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Cell Dynamics Anderson Flashcards

1
Q

examples of integral proteins (anchored, span entire membrane)

A

ion channels and transport proteins

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2
Q

example of peripheral proteins

A

hormone receptors

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3
Q

why is potassium a main intracellular ion?

A

because the Na/K pump sends 3 NA out and brings 2 K in

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4
Q

glucose is cotransported with

A

Na

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5
Q

type of transporter that requires ATP

A

active…can transport against the gradient

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6
Q

type of transporters that are substrate specific

A

facilitated and active

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7
Q

while most substances that pass through the cell membrane are via diffusion and active transport, those that are too large require

A

endocytosis which requires ATP…pinocytosis is engulfing small things and phagocytosis is engulfing large things

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8
Q

channels can be gated in these two ways

A

voltage (membrane potential) or ligand (hormone, 2nd messenger)

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9
Q

major ICF ions

A

K, Mg

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10
Q

major ECF ions

A

Na, Ca, Cl

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11
Q

explain action potential sequence

A

-70 at rest, Na+ gates open and Na+ floods into the cell, then K gates open, sodium gates close, and K gates slowly close which leads to hyperpolarization

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12
Q

what is depolarization

A

makes the membrane potential less negative (cell interior)

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13
Q

hyperpolarization

A

makes membrane potential more negative (interior)

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14
Q

outward current

A

flow of positive charge out of the cell which hyperpolarizes the membrane potential

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15
Q

action potentials are

A

all or none

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16
Q

threshold is

A

the membrane potential at which the action potential is inevitable

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17
Q

where is the synthesis of a small neurotransmitter (Dopa, NE, Epi, GABA, Glycine, Glutamate, Serotonin)

A

cytosol of the presynaptic terminal

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18
Q

where is the synthesis of a neuropeptide neurotransmitter (ACTH, TSH, etc)

A

in the neuronal cell body, by the ribosomes

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19
Q

how are small molecule neurotransmitters released

A

stored in vesicles and release triggered by AP at presynaptic membrane…removal is recycling back into presynaptic membrane

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20
Q

how are neuropeptide neurotransmitters released

A

golgi packages into transmitter vesicles that are released into axonal cytoplasm, release triggered by AP…neuropeptides are autolyzed and not recycled

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21
Q

2 classes of cholinergic receptors

A

nicotinic and muscarinic

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22
Q

where are muscarinic receptors

A

postsynaptic parasympathetic, sweat glands…use second messenger

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23
Q

where are nicotinic receptors

A

autonomic ganglia, sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia, adrenal medulla, neuromuscular junction…ligand gated

24
Q

4 types of adrenergic (NE/Epi) receptors

A

alpha 1, alpha 2, beta 1, beta 2…alpha are excitatory except in GI and beta are inhibitory except in the heart

25
Q

alpha 1 receptor

A

vessels…generally excitatory, Gi tract inhibitory….uses IP3 while others use cAMP

26
Q

alpha 2 receptor

A

brain, decreased sympathetic tone in CNS and decreases catecholamine release

27
Q

beta 1 receptor

A

excitatory to heart

28
Q

beta 2 receptor

A

lungs…inhibitory (vasodilation, bronchodilation

29
Q

metaplasia

A

premalignant, transforming an adult tissue to another kind of adult tissue

30
Q

dysplasia

A

premalignant abnormal tissue development

31
Q

anaplasia

A

malignant, loss of structural differentiation especially as seen in most but not all malignant neoplasms

32
Q

cloudy swelling and hydropic degeration

A

cellular swelling appears whenever cells are incapable of maintainng ionic and fluid homeostasis…decreased ATP concentration and increased ATP activity cause Na to accumulate which results in iso-osmotic gain of water

33
Q

fatty degeneration

A

foam cells, due to metabolic damage usually

34
Q

hyalin degeneration

A

intracellular accumulation of any proteins that stain pink on H & E staining

35
Q

myxomatous degeneration

A

increased ground substance with damage to CT fibers

36
Q

coagulation necrosis

A

denaturation and coagulation of cytoplasmic proteins, characteristic of hypoxic death in all tissues except the brain

37
Q

caseous necrosis

A

distinct form of coagulation necrosis, refers to gross white and cheesy appearance of necrosis (TB)

38
Q

liquefaction necrosis

A

results from enzymatic digestion by leukocytes (brain and fatty tissue)

39
Q

fat necrosis

A

focal areas of destruction of fat resulting from abnormal release of activated pancreatic lipases into pancreas and peritoneal cavity (pancreatitis)

40
Q

dry gangrene

A

area with little or no blood supple and no sepsis

41
Q

wet gangrene

A

a bacterial infection is superimposed on coagulative necrosis

42
Q

gas gangrene

A

specific to clostridium perfringens

43
Q

structures that normally calficy in adults

A

pineal, media of large arteries (Monckebergs), mitral valve annulus, tracheal cartilages

44
Q

hemosiderin lagen macrophages

A

heart failure cells

45
Q

melanin is made from

A

tyrosine…redheads make pheomelanin instead which does not protect from sunlight but actually generates free radicals when sun exposed (type IV skin)

46
Q

diseases with increased ACTH cause ___ in the skin

A

hyperpigmentation

47
Q

melanin in the urine indicates

A

melanoma

48
Q

neoplasia

A

tumor formation

49
Q

likely tumors to spread

A

breast, small/oat cell undifferentiated carcinoma of the lungs, squamous cell carcinoma of GI

50
Q

sites for metastasis

A

lungs, liver, bone, brain

51
Q

grades of CA is based on

A

I=looking like parent tissue and IV=no resemblance to parent tissue

52
Q

Stage of CA is based on

A

extent of spread within the patient and size of the original tumor

53
Q

carcinoma origin is generally

A

epithelial tissue/organ tissue

54
Q

sarcoma origin is generally

A

connective tissues

55
Q

carcinoma in situa means

A

histologically malignant but non-invasive

56
Q

p53 is

A

a tumor supressor gene, glutathione dependent

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