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Physiology > Blood Physiology > Flashcards

Blood Physiology Flashcards

1
Q

4 general functions of blood:

A
  1. Vehicle of transport
  2. Regulation of pH and ion composition of interstitial fluids
  3. Defense against toxins and pathogens
  4. Stabilization of body temperature
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2
Q

Fluid medium of the blood/non-cellular part of the blood

A

Plasma

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3
Q

Plasma minus clotting proteins; closer to water in composition

A

Serum

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4
Q

Whole blood is __% plasma and __% formed elements

A

55% plasma, 45% formed elements

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5
Q

Major component of plasma:

A

Water (90%) (plasma protein: 8%, inorganic salts 1%, lipids 0.5%, sugar 0.1%)

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6
Q

Plasma protein which is an essentail component of the clotting system

A

Blood coagulation proteins

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7
Q

Plasma protein which is the major contributor to osmotic pressure of plasma

A

Albumin

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8
Q

Plasma globulin: proteases, antiproteases, transport proteins

A

Alpha globulin

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9
Q

Plasma globulin: transferrin and other transport proteins

A

Beta globulin

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10
Q

Plasma globulin: immunoglobulin

A

Gamma globulin

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11
Q

Process of forming blood cells in the bone marrow

A

Hematopoiesis

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12
Q

Site of blood cell formation beginning from 3rd week AOG

A

Yolk sac/aortic gonad mesonephros (AGM) region

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13
Q

Site of blood cell formation from 3rd month AOG to birth

A

Liver (with minor contributions from spleen)

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14
Q

Only source of blood cells postnatally; begins at 4th month AOG

A

Bone marrow

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15
Q

Life period where all bone marrow are active

A

Birth to puberty

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16
Q

Life period where only bone marrow of vertebra, ribs, sternum, skull, pelvis, proximal epiphyseal region of humerus active

A

Age 20 (remaining bone marrow: fatty, yellow, inactive)

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17
Q

Post embryonic extramedullary hematopoiesis in full term infant

A

Always abnormal

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18
Q

Functions of the red blood cells

A

Transports hemoglobin from lungs to tissues
Transports CO2 (bicarbonate ion) from tissue to lungs
Acts as an acid-base buffer (contains carbonic anhydrase)

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19
Q

Normal biconcave disc shape of the RBC is due to:

A

Spectrin

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20
Q

Deformability of the RBC that allows it to travel through narrow capillaries is a characteristic called:

A

Bag pliability (Normal RBC size: 6-8 micrometers)

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21
Q

Protein inside the RBC that binds with oxygen

A

Hemoglobin
Males: 14 - 18 g/dL
Females: 12 - 18 g/dL

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22
Q

Percent of cells in whole blood

A

Hematocrit
Males: 46 (40 - 54)
Females: 42 (37 - 47)

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23
Q

Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:

Transport protein for O2

A

Hemoglobin

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24
Q

Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:

Storage protein for O2

A

Myoglobin

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25
Q

Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:

Binds with 4 O2

A

Hemoglobin

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26
Q

Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:

Binds with 1 O2

A

Myoglobin

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27
Q

Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:

Exhibits sigmoidal curve, positive cooperativity

A

Hemoglobin

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28
Q

Hemoglobin vs Myoglobin:

Exhibits hyperbolic curve

A

Myoglobin

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29
Q

Most common form of hemoglobin in adult human

A

Hemoglobin A (2 alpha and 2 beta)

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30
Q

Hemoglobin form with higher affinity for oxygen

A

Hemoglobin F (2 alpha and 2 gamma)

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31
Q

Hemoglobin form with higher affinity for 2,3 BPG

A

Hemoglobin A

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32
Q

Total iron in the body:

A

4-5 g (65% hemoglobin, 4% myoglobin)

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33
Q

Primary storage protein found in the liver

A

Ferritin

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34
Q

Transport protein of iron:

A

Transferrin

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35
Q

Secondary storage protein found outside the liver such as macrophages

A

Hemosiderin

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36
Q

Last RBC stage that has a nucleus

A

Orthochromatic erythroblast

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37
Q

Form of RBC released into the blood; no nucleus; needs 2 days to mature into mature RBCs

