Chapter 32 Burns Flashcards Preview

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Flashcards in Chapter 32 Burns Deck (76)
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1. The LEAST significant complication associated with damage to the skin following a burn injury is: A) decreased melanin granules. B) disturbances in fluid balance. C) difficulty with thermoregulation. D) susceptibility to bacterial invasion.

Ans: A Page: 1576


2. The skin sheds excess heat from the body through: A) retention of salt and water. B) the evaporation of sweat. C) cutaneous vasoconstriction. D) decreased sebum production.

Ans: B Page: 1576


3. The severity of a thermal burn correlates directly with: A) the body's ability to effectively dissipate significant heat energy and the patient's general state of health. B) the presence of any underlying medical problems, the duration of exposure, and the temperature of the heat source. C) the duration of exposure, the physical size of the patient, and the presence of concomitant traumatic injuries. D) the temperature of the heat source, the amount of heat energy possessed by the object or substance, and the duration of exposure.

Ans: D Page: 1578


4. Thermal burns are MOST commonly caused by exposure to: A) hot liquids. B) hot solid objects. C) an open flame. D) superheated steam.

Ans: C Page: 1578


5. Which of the following statements regarding scald burns is correct? A) Once hot liquids come in contact with clothing, heat is rapidly dissipated. B) Scald burns often cover large surface areas because liquids spread quickly. C) Scald burns caused by grease or oil are typically limited to the epidermis. D) Scald burns are less commonly seen in pediatric patients than adult patients.

Ans: B Page: 1578


6. Which of the following burn injuries or patterns should make you the MOST suspicious for abuse? A) Burns to the forearm B) Splash burns to a leg C) An arc burn to the hand D) Burns with formed shapes

Ans: D Page: 1579


7. What type of thermal burn is MOST commonly associated with inhalation injury? A) Steam burns B) Flame burns C) Scald burns D) Arc burns

Ans: A Page: 1579


8. Flash burns: A) are usually relatively minor compared with the potential for trauma from whatever caused the flash. B) are caused by prolonged exposure to intense heat, usually resulting in burns that extend deep into the dermis. C) are a common source of burn injury and are most often the result of hot liquids, such as radiator fluid. D) are generally confined to a very small area of the body, but cause extensive damage to the dermis.

Ans: A Page: 1579


9. Burn shock is caused by: A) a massive infection that occurs when microorganisms breach burned skin. B) renal failure secondary to excess myoglobin production from burned muscle. C) fluid loss across damaged skin and volume shifts within the rest of the body. D) acute dehydration, and it commonly manifests within 30 minutes after the burn.

Ans: C Page: 1577-1578


10. If an acutely burned patient is in shock in the prehospital setting: A) it is likely that he or she is experiencing burn shock. B) you should look for another injury as the source of shock. C) administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline and reassess. D) avoid IV fluids unless the systolic BP is below 80 mm Hg.

Ans: B Page: 1589


11. Supraglottic damage following a burn is MOST often caused by: A) the inhalation of superheated gases. B) exposure to carbon monoxide or cyanide. C) the inhalation of hot particulate steam. D) direct flame exposure to the oropharynx.

Ans: A Page: 1580


12. Which of the following is the LEAST common cause of death from fires? A) Pulmonary injury B) Integument burns C) Upper airway compromise D) Inhalation of toxic gases

Ans: B Page: 1580


13. Which of the following statements regarding carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning is correct? A) Never rule out CO poisoning because of the absence of cherry red skin. B) The most common symptom of CO poisoning is chest pressure. C) CO results in systemic hypoxia by disintegrating red blood cells. D) Hyperbaric therapy is beneficial only if CO levels are above 40%.

Ans: A Page: 1581


14. The progression of a chemical burn is MOSTLY dependent on: A) the length of time the corrosive chemical remains on the skin. B) the surface area of the body exposed to a corrosive chemical. C) whether the corrosive substance is a strong acid or alkali. D) the patient's general health and the thickness of his or her skin.

Ans: A Page: 1590


15. The degree of absorption of a corrosive chemical determines: A) the type of liquid used to irrigate the burn. B) whether the burn should be flushed. C) whether toxicity is local or systemic. D) the antidote required to reverse the effects.

