTSD treatments: Exposure therapy, EMDR, and relaxation, Journal of Clinical and Consulting Psychology, 2003, 72, 330-338. EMDR was originally developed as a treatment for PTSD and combines rapid lateral eye movements (which purportedly trigger adaptive neurophysiological information-processing mechanisms) with exposure and other techniques.
B. higher-order conditioning - Incorrect
C. relaxation training - Incorrect
D. fixed visual attention - Incorrect
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)
Prochaska and DiClemente’s (1992) transtheoretical model is based on the assumption that an intervention is most effective when:
A. it matches the client’s stage of change.
B. it matches the client’s diagnosis and symptom severity.
C. the therapist adopts the behavioral and affective style of the client.
D. the client sets his/her own therapy goals and evaluates his/her own progress.
A. it matches the client’s stage of change - CORRECT The transtheoretical model is based on the premise that interventions are most effective when they match the client’s stage of change. For example, clients in the precontemplation stage benefit most from information that increases their knowledge and motivation to change; while those in the preparation stage need assistance in identifying appropriate change strategies. Knowing that the transtheoretical model is also known as the stages of change model would have helped you identify the correct answer to this question.
B. it matches the client’s diagnosis and symptom severity - Incorrect
C. the therapist adopts the behavioral and affective style of the client - Incorrect
D. the client sets his/her own therapy goals and evaluates his/her own progress. - Incorrect
The ____________ provides information on the four cognitive abilities identified by Luria (1980) – i.e., planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing.
A. Slosson Intelligence Test Primary
B. Cognitive Assessment System
C. Kuhlman-Anderson Test
D. Woodcock Johnson III
B. Cognitive Assessment System - CORRECT The Cognitive Assessment System assesses basic cognitive processes that are central to learning. It is based on the PASS model of intelligence that distinguishes between the four cognitive functions identified by Luria (1980) – planning, attention, simultaneous processing, and sequential processing. For the licensing exam, you’ll want to be familiar with the purpose of the tests listed in the answers to this question.
A. Slosson Intelligence Test Primary - Incorrect The Slosson Intelligence Test Primary is a screening test of intelligence for children aged 2 through 7 years, 11 months. It provides Verbal and Performance Scores and a Total Standard Score.
C. Kuhlman-Anderson Test - Incorrect The Kuhlman-Anderson Test is a group intelligence test for children in grades K through 12.
D. Woodcock Johnson III - Incorrect The Woodcock Johnson III Tests of Cognitive Ability assess general and specific cognitive abilities and are based on the Cattell-Horn-Carroll model of intelligence.
You have been seeing Leticia Lopez in therapy for several months. Leticia is 24 years old and lives with her widowed mother, who is paying for Leticia’s therapy. One day, Leticia's mother calls and says she is very concerned about Leticia and wants to know what she can do to help Leticia feel better about herself. Mrs. Lopez asks that you not tell Leticia that she has called. Your best course of action in this situation would be to:
A. Give Mrs. Lopez the specific advice she has requested.
B. Tell Mrs. Lopez to ask Leticia what she (Mrs. Lopez) can do to help her.
C. Tell Mrs. Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia.
D. suggest that Mrs. Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session.
C. Tell Mrs. Lopez that it would be best if you discussed this matter with Leticia - CORRECT This course of action is most consistent with the ethical guidelines and is also likely to be in the best interests of Leticia from a clinical perspective. Leticia is an adult and, even though her mother is paying for her therapy, this does not limit Leticia’s confidentiality.
A. Give Mrs. Lopez the specific advice she has requested - Incorrect Discussing Leticia’s status with her mother without Leticia’s consent would represent a breach of confidentiality.
B. Tell Mrs. Lopez to ask Leticia what she (Mrs. Lopez) can do to help her - Incorrect This alternative does not explicitly violate ethical guidelines, but response c is a better answer.
D. suggest that Mrs. Lopez accompany Leticia to her next therapy session - Incorrect This would not be the most appropriate course of action from either an ethical or clinical perspective.
(Ethics and Professional Issues)
The highest levels of learning and performance are usually associated with:
a. low levels of arousal.
b. moderate levels of arousal.
c. high levels of arousal.
d. variability in levels of arousal.
b. moderate levels of arousal - CORRECT Even if you’re not familiar with the Yerkes-Dodson law (which proposes that learning and performance are curvilinearly related to arousal), you may have been able to identify the correct answer on the basis of common sense – i.e., most people perform best when their level of arousal is somewhere between “none” and “a lot.” Moderate levels of arousal are associated with the highest levels of learning and performance. This is particularly true when moderate levels of arousal are combined with moderate task difficulty.
a. low levels of arousal - Incorrect A low level of arousal can lead to boredom which can negatively affect learning and performance.
c. high levels of arousal - Incorrect A high level of arousal can lead to stress and fatigue, which can negatively affect learning and performance.
d. variability in levels of arousal - Incorrect Varying levels of arousal would not be optimal for learning and performance.
