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MSK - 3rd year > Clinical medicine, Radiology, Ethics Review Q's > Flashcards

Clinical medicine, Radiology, Ethics Review Q's Flashcards

1. Introduction to MSK history & Physical Examination (1-16) 1. Synovial Fluid Chemistry- Review Session (17-53)

1
Q

Patient with pain and stiffness in the mornings that gets better after exercise. What type of pain is this?

a. inflammatory
b. mechanical

A

a. inflammatory

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2
Q

Patient with pain in the knees, she says it hurts and makes sounds as she walks. What type of pain is this?

a. inflammatory
b. mechanical

A

b. mechanical

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3
Q

Delusional patient comes in claiming their magic knees control the weather. What type of pain is this?

a. inflammatory
b. mechanical
c. magical

A

a. inflammatory

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4
Q

Which muscles are responsible for lateral (external) rotation?

A

Supraspinatus
Infraspinatous
Teres Minor
Posterior fibers of deltoid

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5
Q

Which muscles are responsible for medial (internal) rotation?

A 
Subscapularis
Pec major
Teres major
Latissimus dorsi
Anterior fibers of deltoid
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6
Q

A person dislocated his shoulder previously. Which structure is responsible for the resulting instability?

A

ligaments

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7
Q

Which abduction angles does painful arch syndrome affect?

A

60-120

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8
Q

What causes painful arch syndrome?

A

Supraspinatus tendinitis

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9
Q

In which deformity does the proximal IP joint flex while the distal IP joint extended?

a. swan neck
b. mallet finger
c. boutonniere

A

c. boutonniere

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10
Q

In which deformity does the distal IP joint flex?

a. swan neck
b. mallet finger
c. boutonniere

A

b. mallet finger (also called baseball finger)

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11
Q

You perform a knee ligament test where you push the leg laterally while pushing the knee medially. Whats the name of this test?

a. Varus test
b. Valgus test

A

b. Valgus test

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12
Q

In which deformity does the distal IP joint flex while the PIP does hyperextension?

a. swan neck
b. mallet finger
c. boutonniere

A

a. swan neck

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13
Q

Which of the following ligaments does anterior drawer test, test?

a. ACL
b. PCL
c. MCL
d. LCL

A

a. ACL

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14
Q

Which of the following ligaments does varus test, test?

a. ACL
b. PCL
c. MCL
d. LCL

A

d. LCL

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15
Q

Which of the following ligaments does posterior drawer test, test?

a. ACL
b. PCL
c. MCL
d. LCL

A

b. PCL

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16
Q

What does the mcMurrey test, test?

A

the meniscus

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17
Q

T/F: the articulating surface of the synovial membrane is smooth

A

false, its irregular

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18
Q

What does the name synovium mean?

A

egg white

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19
Q

Which of the following synovial cells produce hyaluronan and mucin?

a. type A cells
b. type B cells

A

b. type B cells

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20
Q

Which of the following synovial cells clean the debris?

a. type A cells
b. type B cells

A

a. type A cells

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21
Q

What’s true about synovial fluid?

a. it has more electrolytes than plasma
b. it has more glucose than plasma
c. it has more calcium than plasma

A

c. it has more calcium than plasma

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22
Q

T/F: the more viscous the synovial fluid, the more lubricative it is

A

false

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23
Q

Which of the following synovial cells are also referred to as fibroblasts?

a. type A cells
b. type B cells

A

b. type B cells

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24
Q

What is reptate diffusion?

A

a diffusion path resembles a wiggling snake; the movement was termed reptation, which is the latin word for creeping

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25
Q

Why does the synovial fluid will flow in a snake-like motion?

A

due to the irregularities of the articulating surface of synovial joint

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26
Q

What can cross the synovial surface?

a. big proteins
b. water
c. hyaluronan

A

b. water

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27
Q

What makes synovial fluid viscous?

A

hyaluronan

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28
Q

What makes synovial fluid lubricative?

A

lubricin

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29
Q

Which is used to collect synovial fluid for a Cell Count?

a. Plain tube
b. Heparinized tube
c. Sterile container
d. EDTA

A

b. Heparinized tube

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30
Q

Which is used to collect synovial fluid for Chemistry & Immunology tests?

a. Plain tube
b. Heparinized tube
c. Sterile container
d. EDTA

A

a. Plain tube

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31
Q

Consuming powdered anticoagulants before a synovial fluid test interferes with which test?

a. crystal analysis
b. glucose measurement
c. immunology

A

a. crystal analysis

32
Q

Consuming food 6 hours before a synovial fluid test interferes with which test?

a. crystal analysis
b. glucose measurement
c. immunology

A

b. glucose measurement

33
Q

Which is used to collect synovial fluid for microbiology tests?

a. Plain tube
b. Heparinized tube
c. Sterile container
d. EDTA

A

c. Sterile container

34
Q

Which is used to collect synovial fluid for hematology tests?

a. Plain tube
b. Heparinized tube
c. Sterile container
d. EDTA

A

d. EDTA

35
Q

Lab technician preforms wet preparation on synovial fluid, which test is he going to go on the specimen?

A

cystal study (it requires wet preparation; this was said in class)

36
Q

Rice bodies are often an indicator of which disease?

A

RA

37
Q

What are Rice bodies made out of?

A

infarcts of the joint synovium encased in layers of fibrin

38
Q

What are ochronotic shards are made out of?

