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Flashcards in Canine Pathogen Deck (90)
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1
Q

Actinomyces

A

bacterial infection often associated with migration of a grass awn

2
Q

Acute anterior uveitis

A

intraocular pressure often decreased below normal (10-20 mmHg), chronic uveitis can lead to glaucoma and resultant high pressures

3
Q

Ancylostoma caninum

A

Hookworm; treat with Ivermectin, fenbendazole, pyrantel, or butamisole. Can penetrate through the skin of young pups and migrate to the lungs where they are coughed up and swallowed and mature in the small intestine. There, the worms suck blood and cause bleeding ulcers; up to 0.1 ml of blood per worm can be lost per day. Aberrant migration under the skin of infected people results in cutaneous larva migrans.

4
Q

Aortic stenosis treatment

A

Medical management with beta blockers (ex. atenolol) used to reduce myocardial oxygen demand, thus reducing the frequency of ventricular arrhythmias.The owner should also be warned to the dog will need prophylactic antibiotics for any situation in which the dog may develop a bacteremia since it is at high risk of developing infective endocarditis.

5
Q

Avascular necrosis (Legg-Calves-Perthes Disease)

A

Results in a collapse or fragmentation of the femoral epiphysis because of a disruption in blood flow. The cause of blood flow interruption is unknown. The condition occurs in young small-breed dogs prior to closure of the capital femoral physis. The condition can be seen bilaterally in 10-17% of patients. Dogs are usually 6-7 months of age when they first start showing clinical signs but the age may range from 3-13 months. Treatment with a femoral head and neck ostectomy (FHO) generally yields excellent results. Alternatively, if owners demand perfect biomechanics, a total hip replacement may be considered, but most veterinarians tend to recommend an FHO.

6
Q

Blastomycosis

A

Broad-bases buddy organism. Dog likely has a history of travel to the Ohio River alley.

7
Q

Blood profile with hypervitaminosis D

A

High Ca and High P

Excessive intake of vitamin D is associated with an increase in 25-hyroxyvitamin D3 levels. At high levels, 25-hydroxyvitamin D3 competes with 1,25-dihyroxyvitamin D3 for its receptors on the intestines and bone causing increased absorption of Ca and P from te intestinal tract and resorption of bone causing increased levels of circulating Ca and P. A common source of confusion in that this is in contrast to PTH which causes high Ca but generally causes unchanged or normal phosphorus because it also enhances renal phosphorus excretion.

8
Q

Campylobacteriosis

A

mucous-laden diarrhea. Gram-negative “gull shaped” rods, single or in pairs or chains.

9
Q

Canine Distemper

A

Clinical signs: diarrhea, increased respiratory effort, and seizures. Most susceptible at 3-6 months of age, before 3 months protected by maternally derived antibodies. Very contagious and spreads mainly by aerosolized respiratory secretions. Virus is shed for several weeks after infection.

Diagnosis: Immunofluorescent assay on affected epithelium

10
Q

canine familial dermatomyositis

A

Collies

11
Q

Canine Tracheobronchitis

A

Caused by canine parainfluenza virus

12
Q

Central Diabetes Insipidus

A

Patient has a problem with the function of the hypothalamus (ADH production) and/or neurohypophysis/posterior pituitary (ADH release) so the patient can not respond to the changes in the serum osmolality or blood volume and pressure. The urine specific gravity of a CDI patient is usually 1.001-1.007. The kidneys have no problem responding to ADH in CDI patients. There is a lack of the hormone, not an over-abundance.

13
Q

Chronic Superficial Keratitis (CSK)

A

(Pannus or Uberreiter’s disease) immune-mediated inflammatory disease of the cornea, particularly seen in GSDs due to UV light exposure. It is believed that the UV light alters corneal proteins leading to an immune reaction. It is treated with topic steroids and cyclosporine, and animals ofter require lifelong therapy.

14
Q

Coccidiocomycosis

A

Spherules - pic in screen shots

Clinical history: chronic cough and development of lameness with lesions over lameness. Chest radiographs - diffuse bronchointerstitial pattern which is nodular in some regions. Hilar lymphadenopathy. Treat with prolonged fungal treatment. Fluconazole is the treatment of choice. Ketoconazole and itraconazole are good choices.

15
Q

Coonhound paralysis (idopathic polyradiculoneuritis)

A

may be seen after a raccoon bite, systemic illness, or vaccination; the cause is often unknown. Cranial nerve involvement is usually limited tot he facial and pharyngeal/laryngeal region. Additionally, diffuse hyperesthesia may be present with Coonhound paralysis.