A

Reticulocyte

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38
Q

Hormone stimulating RBC production

A

Erythropoietin

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39
Q

Main stimulus for EPO production

A

Hypoxia

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40
Q

Effect of EPO will manifest after this many days

A

5 days

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41
Q

Time to convert reticulocytes to mature RBCs

A

1 - 2 days

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42
Q

Characteristics of mature RBCs

A

No nucleus, no mitochondria, no ER

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43
Q

Lifespan of adult RBCs

A

120 days

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44
Q

Lifespan of fetal RBCs

A

90 days

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45
Q

Intravascular destruction of old or damaged RBCs occurs here

A

Spleen

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46
Q

Extravascular destruction of RBCs is due to

A

Macrophages

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47
Q

Fate of Heme in destroyed RBC

A

Bilirubin

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48
Q

Nutrient essential for DNA synthesis

A

Vitamin B12, Folic acid

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49
Q

Megaloblastic anemia + neural deficits

A

Vitmain B12 deficiency

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50
Q

Megaloblastic anemia + neural tube disorders

A

Folic acid deficiency

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51
Q

Needed to absorb Vitamin B12

A

Intrinsic factor

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52
Q

Needed to absorb Iron in the duodenum

A

Vitamin C

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53
Q

Sources of vitamin B12

A

Meats

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54
Q

Sources of folic acid

A

Leafy vegetables: cauliflower, brocolli

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55
Q

Capability of the body to resist almost all types of organisms and toxins that tend to damage tissues and organs

A

Immunity

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56
Q

Innate or Acquired:

Pre-existing (skin, mucous membranes, phagocytic cells, inflammatory mediators, complement system)

A

Innate

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57
Q

Innate or Acquired:

Antibody mediated/lymphoid cells

A

Acquired

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58
Q

Innate or Acquired:

Not acquired through contact with a non-self

A

Innate

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59
Q

Innate or Acquired:

Occurs after exposure to an antigen

A

Acquired

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60
Q

Innate or Acquired:

Non-specific

A

Innate

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61
Q

Innate or Acquired:

Specific

A

Acquired

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62
Q

Innate or Acquired:

Quick response

A

Innate

63
Q

Innate or Acquired:

Delayed response

A

Acquired

64
Q

Innate or Acquired:

1st line of defense

A

Innate

65
Q

Innate or Acquired:

2nd line of defense

A

Acquired

66
Q

WBC: Basophils, eosinophils, neutrophils

A

Granulocytes/PML/Myeloid cells

67
Q

WBC: monocytes, lymphocytes

A

Agranulocytes

68
Q

WBC: site of production of granulocytes, monocytes

A

Bone marrow

69
Q

WBC: site of production of lymphocytes, plasma cells

A

LN, spleen, thymus, tonsils, Peyer’s patches

70
Q

WBC: lifespan of granulocytes

A

4-8 hours in the blood, 4-5 days in tissues (shortened during infection)

71
Q

WBC: lifespan of monocytes

A

10-20 hours in the blood, several months in the tissues

72
Q

WBC: lifespan of lymphocytes

A

weeks to months

73
Q

Lifespan of platelets

A

7-10 days

74
Q

Most common type of WBC

A

Neutrophils (62%)

Lymphocytes: 30%, Monocytes 5.3%, Eosinophils 2.3%, Basophils 0.4%

75
Q

Responsible for acute inflammatory response to tissue injury (degrade tissue components, destroy damaged tissue and kills bacteria)

A

Neutrophils

76
Q

Prominent feature: highly lobulated nucleus

A

Neutrophils

77
Q

Considered as weak phagocytes; for parasitic and allergic reactions; bilobed nucleus, stain bright red with eosin dye

A

Eosinophils

78
Q

Released by mast cells and basophils which causes eosinophils to migrate to inflamed allergic tissue

A

Eosinophilic chemotactic factor

79
Q

Least common type of WBC; produces histamine, heparin, bradykinin, serotonin; share functional similarities with mast cells; bilobed/trilobed nucleus

