Flashcards in EPPP Test Questions Deck (310)
According to Bronfenbrenner’s (1979) ecological model, the ______ consists of interactions between elements of the microsystem (e.g., between the family and the school).
a. mesosystem - CORRECT Bronfenbrenner’s ecological model distinguishes between four layers (levels) that influence a child’s development: microsystem, mesosystem, exosystem, and macrosystem. The mesosystem is the second layer and consists of interactions between components of the microsystem – e.g., the parents’ involvement in the child’s school experiences and interactions between the child’s church and community.
b. exosystem - Incorrect The exosystem consists of elements in the social setting that indirectly affect the child’s development (e.g., the parents’ jobs).
c. macrosystem - Incorrect The macrosystem is the outermost layer and includes the values, laws, customs, etc. of the child’s culture.
d. endosystem - Incorrect The endosystem is not one of the levels identified by Bronfenbrenner.
In terms of age, Erikson’s ________ stage of psychosocial development corresponds to Freud’s phallic stage.
a. industry vs. inferiority
b. autonomy vs. shame and doubt
c. basic trust vs. mistrust
d. initiative vs. guilt.
d. initiative vs. guilt. - CORRECT Erikson's psychosocial theory proposes that personality development occurs throughout the lifespan and involves eight stages. The initiative vs. guilt stage is characteristic of children aged 3 to 6 years and corresponds to Freud’s phallic stage.
a. industry vs. inferiority - Incorrect The industry vs. inferiority stage is characteristic of children aged 6 to 11 years and corresponds to Freud’s latency stage.
b. autonomy vs. shame and doubt - Incorrect The autonomy vs. shame and doubt stage occurs between the ages of 1 and 3 years and corresponds to Freud’s anal stage.
c. basic trust vs. mistrust - Incorrect The basic trust vs. mistrust stage occurs from birth to 1 year of age and corresponds to Freud’s oral stage.
Children begin to deliberately and regularly use rehearsal, elaboration, and organization as memory strategies by _____ years of age.
a. 2 to 3
b. 5 to 7
c. 9 to 10
d. 13 to 15
c. 9 to 10 - CORRECT The research has shown that the deliberate and consistent use of the memory strategies listed in the question begins at about 9 to 10 years of age. The consistent and deliberate use of memory strategies does not occur until age 9 or 10.
a. 2 to 3 - Incorrect
b. 5 to 7 - Incorrect Preschoolers sometimes use memory strategies but do so in non-deliberate and often ineffective ways. In addition, children of this age can be taught to use memory strategies for a specific task but do not apply them to new tasks.
d. 13 to 15 - Incorrect The use of these strategies continues to be “fine-tuned” during adolescence.
Most babies say their first words at about _____ months of age.
c. 12 - CORRECT Most infants say their first recognizable word at 12 months of age. For the exam, you want to be familiar with the language milestones of early childhood.
During the second stage of Kohlberg’s preconventional level of moral development, children obey rules because:
a. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws.
b. "everyone else is doing it."
c. doing so helps them avoid punishment.
d. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs.
d. doing so helps them satisfy their personal needs. - CORRECT The preconventional level of moral development consists of two stages: punishment and obedience and instrumental hedonism. During the instrumental hedonism stage, children consider the correct action to be the one that best satisfies their own personal needs. To illustrate this stage, Kohlberg described a 10-year old boy who, when asked what it means to be a good son, replied, "Be good to your father and he will be good to you."
a. they feel they have a personal duty to uphold rules and laws. - Incorrect This is characteristic of the second stage of the conventional level.
b. "everyone else is doing it." - Incorrect This doesn't describe the second stage of the preconventional level.
c. doing so helps them avoid punishment. - Incorrect This is characteristic of the initial punishment and obedience stage of the preconventional level.
In terms of the parenting styles identified by Baumrind and her colleagues (1991), independent self-confident adolescents are most likely to have parents who are:
a. authoritative. - CORRECT Of the four parenting styles, the authoritative style is most likely to produce independent self-confident children and adolescents. Authoritative parents combine rational control with warmth, receptivity, and the encouragement of independence. Baumrind and her colleagues distinguish between authoritarian, authoritative, permissive, and rejecting-neglecting parents.
b. authoritarian. - Incorrect Authoritarian parents impose absolute standards of control, stress obedience, and are willing to use force to obtain compliance. Their children tend to be dependent, passive, and submissive and display a limited sense of responsibility.
c. permissive. - Incorrect Permissive parents provide their children with few controls or demands and display moderate levels of warmth. Their children exhibit little self-reliance, exploratory behavior, or self-control.
d. traditional. - Incorrect "Traditional" is not a parenting style identified by Baumrind.