16
Q

Corneal dermoid

A

congenital tumour in Dog and Cat

17
Q

Cricopharyngeal dysphagia

A

congenital disorder characterized by incoordination of swallow reflex.

18
Q

Demodex canis

A

Commensal mite, secondary to an underlying disease or immunosuppression. There are several treatment options. Amitraz (Mitaban) is the only FDA approved one but difficult to get a hold of and use (is a dip and must be administered in a hospital). Ivermectin and milbemycin are also used to treat this condition “off-label” To stop treatment: requires two negative skin scrapes one month apart

19
Q

Dipetalonema reconditum

A

is not pathogenic and is therefore not treated.microfilaria parasite found in the peripheral blood of dogs. Blood parasite that looks similar to the microfilariae of Dirofilaria immitis, the agent of Heartworm disease. The two parasites must be differentiated because Dipetalonema reconditum

20
Q

Dirofilaria immitis

A

canine heartworm

21
Q

Dystocia

A

most common cause is uterine inertia, followed by malpresentation, fetal oversize, narrow canal, and malformation

22
Q

Eclampsia

A

Should be suspected in a nursing dog with neurologic signs, pain or stiffness. It is due to reduction in serum-ionized calcium secondary to the demand of producing large amounts of milk. Treatment is with calcium supplementation.

23
Q

Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome

A

group of connective tissue disorders that are characterised by fragile, stretchy and loose skin, caused by a genetic defect in the production of collagen

24
Q

Emphysematous cystitis

A

Caused by the presence of gas-forming bacteria. Even if a patient is asymptomatic, emphysematous cystitis typically has an underlying cause that should be determined and treated. The most common rule outs include Cushing’s disease (ACTH stimulation test), diabetes mellitus (urinalysis to look for glucosuria), chronic urinary tract infections (urine culture) and bladder stones. Once the underlying disease process is treated, the cystitis will typically resolve with antibiotic therapy.

25
Q

Extraocular polymyositis

A

golden retriever

26
Q

Familial Shar Pei Fever (FSF)

A

high fever and unilateral or bilateral tarsal swelling. The swelling affects tissues around the joint, rather than with the tarsus itself. FSF also predisposed to amyloidosis, resulting in proteinuria.

27
Q

Fanconi syndrome

A

are renal disorder of dogs in which the proximal renal tubules of the kidney do not properly reabsorb electrolytes and nutrients back into the body, but instead “spill” them in the urine - particularly Basenjis dogs. Leads to hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, and metabolic acidosis.

28
Q

Gastric Dilation and Volvulus

A

Typically occurs with repositioning of the pylorus to the left dorsal abdomen. Right lateral best positions for revealing a gas filled left dorsally-displaced pylorus with a gas-filled ventral fundus separated by a soft tissue band (compartmented stomach).

The stomach is likely to rotate in a counter-clockwise direction if looking att eh patient from cranial to caudal, clockwise from surgeon’s perspective (caudal to cranial)

29
Q

Hansen’s Type 1 disc disease

A

In chondrodystrophic breeds such as the dachshund and the bassett hound, the nucleus pulposus undergoes chondroid degeneration. These breeds are genetically predisposed to such pathology and changes such as mineralisation are normally apparent in more than one disc by the time the dog is one year old. The abnormal disc may bulge, chronically impinging on the ventral cord and producing slow onset of clinical signs

30
Q

Hansen’s Type 2 disc disease

A

more common in older, large breed dogs such as the German Shepard Dog. IVDD type II involves fibroid degeneration of the nucleus pulposus and protrusion of the annulus fibrosis. Over time the fibroid tissue in the disc is replaced by collagenous tissue. At the same time, hypertrophy of the surrounding annulus occurs, causing progressive compression of the spinal cord. Mineralisation of the discs is rare.

Clinical signs are normally insidious but the dog may present acutely. It is common for the dog to only show signs of dynamic compression of the spinal cord, for example when jumping. As the onset of disease is normally gradual and progressive, so clinical signs are normally less severe on presentation

31
Q

Heartworm preventative

A

ivermectin or milbemycin once monthly

32
Q

Heinz body anemia

A

regenerative anemia

33
Q

Hemorrhagic gastroenteritis (HGE)

A

severe form of gastrointestinal disease that is very common among small dogs. Aggressive fluid therapy is extremely important for these patients to prevent shock, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and renal failure. And abnormally high PCV can be a good indicator of this disease if there is a history of bloody diarrhea. Anti-nausea and gastroprotective medications may help the patient to feel better, but aggressive fluid therapy is the most important treatment for these patients.

