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Med Lab Tech Fall 2016 > Blood Bank Omitted Questions > Flashcards

Flashcards in Blood Bank Omitted Questions Deck (34)
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1

At what temperature do IgM antibodies react?

22 C

2

What is the equivalent of Factor D (alternative pathway) in the classic complement pathway?

C1s

3

All of the following are characteristics of antigens that affect the type and extent of immune response response except:

a. solubility

b. charge

c. molecular weight

d. genetic locus

d. genetic locus

4

Why is LISS used in blood banking?

It reduces the incubation time

5

How would a negative IAT appear in solid phase methodology?

There is a pellet at the bottom of the well

6

A disadvantage of both gel and SPRCA is:

a. Decreased sensitivity

b. Inability to test hemolyzed samples

c. Increased sensitivity

d. Standardization

c. Increased sensitivity

7

All of the following may result in weak or missing antigens except:

a. presence of blood-group-specific soluble substances (BGSS)

b. Hodgkin's disease

c. Hypogammaglobulinemia

d. Intestinal infection with Escherchia coli

c. Hypogammaglobulinemia

8

An elderly patient is documented as being type O. The forward grouping is negative with anti-A and anti-B. The reverse grouping shows no reactivity with A1 cells and B cells. What can be done to correct the discrepancy?

 

Incubate the patient's serum and reagent cells for 15 minutes at Room temperature

9

Approximately how many antigen sites can be found on A2 cells?

260,000

10

All of the following may result in rouleaux formation except:

a. Waldenstrom's macroglobulinemia

b. Wharton's jelly in cord blood

c. leukemia

d. dextran

c. leukemia

11

Which of the following genotypes is consistent with f antigen expression?

a. DcE/DCe

b. Dce/DCE

c. DCe/DcE

d. DCe/dCE

b. Dce/DCE

12

All of the following may cause a false-negative reaction in Rh typing except:

a. omission of reagent

b. immunoglobulin coating cells

c. Rouleaux

d. cell suspension that is too heavy

c. Rouleaux

13

In the Fisher-Race nomenclature what does "d" refer to?

a. amorph

b. silent allele

c. absence of D

d. all of the above

d. all of the above

14

What protocol is put in place to validate Rh testing when high-protein reagents are used, especially when the patient types as an AB-positive?

Run a control with Rh test

15

What is the frequency of E antigen in the general population?

15%

16

Which of the following factors distinguishes a cold autoantibody produced in a patient with infectious mononucleosis from that produced in a patient with pneumonia?

a. A titer greater than 64

b. An IgM class of antibody

c. A wide thermal range

d. Anti-i specificity

d. Anti-i specificity

17

Which of the following procedures can be used to resolve interference due to anti-I?

a. Cold autoadsorption

b. Prewarm technique

c. Warm adsorption

d. Cold autoadsorption and prewarm technique

d. Cold autoadsorption and prewarm technique

18

What effect does ABO incompatibility between mother and fetus have on maternal sensitization to Rh antigen?

a. The chance of maternal sensitization to Rh antigen is increased

b. The chance of maternal sensitization to Rh antigen is decreased

c. It has no effect

d. None of the above

a. The chance of maternal sensitization to Rh antigen is decreased

19

For a patient who has suffered an acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, the primary treatment goal should be to:

a. prevent alloimmunization

c. diminish chills and fever and make the patient comfortable

c. Prevent hemoglobinemia

d. Reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage

d. Reverse hypotension and minimize renal damage

20

A patient transfused with 2 units of packed cells spiked a fever of 99.5F and complained of chills 3 days after transfusion. The DAT was positive with polyspecific antisera and anti-IgG, but negative with anti-C3d. Compatibility testing was performed on the pre- and post-transfusion specimens. The latter was incompatible with one of the donor units transfused. An antibody screen was done on both the pre- and post-transfusion specimens. An antibody was detected in the post-transfusion specimen only and identified by panel studies as anti-Jka. This transfusion reaction is most likely caused by:

a. an anaphylactic response

b. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction caused by anamnestic response

c. DHTR caused by primary alloimmunization

d. Post-transfusion purpura

b. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction caused by anamnestic response

21

Persons with a documented history of severe anaphylactic reactions should be transfused with _________ blood products

Washed

22

At which phase are Lewis antibodies usually detected?

Immediate spin

23

Which blood group system is not based on carbohydrates?

Rh

24

What is the most common Kidd phenotype in the black population?

Jk(a+b-)

25

Why is it relatively easy to find compatible units for a patient with anti-K?

Kell is a low frequency antigen

26

The homozygous phenotype Fy(a+b-) has _____ antigenic Fy sites than heterozygous cells, Fy(a+b+).

a. more

b. fewer

c. weaker

d. none of the above

a. more

27

Of the following Rh gene complexes, which gives rise to a red cell antigen that gives a positive reaction with anti-f antisera

a. R1

b. R2

c. R0

d. r'

c. R0

28

A type and screen is done on a 49-year-old woman who is scheduled for a hysterectomy in 1 week. Her blood type is A-positive, and her antibody screen was positive. What must be done before her surgery date?

a. identify antibody and full crossmatch

b. identify antibody, phenotype units, full crossmatch

c. phenotype the patient, full crossmatch

d. identify antibody and phenotype platelets

b. identify antibody, phenotype units, full crossmatch

29

Mixing patient serum and donor red blood cells together and observing for direct cell lysis or agglutination is known as

A major crossmatch

30

Which tests must be performed on the donor sample?

a. ABO, Rh, weak D, antibody screen

b. ABO, Rh, antibody screen

c. ABO, Rh, DAT

D. All of the above

a. ABO, Rh, weak D, antibody screen