Down Syndrome is caused by:
a. a dominant gene.
b. two recessive genes.
c. a chromosomal abnormality.
d. an X-linked gene.
c. a chromosomal abnormality. - CORRECT Down Syndrome is a chromosomal condition that is associated with mental retardation, specific facial features, and certain physical abnormalities (e.g., hypotonia, heart defects, and hearing impairment). Down syndrome is most often due to a failure of the 21st pair of chromosomes to split during meiosis, resulting in an extra chromosome 21.
Thomas and Chess’s (1977) “goodness-of-fit” model predicts that maladjustment in children is due to:
a. a mismatch between the child’s basic temperament and his/her parents’ childrearing practices.
b. a mismatch between the child’s attachment behaviors and his/her parents’ response to those behaviors.
c. inconsistencies in the parenting styles of the child’s caregivers.
d. inconsistencies in the child’s sense of self and the feedback the child receives from caregivers about his/her behavior.
a. a mismatch between the child’s basic temperament and his/her parents’ childrearing practices. - CORRECT Based on their research, Thomas and Chess concluded that it is not the child’s early temperament that predicts future adjustment but the match between the child’s temperament and his/her caregivers’ childrearing practices. Knowing that Thomas and Chess studied temperament would have enabled you to identify the correct response to this question.
b. a mismatch between the child’s attachment behaviors and his/her parents’ response to those behaviors. - Incorrect
c. inconsistencies in the parenting styles of the child’s caregivers. Incorrect
d. inconsistencies in the child’s sense of self and the feedback the child receives from caregivers about his/her behavior. Incorrect
Alice, age 14, is certain that everyone is looking at her because she has a large blemish in the middle of her forehead. According to Elkind (1967), Alice’s belief is a manifestation of:
a. self-conscious emotions.
b. the “personal fable.”
c. social referencing.
d. the “imaginary audience.”
d. the “imaginary audience.” - CORRECT Elkind used the term “imaginary audience” to describe the adolescent’s belief that he/she is the focus of everyone’s attention. Elkind (1967) proposed that adolescents experience a renewed egocentrisim that is manifested in several ways.
a. self-conscious emotions. - Incorrect Self-conscious emotions include shame, embarrassment, and pride and are not relevant to Elkind’s explanation for Alice’s behavior.
b. the “personal fable.” - Incorrect The personal fable is one manifestation of adolescent egocentrism but does not describe Alice’s concern. It refers to the belief that one is special and unique and not subject to the same dangers as other people are.
c. social referencing. - Incorrect Social referencing refers to relying on the emotional response of another person (e.g., caregiver) to decide how to respond in an ambiguous situation.
Babbling ordinarily begins at about 4 to 5 months of age and initially includes:
a. phonemes from all languages.
b. phonemes from the child’s native language only.
c. morphemes from all languages.
d. morphemes that the child has heard most frequently.
a. phonemes from all languages. -CORRECT Babbling initially consists of phonemes from all languages; but, by about 9 months, it narrows to include the sounds of the child’s native language only. Babbling involves the repetition of vowel and consonant sounds – e.g., bi-bi-bi and da-da-da.
b. phonemes from the child’s native language only. - Incorrect
c. morphemes from all languages. - Incorrect
d. morphemes that the child has heard most frequently. - Incorrect
A child with an insecure/anxious-avoidant pattern of attachment:
a. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother and continues to be highly anxious when she returns.
b. is more anxious when his/her mother is present than absent and resists contact with her when she returns following separation.
c. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother but pulls away from her when she returns.
d. shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns.
d. shows little distress when separated from his/her mother and turns away from her when she returns. - CORRECT In Ainsworth’s "strange situation," insecure/anxious-avoidant children are uninterested in exploration, show little distress when separated from their mothers, and avoid her when she returns. Attachment patterns are categorized in terms of four types: secure, insecure/anxious-avoidant, insecure/anxious-ambivalent, and disorganized-disoriented.
a. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother and continues to be highly anxious when she returns. - Incorrect
b. is more anxious when his/her mother is present than absent and resists contact with her when she returns following separation. - Incorrect
c. is very distressed when separated from his/her mother but pulls away from her when she returns. - Incorrect
Research suggests children’s successful adjustment to the divorce of their parents is most related to:
a. the frequency of contact with the noncustodial parent.
b. the quality of the parent-child relationships prior to the divorce.
c. the child’s ability to understand the cause(s) of the divorce.
d. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents.
d. the degree of post-divorce conflict between the parents. - CORRECT Of the factors listed in the answers, the frequency and severity of post-divorce conflict between the parents has most consistently been linked to children’s adjustment. In fact, some experts argue that it is marital conflict – and not the divorce itself – that is responsible for children’s adjustment problems. A number of child and parent factors have been linked to children’s adjustment to the divorce of their parents.
According to Gerald Patterson and his colleagues (1992), which of the following is a key contributor to aggressive behavior in children?
a. the child’s intelligence.
b. the child’s “basic personality.”
c. the strength of the parent-child attachment.
d. the parents’ childrearing behaviors
d. the parents’ childrearing behaviors -
CORRECT Patterson et al.’s “coercive family interaction model” attributes aggression in children primarily to interactions between parents and their children, especially interactions involving the parents’ childrearing behaviors. The social learning approach of Patterson and his colleagues focuses on the family factors that contribute to aggressiveness in children.
Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental theory identifies which of the following as the initial stage of gender-role acquisition?
a. gender affirmation
b. gender identity
c. gender constancy
d. gender stability.
b. gender identity - CORRECT According to Kohlberg (1969), gender identity is the first stage in the acquisition of gender-role behaviors and occurs at about age 2 to 3. It is followed by gender stability (age 4) and then gender constancy (ages 6 to 7). Kohlberg’s cognitive-developmental model identifies three stages of gender-role acquisition – gender identity, gender stability, and gender constancy.
A 16-month-old child who calls her pet cat “kitty” sees a dog for the first time and calls it “kitty.” In terms of Piaget’s theory of cognitive development, the child is displaying:
a. assimilation. - CORRECT Assimilation involves incorporating new knowledge into existing cognitive structures or schemes. The child in the question doesn't know what a dog is and is incorporating it into her existing “kitty” scheme. Piaget distinguished between two complementary processes that underlie cognitive development: assimilation and accommodation.
b. accommodation. - Incorrect Accommodation involves modifying an existing scheme or creating a new one.
c. categorization. - Incorrect Piaget did not use the term “categorization” to describe the incorporation of new knowledge into an existing cognitive scheme.
d. centration. - Incorrect Centration is a limitation of the preoperational stage and refers to the tendency to focus on the most salient aspect of an object.
________ involves mental retardation and extreme obesity and is caused by a chromosomal deletion.
a. Down Syndrome
b. Turner syndrome
c. Klinefelter syndrome.
d. Prader-Willi syndrome
d. Prader-Willi syndrome - CORRECT Prader-Willi syndrome is caused by a chromosomal deletion, which occurs when part of a chromosome is missing. Approximately 1 in 200 babies is born with a chromosomal abnormality.
a. Down Syndrome - Incorrect Down syndrome is attributable to the presence of an extra chromosome.
b. Turner syndrome - Incorrect Turner syndrome is caused by the absence of a chromosome. It occurs only in females and involves the absence of one X chromosome.
c. Klinefelter syndrome. - Incorrect Klinefelter syndrome is due to the presence of an extra chromosome.
For most children, stranger anxiety begins at about _____ months of age.
a. 2 to 3
b. 4 to 6
c. 8 to 10
d. 12 to 14
c. 8 to 10 - CORRECT Although the experts differ somewhat with regard to the exact age of onset of stranger anxiety, most agree that it begins during the second half of the first year. Stranger anxiety involves anxious, fearful responses in the presence of a stranger, especially when a caregiver is not present.
