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Flashcards in Chapter 8 Deck (45)
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1
Q

What organization heads U.S. government agencies in investigating
and attempting to prevent terrorist attacks on U.S. soil? (361)
A. FBI
B. EPA
C. IAFC
D. AFTE

A

A

2
Q

What separates terrorist tactics from legitimate activities? (361)
A. Leadership structure
B. Funding from grass roots sources
C. Rhetoric based on a charismatic leader’s philosophies
D. The decision to engage in criminal, intimidating activities

A

D

3
Q

An act of terrorism is intended to: (363)
A. avoid public infrastructure.
B. inflict as little damage as possible.
C. spare first responders but not civilians.
D. cause damage, inflict harm, and/or kill

A

D

4
Q
Which type of concept differentiates between nontargeted 
emergencies and a targeted attack? (363)
A. Intent
B. Use of PPE
C. Unknown materials
D. Monitoring and detection devices
A

A

5
Q
If terrorist activity is suspected at an incident, first responders must 
immediately: (363)
A. retreat.
B. notify law enforcement.
C. take public safety samples.
D. attempt to restrain those responsible
A

B

6
Q
What type of terrorism presents a threat to computer/network 
security? (364)
A. Assassination
B. Agroterrorism
C. Cyberterrorism
D. Suicide bombings
A

C

7
Q

What type of occupancy is MOST likely to be targeted by terrorists?
(365)
A. An airport
B. A rural farm
C. A private residence
D. An old building with no historical significance

A

A

8
Q

The greatest threat of mass-produced WMD agents most likely
comes from: (367)
A. isolated terrorist groups.
B. hackers or cyberterrorists.
C. developing nations that want to make themselves known on the
world political stage.
D. nations or organizations with the infrastructure, finances, and
scientific knowledge to produce them

A

D

9
Q
What should you do if you spot or suspect a booby trap or secondary 
device? (369)
A. Try to disarm it.
B. Sample it for evidence.
C. Move it to a secure location.
D Contact bomb squad personnel
A

D

10
Q
Unusually colored smoke or flames combined with unusually fast 
burning fires may indicate: (371)
A. a nuclear explosion.
B. an explosive device.
C. a biological weapon.
D. radiological contamination
A

B

11
Q

An explosion results when a material undergoes a physical or
chemical reaction and: (372)
A. two fuels are rapidly mixed.
B. the oxidizing component is removed.
C. rapidly contracting gases cause the surrounding atmosphere to
implode.
D. rapidly expanding gases compress the surrounding atmosphere
into a shock front

A

D

12
Q
Which phase of a blast-pressure wave can cause damage? (372)
A. Both phases
B. Neither phase
C. Positive-pressure phase only
D. Negative-pressure phase only
A

A

13
Q

High explosives: (373)
A. only have a low-pressure phase.
B. only have a positive-pressure phase.
C. do not require an oxidizing component.
D. detonate faster than the speed of sound

A

D

14
Q

What kind of explosives are usually used as detonators because they
are easily initiated and highly sensitive to heat? (374)
A. Low
B. High
C. Primary
D. Secondary

A

C

15
Q
What type of explosives are nonmilitary first responders MOST likely
to encounter? (375)
A. Mining explosives
B. Mortars or grenades
C. Antipersonnel mines
D. Improvised Explosive Materials
A

D

16
Q

What types of explosives commonly take the form of a white crystal
or powder that must be mixed with a fuel source? (379)
A. Nitrate-based
B. Fluorine-based
C. Chlorate-based
D. Peroxide-based

A

C

17
Q
The most common type of IED found in the United States is a: (381)
A. pipe bomb.
B. tennis ball bomb.
C. plastic bottle bomb.
D. carbon dioxide grenade
A

A

18
Q

When identifying IEDs, responders should be cautious of any: (380)
A. trash bag.
B. round object.
C. see-thru plastic bottles.
D. item that is out of context or seems unusual

A

D

19
Q

Indicators of a package or letter bomb include: (384)
A. small rectangular sizes.
B. careful writing with correct spelling.
C. mail shows oily stains or discoloration.
D. postmarks that are the same as the return address

A

C

20
Q
If you suspect a suicide bomber, what is the first priority? (386)
A. Leave immediately.
B. Apprehend the suspect.
C. Clear and isolate the area.
D. Warn the suspect not to move
A

C

21
Q

Who should move, defuse, or handle explosive devices? (388)
A. The initial responder
B. Only a hazmat technician
C. Only a certified, trained bomb technician
D. The highest ranking responder at the scene

A

C

22
Q

Unexplained patterns or sudden onset of similar, nontraumatic and
non infectious illnesses or death may indicate a possible _____
attack. (391)
A. chemical
B. explosive
C. incendiary
D. biological/etiological

A

A

23
Q
Nerve agents: (392)
A. have a pungent unique odor.
B. attack the cardiovascular system.
C. are liquids at ambient temperatures.
D. are absorbed only through the respiratory system
A