34
Q

Histiocytomas

A

In young dogs, localized masses along the head, ears, and limbs - a benign collection of histiocytes with a few other inflammatory cells present. They occur in young dogs and often resolve after a few months. A few histiocytomas can ulcerate, and multiple histiocytomas can be found on one animals. Those that do not regress on their own can be surgically excised. FNA will often give a conclusive diagnosis.

35
Q

Hyperadrenocorticism

A

“Cushing’s disease” more commonly occurs in older, large breed dogs. Thinning and increased fragility of the skin, Calcinosis cutis, weight gain due to slower metabolism, usually have normal appetite, PU/PD

36
Q

Hypertrophic osteodystrophy

A

affects the metaphysis

condition seen in young, growing large breed dogs. Affects the metaphyses of all long bones and appears as an abnormal radiolucent line within the metaphysis. The disease is usually self-limiting but can cause limb deformities or systemic illness. The etiology is unknown but may be correlated with Ca/P levels and balance, vitamin C deficiency, and certain diseases including distemper

37
Q

Hypoadrenocorticism Labwork

A

hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, azotemia, anemia, acidosis, hypoglycemia, and low resting cortisol level or low ACTH stimulation test result.

38
Q

Hypoproteinemia chemistry panel

A

low calcium but does not typically result in clinical signs of hypocalcemia in dogs. The calcium measured on a chemistry panel is the protein bound calcium, which will appear low if the animal is hypoproteinemic. The ionized calcium is the active form and is not affected by an animal having a low blood protein level; therefore the total calcium on a chemistry panel is low due to hypoproteinemia, you should not see clinical signs of hypocalcemia as long as the ionized calcium is normal.

39
Q

Hypothyroid

A

fat, lazy, heat seeking missiles for skin disease

weight gain, alopecia, pyoderma, lethargy, seborrhea. prognosis good, continued therapy required. Low serum T4 and high serum cTSH (but not PU/PD)

Treatment: Sodium levothyroxine (Soloxine) which is a synthetic T4

40
Q

Immune-mediated polyarthritis

A

erosive (rare; <1%) and non-erosive forms

Akitas and Shar-pei predisposed

associated with a variety of system disease or precipitating factors.

Diagnosed by synovial fluid analysis

Treatment: of idiopathic IMPA centers on immunosuppressive therapy, often staring with prednisone and sometimes including an additional immunosuppressive drug such as azathioprine or cyclophosphamide.

41
Q

Immune-mediated hemolytic anemia (IMHA)

A

spherocytes, autoagglutination, and positive Coombs test are all specific to IMHA, will also see regenerative anemia

42
Q

Iron Deficiency

A

microcytic, hypochromic, non-regenerative anemia. (reticulocyte counts under 60,000/ul are typically considered non-regenerative in most labs) The most common cause is from chronic blood loss in gastrointestinal tract disease such as an ulcer or cancerous lesion.

43
Q

KCal requirements

A

(70 x BW^0.75) or (30 x BW +70)

44
Q

Keratoconjunctivitis sicca (KCS)

A

“dry eye” most commonly immune-mediated, also from long term atropine and sulfonamide toxicity

45
Q

Large choroidal vessels in collie

A

congenital ocular anomaly

46
Q

Leishmaniasis

A

caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Leishmania and transmitted through the bites of female phlebotomine sand flies

promastigotes invade host macrophages and replicate as intracellular amastigotes

Treatment: Allopurinol - can remain carriers after treatment

47
Q

Level of blood glucose to spill over into urine

A

>180

48
Q

Malassezia infection of the claws

A

Produce a red-brown discoloration. Clinical signs: biting at the nails (sing of pruritis), multiple claws are infected, and the dog has other symptoms of allergy (pruritis in the summer months), which could be this patient’s underlying disease.

49
Q

Medial patellar luxation repair

A

Wedge resection (deeper trochlear groove for the patella to slide in), lateral imbrication, transposition of the tibial tuberosity (both will help pull the patella a little more laterally, as they are usually predisposed to luxating medially)

50
Q

Medical management of pyometra

A

Options include prostaglandins to induce regression of corpora lutea, which relaxes the cervix and stimulates myometrial contractions, promoting expulsion of the uterine contents. Additional options include dopamine agonists (such as cabergoline and bromocriptine), which act to inhibit prolactin production from the pituitary gland. Patients should be monitored frequently during and after medical management of pyometra and should improve within 2-4 days. Successfully treated bitches should be bred during their next cycle after treatment.

51
Q

Microsporum canis

A

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Cat source of primary infection.