Child abuse and neglect are most associated with which of the following attachment patterns?
a. disorganized/disoriented - CORRECT Mary Main, a student of Ainsworth, found that about 80% of maltreated children exhibit a disorganized/disoriented attachment pattern. Children who have been maltreated often exhibit disorganized, contradictory behaviors in the presence of their caregivers – e.g., they might reach out for the caregiver while backing away.
b. distant/disengaged. - Incorrect
c. insecure/avoidant. - Incorrect
d. insecure/ambivalent - Incorrect
The mental retardation associated with PKU is preventable with:
a. removal of environmental toxins.
b. blood transfusions.
c. a special diet.
a. removal of environmental toxins. - Incorrect
b. blood transfusions. - Incorrect
c. a special diet. - CORRECT PKU involves an inability to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Mental retardation and other symptoms of PKU can be reduced or eliminated by a diet low in phenylalanine beginning at birth. PKU (phenylketonuria) is a recessive gene disorder.
d. antibiotics. - Incorrect
Konrad Lorenz’s (1957) research on “imprinting” led to the search for __________ in human infants.
a. a critical period for attachment
b. a biological explanation for language acquisition.
c. a sensitive period for social referencing
d. a biological mechanism for recognition memory.
a. a critical period for attachment - CORRECT The ethologist Lorenz found that geese bonded to the first moving object they encounter during the first few days following birth. His research led to a search for a similar “critical period” for attachment in human infants. “Imprinting” refers to the bond that develops during a critical period following birth in some non-human species.
b. a biological explanation for language acquisition. - Incorrect
c. a sensitive period for social referencing - Incorrect See explanation for response a.
d. a biological mechanism for recognition memory. - Incorrect
The _______ is the least developed area of the brain at birth.
a. brain stem
b. cerebral cortex
c. limbic system
b. cerebral cortex - CORRECT The cerebral cortex, which is responsible for higher-level cognitive skills, complex motor behaviors, language, and spatial skills, is almost completely undeveloped at birth. Not surprisingly, it is the higher centers of the brain that are least developed at birth.
An organizational psychologist finds that his newly developed selection test has different validity coefficients for male and female applicants and that the difference is statistically significant. This suggests that the test has:
a. incremental validity.
b. discriminant validity.
c. differential validity.
d. convergent validity.
c. differential validity. - CORRECT A test has differential validity when its validity coefficient for one group is different from its validity coefficient for another group. The selection test described in this question has different levels of validity for males and females.
a. incremental validity.- Incorrect A test's incremental validity refers to the benefits that use of the test provides with regard to decision-making accuracy.
b. discriminant validity. - Incorrect A test has discriminant (divergent) validity when it has low correlations with tests that measure different traits, characteristics, or abilities. Discriminant validity provides evidence of a test's construct validity.
d. convergent validity. - Incorrect A test has convergent validity when it correlates highly with tests that measure the same trait. Convergent validity provides evidence of construct validity.
Expectancy theory predicts that worker motivation depends on several factors including “valence,” which refers to:
a. the employee’s beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance.
b. the employee’s beliefs about the inherent (intrinsic) value of the work itself.
c. the strength of the worker's motivation and organizational commitment.
d. the strength of the effort (versus ability) component of the worker’s motivation.
a. the employee’s beliefs about the value of rewards provided for successful performance. - CORRECT According to expectancy theory, motivation is a function of three components: expectancy, instrumentality, and valence. Valence refers to the value a worker places on the outcomes that will be provided for successful performance. When these outcomes have positive valence, this increases the worker's motivation to perform.
b. the employee’s beliefs about the inherent (intrinsic) value of the work itself. - Incorrect
c. the strength of the worker's motivation and organizational commitment. - Incorrect
d. the strength of the effort (versus ability) component of the worker’s motivation. - Incorrect
According to Fiedler’s contingency model of leadership, high LPC leaders:
a. are always more effective than low LPC leaders.
b. are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations.
c. elicit less trust from supervisees than do low LPC leaders.
d. elicit less intrinsic motivation from supervisees than do low LPC leaders.
b. are more effective than low LPC leaders in moderately favorable situations. - CORRECT According to Fiedler, low LPC leaders are most effective in low and high favorable situations, while high LPC leaders are most effective in moderately favorable situations. Fiedler's LPC (least preferred coworker) scale measures the extent to which a leader describes ineffective subordinates in positive terms. A high LPC leader is one who has nice things to say even about inefficient workers.
a. are always more effective than low LPC leaders. - Incorrect Fiedler's theory is a “contingency” theory and predicts that the most effective leadership style depends on the nature of the situation.
c. elicit less trust from supervisees than do low LPC leaders. - Incorrect This is not predicted by Fiedler’s theory.
d. elicit less intrinsic motivation from supervisees than do low LPC leaders. - Incorrect Fielder did not directly address the issue of job motivation but, because his theory is a contingency theory, it implies that the ability of high and low LPC leaders to foster the motivation of employees would depend on the nature of the situation.