(Learning Theory & CBT)
When using the Premack Principle to modify a behavior, the reinforcer is:
a. applied intermittently.
b. a generalized conditioned reinforcer.
c. a behavior that occurs frequently.
d. a stimulus that naturally elicits the desired behavior.
c. a behavior that occurs frequently - CORRECT The Premack Principle is a type of positive reinforcement. When using the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is used as the reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior. The Premack Principle is also known as “Grandma's Rule” – e.g., “you can go out and play once you've cleaned your room.”
(Learning Theory & CBT)
Samuel S., age 43, says, "Even though I've just been given a bonus at work, I feel like I’m about to be fired.” As defined by Aaron Beck, Samuel is exhibiting which of the following cognitive distortions?
a. mustabatory thinking
b. polarized thinking
d. arbitrary inference
d. arbitrary inference - CORRECT The phenomena listed in the answers to this question are all cognitive distortions that have been identified as contributors to maladaptive behavior. As defined by Beck, arbitrary inference involves drawing a conclusion that is made in the absence of supporting evidence or in the presence of contradictory evidence.
a. mustabatory thinking - Incorrect “Mustabatory thinking” is a term used by Ellis and refers to the belief that certain conditions must be met – e.g., “I must be liked by everyone; if not, I’m a terrible person.”
b. polarized thinking - Incorrect Polarized (dichotomous) thinking involves seeing things as either “black or white.”
c. personalization - Incorrect Pesonalization involves mistakenly viewing oneself as the source of an event that actually had another cause.
(Learning Theory & CBT)
From a behavioral perspective, phobic reactions to benign objects or events are acquired when those objects or events become associated with a stimulus that naturally produces a fear response. In other words, phobic reactions are due to:
A. negative reinforcement.
B. negative punishment.
C. stimulus generalization.
D. classical conditioning.
D. classical conditioning - CORRECT According to the Pavlovian (classical conditioning) explanation for phobias, a fear response to a previously neutral object or event is a classically conditioned response in which fear is attached to the neutral stimulus (the CS) through its pairing with a stimulus that naturally elicits fear (the US). There are several explanations for the phobic reactions. The explanation provided in this question is consistent with the Pavlovian view.
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies
Which of the following is an example of anterograde amnesia?
A. As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident, a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred.
B. A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted.
C. A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones.
D. A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information.
B. A woman cannot remember how she got to the hospital or other events that occurred during the 24 hours after she was sexually assaulted - CORRECT This answer provides an example of anterograde amnesia – i.e., the woman has no memory for events that occurred after the assault. Anterograde amnesia involves a loss of memory for events that occur after the event that caused the memory loss.
A. As the result of a head injury he received in a car accident, a man cannot remember where he was going before the accident occurred - Incorrect A loss of memory for events that occurred prior to the trauma that caused the memory impairment is referred to as retrograde amnesia.
C. A high school junior who learned Spanish her freshman year is having trouble learning French because she keeps substituting Spanish words for French ones - Incorrect This is an example of proactive interference.
D. A college student can remember information related to an important event but cannot remember how he acquired that information - Incorrect This is an example of source amnesia
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)
According to Albert Ellis, our emotional and behavioral reactions to an event are due to our beliefs about the event rather than to the event itself. In other words, our beliefs act as a:
A. moderator variable.
B. mediator variable.
C. latent variable.
D. suppressor variable.
B. mediator variable - CORRECT A mediator variable accounts for (is responsible for) the relationship between two variables. Ellis’s theory proposes that beliefs mediate (are responsible for) the impact of an event on our emotional and behavioral reactions to that event.
A. moderator variable - Incorrect A moderator variable is a variable that affects the strength of the relationship between two other variables. For example, if the size of the correlation between a predictor and criterion differs for older and younger adults, age is a moderator variable. Note that some authors use the terms “moderator variable” and “extraneous variable” interchangeably.
C. latent variable - Incorrect A latent variable is a theoretical variable that is believed to underlie a measured or observed variable.
D. suppressor variable - Incorrect A suppressor variable reduces or conceals the relationship between two variables. Consequently, statistically removing the effects of a suppressor variable increases the correlation between the two variables.
(Statistics and Research Design)
Trainability tests are:
A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job.
B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes.
C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation.
