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Flashcards in Canine Deck (53)
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1

What is the general course of distemper infection in a young, unvaccinated dog?

Respiratory and ocular signs first, GI second, CNS third (usually 1-3wks later but can be months)

2

What is a classic initial symptom in ferrets with canine distemper infection?

Papular chin dermatitis--dermatitis is pathognomonic when other symptoms are present

3

What measures can be taken to prevent canine distemper in dogs and ferrets?

Dogs: modified-live canine distemper vaccine
Ferrets & Weimaraners: recombinant canary-pox vector vaccine

4

What are 3 possible complications that can occur if a modified-live distemper vaccine is used in a Weimaraner under 1yr old?

1) Hypertrophic osteodystrophy
2) Juvenile cellulitis
3) Corticosteroid-responsive neutrophilic meningitis/arteritis

5

What is the etiology of canine distemper virus?

Morbillivirus of the family Paramyxoviridae (closely related to measles and rinderpest); Highly contagious via aerosol (mostly), transplacental routes, or direct contact

6

What is the viral shedding time period in canine distemper?

Viral shedding begins by the 7th day and may persist up to 90 days

7

Why perform fecal flotation and abdominal radiographs on a suspected parvo dog?

To rule out concurrent helminthiasis (common) and to avoid missing a foreign body or intussusception

8

Describe the acute treatment of suspected parvovirus in the first 12 hours after admission

Admit, isolate, place IV catheter, IV antibiotics and fluids;
First 2 hrs: fluid bolus to correct BP; afterwards correct fluid defecit over 10hrs, give Metoclopramide CRI, analgesia, amikacin (if BP improved); after 4-5hrs start to feed

9

When does fecal viral shedding occur in dogs affected with parvo?

4-5 days after exposure, before clinical signs occur

10

Name 3 physical exam findings that are highly suggestive of a ruptured cranial cruciate ligament

1) Palpable joint effusion
2) Cranial drawer sign
3) Cranial tibial thrust

11

Name 3 radiographic findings with a torn cranial cruciate ligament

Fat pad compression, joint effusion, DJD

12

Describe 5 surgical techniques for repair of a torn cranial cruciate ligament

1) Intracapsular fascia lata or patellar tendon autogenous graft
2) Extracapsular suture stabilization
3) Fibular head transposition
4) Tibial plateau leveling osteotomy (TPLO)
5) Tibial tuberosity advancement (TTA)

13

Name 4 breeds predisposed to DCM

Doberman Pinscher, Great dane, Boxer, Portuguese water dog

14

List the findings on an echocardiogram diagnostic of DCM

Sinus tachycardia, P-mitrale, wide, tall or low voltage QRS, APCs or VPCs, atrial fib

15

List 4 radiographic findings suggestive of DCM

Cardiomegaly, LA and LV enlargement, pulmonary edema, pleural effusion

16

List the different etiologies of DCM

1) Idiopathic/familial/genetic
2) Taurine deficiency--reversible, cats
3) Carnitine deficiency
4) Infectious--Trypanosoma cruz, parvo (rare)
5) Toxic--Adriamycin
6) Duchenne's muscular dystrophy
7) Volume overload
8) Endocrinopathy--hypothyroidism (uncommon)

17

Describe the treatment of DCM

1) Diuretics--reduce edema, effusion, lasix
2) Dilators--ACE inhibitors (enalapril), 2% nitroglycerin,
3) Low Na diet--rest, O2, taurine, L-carnitine
4) Positive inotropes--dobutamine, digoxin, pimobendan
5) Antiarrhythmics--beta blockers (atenolol), Ca channel blockers (diltiazem)

18

What are the presentations of DCM with the worst prognosis?

Cats w/o Taurine deficiency, Dobies w/ atrial fib or ventricular arrhythmia, Portuguese water dogs (young, usually die quickly)

19

What is the acute treatment for seizures?

Benzodiazapines (diazepam, midazolam, lorazolam), propofol, inhalent anesthetic

20

What is the maintenance treatment for seizures?

KBr, phenobarbital, levetiracetam (keppra), zonisamide

21

What are the tests of choice for diagnosing epilepsy?

1) Bloodwork to rule out toxic/metabolic cause
2) Bile acids to rule out hepatic encephalopathy
3) MRI or CT of brain to rule out structural disease
4) Cerebrospinal fluid analysis to rule out encephalitis
5) Monitor anticonvulsant levels

22

Which anticonvulsants would be safe to use in a dog suffering from seizures due to hepatic encephalopathy?

Zonisamide, Levetiracetam (keppra)

23

What are the diagnostic tests of choice for ethylene glycol toxicity?

REACT EG test kit, serum osmolality (>20 strongly suggestive) top 2; urinalysis, ultrasonography (inc. renal cortical echogenicity)

24

What does ethylene glycol toxicity look like on bloodwork?

Azotemia, hyperglycemia, hyper- or hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, high anion gap (>25), metabolic acidosis

25

What is the treatment of ethylene glycol toxicity?

Supportive care (IV fluids, NaBic IV CRI), decontaminate (induce vomiting/act. charcoal), prevent metabolism (fomepizole or ethanol)

26

Name the hepatic enzyme responsible for converting ethylene glycol to its toxic metabolites

Alcohol dehydrogenase

27

Name 3 ways to prevent GDV

1) Feeding--small, low fat meals, min. exercise after meals, min. water after exercise
2) Don't breed dogs w/ history of GDV
3) Prophylactic gastropexy

28

What is the most important thing to do first upon admission when managing case-patient with suspected GDV?

Shock therapy--IV fluids; then carefully pass orogastric tube; trocharize stomach in extreme cases

29

What is the overall mortality rate among dogs who have had surgery for GDV?

15%; increases to 30% with gastric necrosis

30

What is the most appropriate initial treatment for a heat stroke patient that presented with collapse and panting, with a temperature of 105.9F?

STABILIZATION--O2 supplementation, IV fluids, prompt active cooling to 103F (use tepid water, avoid hypothermia); prophylactic broad spectrum antibiotics (GI sloughing)