52
Q

Microsporum gypseum

A

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Soil source of primary infection. Common is dogs that dig - prevention of digging part of treatment plan.

53
Q

Most common epulis or gingival mass

A

Focal fibrous hyperplasia

54
Q

Mucin

A

Substance responsible for the wrinkled appearance of Shar Peis

55
Q

Mucocele

A

Usual presentation is a mass on the neck that may be painful and may produce saliva on aspiration.

56
Q

Multiple myeloma

A

Diagnosis requires a least two of the following criteria:

  1. Monoclonal gammopathy
  2. radiographic evidence of osteolytic lesions
  3. >5% neoplastic cells or >10-20% plasma cells in the bone marrow
  4. Immunoglobulin light chain proteinuria (Bence-Jones proteinuria)
57
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Clinical signs: megaesophagus and weakness

Treatment: Pyridostigmine

58
Q

Nasal aspergillosis

A

definitive diagnosis provided by histopathology

59
Q

Neorichettsia helminthoeca

A

“salmon poisoning” etiologic agent which is vectored by the intestinal fluke, Nanophyetus salmincola. Dog gets the disease by eating the salmonid fish infected with the cercaria of the fluke, which harbors rickettsia. Clinical signs along with finding fluke eggs int he feces of the dog is usually enough to make the diagnosis.

Treatment: tratracycline antibiotics

60
Q

Pancreatitis

A

Dogs on high-fat diet at risk, both in frequency and severity.

61
Q

Pemphigous vulgaris

A

auto-immune disease causing vesicles, ulceration, and crusting. It can affect the whole body, but it especially affects the mucocutaneous junctions and oral mucosa. The onset of the disease can be sudden (acute) or gradual over many weeks (chronic). The disorder is caused by an IgG autoantibody that binds to intracellular adhesion molecules (desmoglein) causing a loss of cohesion between keratinocytes resulting in acantholysis, vesicle formation, and eventual ulceration. The treatment is immunosuppressive therapy with corticosteroids and frequently additional immunomodulatory or immunosuppressive drugs such as azathioprine, cyclophosphamide, chlorambucil, or others. Unfortunately, long-term therapy is generally required and these treatments cause serious side-effects long-term. Prognosis is poor and euthanasia is often performed.

62
Q

Perianal adenoma

A

testosterone dependent

63
Q

Perianal fistula

A

Primarily immune-mediated. Treat with immunosuppressive therapy, perhaps with cyclosporine, is the initial treatment choice. Surgical used to be treatment of choice, but carries a guarded prognosis due to the risk of fecal incontinence. German Shepherds are predisposed to development of perianal fistulas.

64
Q

Pneumonyassoides caninum

A

Nasal mite than can result in facial pruritus. Dogs are mainly affected. Diagnosis is by mite identification grossly with rhinoscopy or in nasal flushes.

65
Q

Portosystemic shunts

A

Toy breeds, particularly Yorkshire Terriers, are predisposed to congenital, single, extrahepatic portosystemic shunts. Large breed dogs with congenital liver shunts tend to develop intrahepatic shunts. Acquired shunts in older animals are almost always extrahepatic.

66
Q

Primary Glaucoma progression

A

if one eye is affected, the other will also develop glaucoma in 6-12 months

67
Q

Prostitis

A

Enrofloxacin

68
Q

Pyoderma culture

A

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius. Pyoderma is common in dogs because the canine stratum corneum is a less efficient barrier to bacteria than in other species. Dogs lack an ostial plug in their follicles, a characteristic which allows bacteria to invade and colonize more readily. Mixed bacterial infections are possible, but Staph. pseudintermedius is the most common primary bacterial invader.

69
Q

Pyometra culture

A

e. coli most common bacteria cultured

70
Q

Radial hemimelia

A

Hemimelia is a developmental anomaly that is caused by the absence or shortening of a section of bone in the associated limb. Radial hemimelia has been reported in the dog.

71
Q

Ruptured cranial cruciate ligament treatment

A

leveling of the tibial plateau, cranial transportation of the fibular head, and weight reduction

72
Q

Sarcocystis cruzi

A

Ruminant is intermediate host and dog definitive host. Life-cycle involves carnivore eating an infected cow which has cysts in the muscle. Then the cyst eventually forms sporocysts which are shed in feces and subsequently eaten by more cows. The sporocysts then hatch and penetrate artery walls and hang out in the endothelium to develop into sporozoites and eventually become merozoites at which time they invade and encyst as sarcocysts.