C

24
Q
Sarin (GB) and Soman (GD) are examples of \_\_\_\_\_ agents. (393)
A. blood
B. nerve
C. blister
D. choking
A

B

25
Q

Mustard agents and arsenical vesicants: (393)
A. attack and cause tissue damage to lungs.
B. kill quickly by attacking the nervous system.
C. burn and blister the skin or any other part of the body they
contact.
D. prevent red blood cells from carrying oxygen to other cells in
the body

A

C

26
Q

How do blood agents cause harm? (395)
A. They are infectious.
B. They cause disseminated blood coagulation.
C. They interfere with the body’s ability to use oxygen.
D. They cause immediate and widespread bleeding from all body
orifices

A

C

27
Q
If you smell freshly cut hay in an urban setting, you should suspect 
the presence of: (399)
A. Sarin, a nerve agent.
B. phosgene, a choking agent.
C. any of the riot control agents.
D. hydrogen cyanide, a blood agent
A

B

28
Q
Which category of chemical agents may be sold legally as personal 
defense devices? (399)
A. Nerve gas
B. Blood agents
C. Riot control agents
D. Chemical asphyxiants
A

C

29
Q

An industrial chemical that is toxic at a certain concentration and is
produced in quantities exceeding 30 tons (30.5 tonnes) per year at
one facility is called a(an): (400)
A. poisonous chemical (PC).
B. toxic industrial material (TIM).
C. industrial toxic chemical (ITC).
D. highly regulated toxic material (HRTM)

A

B

30
Q

Which type of biological agent can only replicate inside a host’s living
cells and do not respond to antibiotics? (403)
A. Toxins
B. Viruses
C. Bacteria
D. Rickettsias

A

B

31
Q

Why is it so difficult to trace the source of a biological attack? (403)
A. They occur too frequently.
B. Biological agents are readily available.
C. It is easy to weaponize viruses and bacteria.
D. There may be a delay of weeks before someone becomes ill.

A

D

32
Q

What is an indicator of a biological attack? (404)
A. Unexplained odors or tastes
B. Unusually colored smoke or flames
C. Unexplained vapor clouds, mists, and plumes
D. Casualty distribution aligned with wind direction

A

D

33
Q
Which mode of disease transmission has the potential to infect a 
large number of people quickly? (405)
A. Vector
B. Droplet
C. Airborne
D. Direct contact
A

C

34
Q
An infectious disease that can spread rapidly from person to person 
is: (405)
A. toxic.
B. poisonous.
C. contagious.
D. noncontagious
A

C

35
Q
Universal precautions are meant to protect against: (407)
A. gases.
B. explosives.
C. chemical agents.
D. biological agents
A

D

36
Q

At biologic attack incidents, isolation and containment issues will
primarily involve: (408)
A. managing infected victims.
B. using universal precautions.
C. getting everyone out of the area.
D. making plans for follow-up with victims

A

A

37
Q

What is a dirty bomb? (409)
A. A nuclear bomb
B. A weapon that releases radiological materials
C. An explosive covered with petrochemical products
D. Legal fireworks that have been manipulated to be more
powerful

A

B

38
Q
An electromagnetic pulse may indicate a: (409)
A. dirty bomb.
B. suicide bomb.
C. nuclear attack.
D. radiological attack
A

C

39
Q

Any device (other than a nuclear explosive device), specifically
designed to disseminate radioactive material to cause destruction,
damage, or injury, is called a: (410)
A. radiation enhancer (RE).
B. radiation-emitting device (RED).
C. radiological-dispersal device (RDD).
D. radiological-dispersal weapons (RDW)

A

C

40
Q

Where should apparatus be positioned in a radiological or nuclear
incident? (411)
A. Upwind of the incident
B. Downwind of the incident
D. As close to the detonation point as possible
C. At least 1 mile (1.5 km) from the detonation point

A

A

41
Q
Illicit labs are generally: (412)
A. unprotected.
B. not dangerous.
C. extremely hazardous.
D. found only in urban areas
A

C

42
Q

Which of the following might suggest an illicit lab? (412)
A. Barred windows at an Alzheimer’s facility
B. Laboratory glassware in a high school science class
C. Disinfectants and gloves in a motel’s cleaning facility
D. Unusual odors in unexpected places such as hotel room spacious

A

D

43
Q
Which of the following is MOST likely to be a hazard at an illegal 
hazmat dump? (414)
A. Shrapnel
B. Booby traps
C. High levels of radiation
D. Unlabeled and/or mixed chemicals
A

D

44
Q
Aged chemicals: (414)
A. are not a hazard.
B. may become unstable.
C. cannot contaminate groundwater.
D. are not considered to be illegally dumped
A

B

45
Q
Orphaned hazardous materials may be an issue during terrorist 
attacks and: (414)
A. natural disasters.
B. training exercises.
C. legal hazmat dumps.
D. in medical occupations
A

A