A

Basophils

80
Q

Largest type of WBC; prominent feature: eccentrically placed nucleus

A

Monocytes (In tissue: macrophages)

81
Q

Platelets are small, non-nucleated cells derived from:

A

Megakaryocytes

82
Q

2nd most common type of WBC, smallest, involved in adaptive immunity

A

Lymphocytes

83
Q

Round, densely stained nucleus with a pale basophilic, non-granular cytoplasm

A

Lymphocytes

84
Q

Neutrophils are released as mature cells and can phagocytize ___ bacteria before dying

A

3 - 20 bacteria

85
Q

Macrophages are release as immature cells and can phagocytize up to ___ bacteria, and can extrude these particles and survive after for months

A

up to 100 bacteria

86
Q

Movement of neutrophils and macrophages towards a chemical signal

A

Chemotaxis

87
Q

Movement out of the circulatory system and into the site of injury

A

Diapedesis

88
Q

What is the requirement to say that diapedesis has occurred?

A

Invasion of the basement membrane

89
Q

When tissue injury occurs, the first to react are the:

A

Mast cells - will release histamine causing vasodilation and increased vascular permeability

90
Q

When tissue injury occurs, the 1st line of defense that present within minutes to identify and phagocytize the pathogen is:

A

Tissue macrophages

91
Q

When tissue injury occurs, the 2nd line of defense which start migrating in response to inflammatory cytokines and cause phagocytosis is:

A

Neutrophils

92
Q

When tissue injury occurs, the 3rd line of defense, which takes at least 8 hours for response to occur is:

A

Monocytes (blood monocytes (inactive) are converted to tissue macrophages (active))

93
Q

When tissue injury occurs, the 4th line of defense, which takes 3-4 days is:

A

Increased monocytes and granulocytes production by bone marrow

94
Q

Increase in monocyte and granulocyte production in response to tissue injury is mediated by:

A

TNF, IL-1, GM-CSF, M-CSF

95
Q

Battlefiled of dead cells and pathogens

A

Pus

96
Q

Caused by a special immune system that forms antibodies and/or activated lymphocytes that attack and destory the specific invading organism or toxin

A

Adaptive immunity

97
Q

Gamma globulins called immunoglobulins which constitute 20% of plasma proteins, formed by plasma cells

A

Antibodies

98
Q

The portion of the antibody which determines specificity to antigen

A

Variable portion

99
Q

The portion of the antibody which determines other properties of antibodies

A

Constant portion

100
Q

Divalent antibody, 75% of antibodies (most abundant); predominant antibody in secondary responses; smallest and the only one that can cross the placenta

A

IgG

101
Q

Main immunoglobulin concerned with primary immune response; present on all uncommitted B cells; largest

A

IgM

102
Q

Main immunoglobulin in secretions

A

secretory IgA

103
Q

Antibody mediated allergies and hypersensitivity

A

IgE

104
Q

Acts as an antigen receptor when present on the surface of certain B lymphocytes

A

IgD

105
Q

Steps in the direct attack of antibody to the antigen

A

Agglutination (clumping)
Precipitation (insoluble antigen-antibody complex)
Neutralization (AB covers the toxic sites of the antigenic agent)
Lysis (rupture of the agent)

106
Q

Indirect attack of antibodies is via the activation of:

A

Complement system

107
Q

The complement system is responsible of 3 things:

A

Opsonization
Membrane attack complex
Stimulate inflammation

108
Q

Which complement is responsible for opsonization?

A

C3b

109
Q

Which complement is an anaphylatoxin (induces inflammation)?

A

C3a, C4a, C5a

110
Q

Which complement is chemotactic to WBCs?

A

C5a

111
Q

Which complement is part of the membrane attack complex?