Ans: C Page: 1590-1591


16. Dry powder chemicals: A) will react violently with water and should not be irrigated. B) cause coagulation necrosis if they are absorbed by the body. C) should be brushed off the skin before irrigation with water. D) are effectively neutralized on the skin with isopropyl alcohol.

Ans: C Page: 1591-1592


17. Phosphorus is found in _____________ and burns when exposed to _____________. A) fireworks, air B) oven cleaner, water C) drain cleaner, air D) battery acid, water

Ans: A Page: 1591


18. Chemicals such as Lewisite and phosgene oxime: A) are strong alkalis that cause liquefaction necrosis. B) damage the body by extracting water from the tissues. C) are most commonly found in drain and oven cleaners. D) are vesicant agents that produce cutaneous blisters rapidly.

Ans: D Page: 1591


19. Which of the following chemicals causes a painless burn and can result in significant damage before it is identified? A) Phenol B) Sulfur mustard C) Sulfuric acid D) Potassium hydroxide

Ans: A Page: 1591


20. The appropriate treatment for MOST chemical burns is: A) application of a dry, sterile dressing. B) flushing with copious amounts of water. C) neutralization with an alkaline substance. D) application of a moist, sterile dressing.

Ans: B Page: 1590-1592


21. A person who is exposed to cement: A) typically only experiences burns to the epidermal layer because calcium oxide is a weak chemical. B) often does not experience a burn unless he or she is exposed to the cement for longer than 2 hours. C) may not notice a skin burn for hours because cement penetrates through clothing and reacts with sweat. D) experiences immediate pain and inflammation to the area because of the calcium oxide in the cement.

Ans: C Page: 1591


22. A burn caused by a sodium metal should be treated by: A) administering calcium chloride. B) covering the burn wound with oil. C) applying a moist, sterile dressing. D) irrigating the wound with water.

Ans: B Page: 1582


23. The outer zone of an entrance or exit wound caused by a contact electrical burn is: A) the red zone of coagulation necrosis. B) simply caused by local inflammation. C) a charred area of full-thickness burn. D) characterized by cold, gray, dry tissue.

Ans: A Page: 1596


24. Relative to the entrance wound caused by an electrical burn, the exit wound: A) is a predictor of internal injury. B) heals without surgical intervention. C) is often much smaller in diameter. D) can be quite extensive and deep.

Ans: D Page: 1595


25. Victims standing near an object that is struck by lightning: A) most commonly experience blast-type injuries. B) often have burns characterized by a feathering pattern. C) typically experience intractable ventricular fibrillation. D) experience full-thickness burns that require debridement.

Ans: B Page: 1597


26. Cardiac arrest following an electrical shock: A) typically presents as pulseless atrial fibrillation or atrial flutter. B) is most often caused by an electrical current stronger than 1 ampere. C) may occur secondarily from hypoxia or as a direct result of the shock. D) is typically of short duration and is often reversed with 2 minutes of CPR.

Ans: C Page: 1596


27. Damage to the kidneys following an electrical injury: A) is caused by excess serum potassium levels. B) occurs when damaged muscle produces myoglobin. C) can be prevented with boluses of lactated Ringer's. D) is the result of electricity passing through the kidneys.

Ans: B Page: 1598


28. The two MOST common causes of death from an electrical injury are: A) asphyxia and cardiopulmonary arrest. B) full-thickness burns and respiratory arrest. C) nervous system damage and massive sepsis. D) myoglobinuria and diaphragmatic paralysis.

Ans: A Page: 1596


29. Most lightning-related injuries occur when the victim: A) experiences a direct hit while standing in a large open area. B) is talking on a phone and a utility pole is struck by lightning. C) is attempting to escape an oncoming thunderstorm by running. D) receives a "splash" effect after lightning strikes a nearby object.

Ans: D Page: 1597


30. Which of the following locations would provide the BEST protection from a lightning strike? A) An open shed or lean-to B) A spot at least 5 miles away from the storm C) Curled up in a ball in an open area D) A car with the windows rolled up

Ans: D Page: 1598