73
Q

Sarcoptes scabiei

A

Sarcoptic mange is a highly contagious skin disease found in dogs, caused by the Sarcoptes scabiei mite. These mites will burrow through the skin causing intense itching and irritation. The scratching that results from mange is what causes the majority of the animal’s hair to fall out

zoonotic

74
Q

Simonsiella

A

normal inhabitant of the nasopharynx

75
Q

Spirocerca lupi

A

esophageal worm, found in the esophageal, aortic, and gastric walls of dogs that have eaten infected dung beetles, chickens, reptiles, or rodents. Chronic infection may cause neoplastic transformation of the surrounding tissues into sarcomas or rupture and life-threatening hemorrhage of the aorta. Treatment is ivermectin or doramectin.

76
Q

Stages of Parturition

A

Stage 1: Typically 6-12 hours and can persist for up to 36 hours. In this stage, it is expected fro the dog to exhibit panting, trembling, nesting behavior, and restlessness. Occasionally dogs will also vomit. At this point, there is subclinical uterine contraction and dilation of the cervix.

Stage 2: will also last 6-12 hours (and persist up to 36 hours) as is characterized by abdominal straining which coincides with uterine contraction. Puppy delivery occurs during stage 2 at an interval of 30-60 min (up to 4 hours).

Stage 3 involves expulsion of fetal membranes as well as involution of the uterus. Fetal membranes are usually passed 5-15 minutes after birth of a pup before another puppy can be delivered from the same horn.

Thick greenish discharge (lochia) is seen in all stages of labor and may persist for up to three weeks. Complete uterine involution and endometrial recovery in approximately 3 months.

77
Q

Staphylococcus pseudintermedius

A

Primary bacteria cultured in canine pyoderma

78
Q

Subaortic stenosis

A

treat with beta-blockers such as atenolol to reduce myocardial oxygen demand, less the frequency of ventricular arrhythmias, and provide cardiac muscle protection. Owners should be warned that the dog should receive prophylactic antibiotics for any situation in which the dog may develop a bacteremia since subaortic stenosis is known to carry a high risk of developing infective endocarditis (i.e. prior to surgical or dental procedures)

79
Q

Sudden Acquired Retinal Degeneration Syndrome (SARDS)

A

Dogs with hyperadrenocorticism have an increased incidence of SARDS. SARDS is frequently seen in middle-aged obese spayed females and often have signs of PU/PD and polyphagia as well as increased liver enzymes and cholesterol. The reason for the association of Cushing’s disease and SARDS is poorly understood

80
Q

Symmetrical lupoid onychodystrophy

A

results in severe splitting and deformation of the nails.

81
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematosis

A

Type III hypersensitivity reaction

complex autoimmune disease occurs in dogs, is rare in cats, and has been reported in large animals. It has two consistent immunologic features: immune complex disease and a tendency to produce multiple autoantibodies

Antibodies to nucleic acids are the diagnostic hallmark of SLE

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia or thrombocytopenia, or both, are the most common presentations of SLE in animals

usually can be treated with glucocorticoids

82
Q

Taenia infection treatment

A

Proziquantel

83
Q

Toxacara canis

A

Canine roundworm that is passed along to puppies transplacentally. The roundworm migrates from the small intestines through the liver and lungs, which is what causes the animal to cough. Beyond 6 months of age, the larvae distribute to the somatic tissue, where their development is arrested.

84
Q

Toxascaris leomina

A

canine roundworm

85
Q

Transmissible venereal tumor

A

TVT is a sexually transmitted tumor found throughout the world, particularly in areas with high populations of stray dogs. The tumor cells are transferred from one dog to the next by physical contact, which typically consists of sniffing, licking, and copulation. The tumor is often curable with vincristine chemotherapy

86
Q

Trichophyton mentagrophytes

A

one of three most common dermatophytes affection dogs and cat. Rodents source of primary infection. Hunting dogs and roaming cats most often affected.

87
Q

Trichuris vulpis

A

canine whipworm - treat with Fenbendazole

88
Q

Unicinaria

A

hookworm - intestinal parasite that suck blood and can cause anemia, enteritis, coughing during larval migrans, and dermatitis. Transmitted in utero, during nursing, or via 3rd stage larva penetrating the skin. Can be cause of failure to thrive in puppies.

89
Q

Uveitis causes

A

infection (bacterial, viral, fungal, riskettsial), immune-mediated (lens-induced uveitis), neoplasia, hypertension, and trauma. Over 50% of the time, the cause is not found and the uveitis is termed idiopathic.

90
Q

Ventricular premature complexes treatment

A

mexiletine - oral class I antiarrhythmic well tolerated in dogs