A

C5b - C9

112
Q

T-helper cells is also known as:

A

CD4 cells (bind to MHC2)

113
Q

Cytotoxic T cells is also known as:

A

CD8 cells (bind to MHC1)

114
Q

Most numerous of T cells, responsible for activation of the macrophage system

A

T-helper cells

115
Q

Responsible for the direct attack, capable of killing microorganisms, create holes (perforins)

A

Cytotoxic T cell

116
Q

Three types of cells that CD8 T cells target:

A

Virally infected cells
Cancer cells
Transplanted cells

117
Q

Has a regulatory function by suppressing action of helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells, limiting the ability of the immune system to attack a person’s own body tissue

A

Suppressor T cells

118
Q

Type of immunity induced after contact with foreign antigen which confers long term protection, but with slow onset of action

A

Active immunity

119
Q

Type of immunity by administration of antibody in a vaccine, that allows prompt availability of large amount of antibodies, however may present with hypersensitivity reactions

A

Passive immunity

120
Q

Antigen present in Type A blood

A

N-Acetyl-Galactosamine

121
Q

Antigen present in Type B blood

A

Galactose

122
Q

Antigen present in Type AB blood

A

N-acetyl galactosamine, galactose

123
Q

Antigen present in Type O blood

A

None

124
Q

Antigen present in Rh+ blood

A

D antigen

125
Q

Determined by genotype from mother and father

A

Agglutinogens

126
Q

Spontaneously acquired from food, bacteria, etc; produced at 2-8 months, maximum titer at 8-10 years

A

Agglutinins

127
Q

Blood type O has ____ agglutinogen and ____ agglutinins

A

No agglutinogen, Anti A and Anti B agglutinin

128
Q

Blood type A has ____ agglutinogen and ____ agglutinins

A

A agglutinogen, Anti B agglutinin

129
Q

Blood type B has ____ agglutinogen and ____ agglutinins

A

B agglutinogen, Anti A agglutinin

130
Q

Blood type AB has ____ agglutinogen and ____ agglutinins

A

A and B agglutinogen, no agglutinin

131
Q

Blood type with clotting in an anti-A serum

A

Blood type A

132
Q

Blood type with clotting in an anti-B serum

A

Blood type B

133
Q

Blood type with clotting in both anti-A and anti-B serum

A

Blood type AB

134
Q

Blood type with no clotting in both anti-A and anti-B serum

A

Blood type O

135
Q

4 types of organ transplantation:

A

autograft
isograft/syngeneic graft (identical twin)
allograft (same species; most common)
xenograft (other species)

136
Q

Mechanism to prevent blood loss whenever a vessel is severed or ruptured

A

Hemostasis

137
Q

Sequence of events in hemostasis

A

Vascular constriction (endothelin-1)
Platelet plug formation
Blood coagulatoin
Resolution: formation of fibrous tissue, or dissolution of clot

138
Q

2 mediators of platelet adhesion:

A

vWF, glycoprotein Ib

139
Q

2 mediators of platelet aggregation:

A

Fibrinogen, glycoprotein IIb-IIIa

140
Q

Cascade of chemical reaction in response to vessel damage/trauma to blood results in formation of:

A

Prothrombin activator

141
Q

What is the action of prothrombin activator?

A

Converts prothrombin (Factor II) to thrombin

142
Q

What is the action of thrombin?

A

Converts fibronogen (Factor I) to fibrin

143
Q

What is the action of fibrin?

A

Acts as a net/meshwork: trap platelets, blood cells and plasma; adhere to damaged endothelium

144
Q

Pathway activated due to trauma to vascular walls; faster

A

Extrinsic pathway

145
Q

Pathway activated due to trauma to blood cells or exposure of blood to collagen; slower

A

Intrinsic pathway

146
Q

Extrinsic pathway is initiated by:

A 
Tissue factor (Factor III/Tissue thromboplastin)
Thrombin cause positive feedback via activation of Factor V
147
Q

Intrinsic pathway is initiated by:

A

Factor XII and Platelets

148
Q

Which clotting factors are common to both the extrinsic and intrinsic pathway?

A

Factors X, V

149
Q

What factor is also called the Stuart factor?

A

Factor X

150
Q

What factor is also called the Hageman factor?

A

Factor XII

151
Q

What factor is also called the Christmas factor?

A

Factor IX

152
Q

What substance converts plasminogen to plasmin?

A

Tissue plasminogen activator

153
Q

The most crucial even in wound healing

A

Hemostasis

Physiology (13 decks)

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