A transformational leader uses " framing" in order to:
a. make the organization’s goals more meaningful to employees.
b. clarify the consequences of undesirable performance.
c. reduce personal biases in decision-making.
d. adapt his/her leadership style to the characteristics of subordinates.
a. make the organization’s goals more meaningful to employees. - CORRECT Transformational leaders recognize the need for change and are able to communicate that need to employees. Framing is one technique these leaders use to inspire employees and involves describing the organization’s goals in a way that makes them more meaningful to employees. Even if you're unfamiliar with “framing,” you may have been able to identify the correct answer with your knowledge of transformational leadership.
b. clarify the consequences of undesirable performance. - Incorrect
c. reduce personal biases in decision-making. - Incorrect The term “framing” is also used to refer to a type of decision-making bias. In that context, framing occurs when the description of a problem in a positive or negative way influences the type of decision that is made. However, this question is asking about the use of framing by transformational leaders.
d. adapt his/her leadership style to the characteristics of subordinates. - Incorrect
The research indicates that, when Total Quality Management (TQM) fails to live up to its potential, this is most often because:
a. the team leader lacks adequate leadership skills.
b. there was too much reliance on team (versus individual) effort.
c. employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making.
d. pay and other benefits were not adequately linked to team performance.
c. employees were not sufficiently involved in decision-making. - CORRECT Although TQM emphasizes team involvement in decision-making, too often decisions are made unilaterally by the supervisor. The primary goal of TQM is to continuously improve the quality of the organization’s products and services. This is accomplished by evaluating customer satisfaction, maximizing employee involvement and empowerment, and making continuous improvements in organizational processes.
a. the team leader lacks adequate leadership skills. - Incorrect Although leader ability is always important, it has not been identified as a particular problem in TQM, which emphasizes the involvement of employees in decision-making processes.
b. there was too much reliance on team (versus individual) effort. - Incorrect Team work is considered a key feature of TQM; and the research has shown that, under the right circumstances, team work is associated with positive outcomes for the company.
d. pay and other benefits were not adequately linked to team performance. - Incorrect This hasn't been identified as a problem by the research on TQM.
The primary purpose of a(n) ____________ is to obtain detailed information about job requirements in order to facilitate decisions related to compensation.
a. needs assessment
b. organizational analysis
c. job analysis
d. job evaluation
d. job evaluation - CORRECT A job evaluation is conducted specifically for the purpose of determining the relative worth of jobs in order to set wages and salaries. Of the procedures listed in the answers, only one is conducted specifically to facilitate decisions related to compensation.
a. needs assessment - Incorrect A needs assessment is conducted to identify training needs.
b. organizational analysis - Incorrect An organizational analysis is often part of a needs assessment and is conducted to identify the organization’s goal
c. job analysis - Incorrect A job analysis is conducted to identify the essential characteristics of a job. Job analysis serves several functions in an organization and may be the first step in a job evaluation.
Assessment centers are most commonly used to:
a. hire and promote clerical workers.
b. hire and promote managers.
c. train semi-skilled and skilled workers.
d. train salespeople.
b. hire and promote managers. - CORRECT Assessment centers are used to evaluate managerial-level employees for the purpose of selection, promotion, or training and involve having participants engage in a variety of exercises, many of which simulate the actual tasks a manager performs on-the-job. Assessment centers were originally used during World War II as a means of selecting OSS agents. They are now used primarily for evaluating and predicting the performance of managerial-level employees.
The 80% rule is used to determine if:
a. a selection procedure is having an adverse impact.
b. a selection procedure is cost effective.
c. a performance appraisal measure has adequate relevance.
d. a performance appraisal measure has adequate utility.
a. a selection procedure is having an adverse impact. - CORRECT The 80% rule is described in the EEOC’s Uniform Guidelines on Employee Selection Procedures and is used to determine if a selection test or other employment procedure is discriminating against members of a group protected by law. As defined by the 80% rule, a selection test is having an adverse impact when the proportion of minority-group applicants who are selected is less than 80% of the proportion of majority-group applicants who are selected.
b. a selection procedure is cost effective - Incorrect
c. a performance appraisal measure has adequate relevance.- Incorrect
d. a performance appraisal measure has adequate utility. Incorrect