D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require.
C. work samples that incorporate a structured period of learning and evaluation - CORRECT Trainability tests are similar to work samples except they are given to people who currently do not have sufficient skills or knowledge to perform the job. They are used to determine if a job applicant is likely to benefit from training. As their name implies, trainability tests are used to determine if individuals will benefit from training.
A. paper-and-pencil tests that assess the aptitudes required for a particular job - Incorrect
B. paper-and-pencil tests that assess motivation and other job-related attitudes - Incorrect
D. multimodal assessment techniques used to determine what training current workers require - Incorrect
To incorporate the value of personalismo into therapy, a therapist will:
A. integrate members of the extended family into the intervention.
B. maintain a neutral attitude even when family members are discussing unpleasant topics.
C. display genuine interest in the client by asking about his/her family and work or school.
D. establish credibility early in therapy by demonstrating knowledge of indigenous healing practices.
C. display genuine interest in the client by asking about his/her family and work or school - CORRECT Although formalismo (a formal communication style) is generally preferred by Latino/Hispanic clients during initial therapy sessions, personalismo is preferred once the therapeutic alliance has been established. Personalismo sounds like what it is – i.e., communication that fosters warmth, rapport, and a personal connection. Therefore, you may have been able to identify the correct response to this question even if you’re unfamiliar with the application of personalismo to therapy.
A. integrate members of the extended family into the intervention - Incorrect Integrating members of the extended family into the intervention would be consistent with the value of familismo.
B. maintain a neutral attitude even when family members are discussing unpleasant topics - Incorrect This is not consistent with personalismo.
D. establish credibility early in therapy by demonstrating knowledge of indigenous healing practices. - Incorrect Demonstrating knowledge of indigenous healing practices may be important but would not necessarily foster personalismo.
Lewinsohn’s behavioral model proposes a causal link between ______________ and depression.
A. a lack of reinforcement from the environment
B. “accidental” external reinforcement for depressogenic behaviors
C. a high need for perfectionism
D. chronic physical and psychological stress
A. a lack of reinforcement from the environment - CORRECT Lewinsohn attributes depression primarily to a low rate of response-contingent reinforcement and proposes that, when a person’s behaviors are not reinforced, those behaviors are extinguished and the person is at increased risk for pessimism, low self-esteem, and other symptoms associated with depression. Lewinsohn’s (1974) behavioral model is based on operant conditioning and focuses on the consequences of behavior.
B. “accidental” external reinforcement for depressogenic behaviors - Incorrect
C. a high need for perfectionism - Incorrect
D. chronic physical and psychological stress - Incorrect
(Learning Theory & Cognitive-Behavioral Therapies)
In organizations, the level of affective commitment is likely to be least predictive of which of the following?
A. job satisfaction
C. job motivation
B. productivity - CORRECT Of the outcomes listed in the answers, affective commitment is least predictive of productivity.Two types of organizational commitment are distinguished – continuance commitment and affective commitment. Of these, affective commitment is most predictive of work-related outcomes.
Providing education and job training to adolescents and young adults who have recently been released from a drug treatment program is an example of:
A. primary prevention.
B. secondary prevention.
C. tertiary prevention.
D. social intervention.
C. tertiary prevention - CORRECT Rehabilitation is the goal of tertiary prevention. In this situation, adolescents and young adults are being provided with services that are intended to reduce the likelihood of future drug abuse (relapse).A. primary prevention - Incorrect Primary prevention's emphasize counteracting harmful circumstances before they have an opportunity to produce mental or physical illness.
B. secondary prevention - Incorrect Secondary prevention's emphasize the early diagnosis and treatment of disorders.
D. social intervention - Incorrect This is a "made up” term.
An employee expects greater consistency in the behavior of his boss than is warranted. The employee’s expectation is best accounted for by which of the following?
A. overjustification hypothesis
B. self-serving bias
C. fundamental attribution bias
D. self-verification theory
C. fundamental attribution bias - CORRECT The fundamental attribution bias is the tendency to attribute another person's behavior to dispositional factors (e.g., traits) and, therefore, to expect a great deal of consistency in behavior. This question is vague, and you may have had to rely on the process of elimination to identify the correct answer.
A. overjustification hypothesis - Incorrect The overjustification hypothesis predicts that internal motivation to perform a specific action is weakened when one is given external reinforcement for performing the action.
B. self-serving bias - Incorrect The self-serving bias applies to the attributions one makes about one's own behavior and is not relevant to the situation described in this question.
D. self-verification theory - Incorrect Self-verification theory predicts that people prefer receiving information about themselves from others that is consistent with their self-evaluations.