A

joint prosthesis debris. they look pepper-like

39
Q

Which of the following tests viscosity? (aka hyaluronan)

a. ropes test
b. string test
c. thread test

A

b. string test

40
Q

Which of the following tests requires the addition of acetic acid?

a. ropes test
b. string test
c. thread test

A

a. ropes test

41
Q

Crystal examination showed calcium oxalate crystals that are positively birefringent with a bipyramidal shape. What’s the diagnosis?

a. gout
b. pseudogout
c. long term renal dialysis
d. acute arthritis
e. tuberculosis arthritis
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

c. long term renal dialysis

Calcium oxalate crystals are the most common cause of kidney stones

42
Q

Which of the following tests hyaluronic acid-mucin protein complex?

a. ropes test
b. string test
c. thread test

A

a. ropes test

43
Q

Crystal examination showed monosodium urate crystals that are negatively birefringent with a needle shape. What’s the diagnosis?

a. gout
b. pseudogout
c. long term renal dialysis
d. acute arthritis
e. tuberculosis arthritis
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

a. gout

44
Q

Appears blue when perpendicular to compensator.

a. negative birefringence
b. positive birefringence

A

a. negative birefringence

45
Q

Crystals of which disease look yellow when aligned (parallel) with the compensator filter?

a. gout
b. pseudogout

A

a. gout

monosodium urate crystals

46
Q

Crystal examination showed calcium lipid crystals that are positively birefringent and have a maltase cross appearance. What’s the diagnosis?

a. gout
b. pseudogout
c. long term renal dialysis
d. acute arthritis
e. tuberculosis arthritis
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

d. acute arthritis

47
Q

Crystals of which disease look blue when aligned (parallel) with the compensator filter?

a. gout
b. pseudogout

A

b. pseudogout

calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals

48
Q

Which type of arthritis causes a high number of monocyte cells?

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. crystal induced arthritis
c. septic arthritis

A

b. crystal induced arthritis

49
Q

Crystals are seen in a rhombic shape and a notched corner. They appear to adhere together. What are the crystals made out of?

A

cholesterol (may indicate RA or Tuberculosis artheritis)

50
Q

Appears yellow when perpendicular to compensator.

a. negative birefringence
b. positive birefringence

A

b. positive birefringence

51
Q

Which type of arthritis causes a high number of lymphocyte cells?

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. crystal induced arthritis
c. septic arthritis

A

a. rheumatoid arthritis

52
Q

Crystal examination showed calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals that are rhomboid/square shape. What’s the diagnosis?

a. gout
b. pseudogout
c. long term renal dialysis
d. acute arthritis
e. tuberculosis arthritis
f. rheumatoid arthritis

A

b. pseudogout

53
Q

Which type of arthritis causes a high number of neutrophils cells?

a. rheumatoid arthritis
b. crystal induced arthritis
c. septic arthritis

A

c. septic arthritis

54
Q

Whats the most common place affected by OA?

a. hips
b. knees
c. hands
e. elbowz

A

b. knees

55
Q

Which is more true?

a. OA starts with the degeneration then the inflammation
b. OA starts with the inflammation then the degeneration

A

a. OA starts with the degeneration then the inflammation

56
Q

Knock knee is also known as

a. Varus deformity
b. Valgus deformity

A

b. Valgus deformity

57
Q

Radiology of bone for OA is used to

a. screen
b. confirm

A

b. confirm

and to rule out other things

58
Q

Bow leg is also known as

a. Varus deformity
b. Valgus deformity

A

a. Varus deformity

59
Q

What are the most common causes of lower back pain?

A

lumbar sprain and strain

60
Q

Lower back pain with unexplained weight loss might indicate

a. neurological problems
b. infection
c. malignancies
d. rheumatic disease

A

c. malignancies

61
Q

Lower back pain with bladder/bowl problems might indicate

a. neurological problems
b. infection
c. malignancies
d. rheumatic disease

A

a. neurological problems

62
Q

Medially wedged insoles are used for

a. Varus deformity
b. Valgus deformity

A

b. Valgus deformity

63
Q

How does medically directed patellar taping help OA patients?

A

It changes the patella location to improve symptoms

64
Q

Subtalar Strapped lateral insoles are used for

a. Varus deformity
b. Valgus deformity

A

a. Varus deformity

65
Q

What’s the primary protection against malpractice lawsuits?

A

patient preference

66
Q

T/F: informed consent is a paper the patient must sign

A

false, informed consent PROCESS

67
Q

You look at an Xray and notice the dens in the middle of the vertebra. Which vertebra is this?

A

C2, axis

68
Q

You look at an Xray and notice the foramen transversarium. Which vertebra is this?

A

C1, atlas

69
Q

Who is most commonly affected by discitis?

A

patients with low immunity or those with a recent spinal procedure

70
Q

What can you conclude when one nucleus pulposus appears more opaque than the others in an Xray?

A

its dehydrated

71
Q

What type of fracture occurs if a patient takes a long fall on the feet?

A

burst fracture

72
Q

Which most commonly affects the spinal canal?

a. dorsal spine fracture
b. wedges fracture

A

b. wedges fracture

it’s mostly wedged posteriorly

73
Q

Which stage of avascular necrosis is a patient with a regular acetabulum contour (but a collapsed femur) in?

a. stage 0
b. stage 1
c. stage 2
d. stage 3
e. stage 4

A

c. stage 2

74
Q

Which stage of avascular necrosis is a patient with a regular contour of the femoral head in spite of dead bone tissue in?

a. stage 0
b. stage 1
c. stage 2
d. stage 3
e. stage 4

A

b. stage 1

75
Q

What three bones have an easily compromised blood supply?

A

femoral head
scaphoid
talus

76
Q

Which stage of avascular necrosis is a patient with a complete collapse of femoral head in?

a. stage 0
b. stage 1
c. stage 2
d. stage 3
e. stage 4

A

e. stage 4

77
Q

What makes up the conjoined tendon of the knee?

A

The lateral collateral ligament and biceps femoris tendon

MSK - 3rd year (19 decks)

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