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Flashcards in A320 Flash Cards Deck (76)
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1
Q

Green hydraulic system normally pressurized by?

A

Number 1 engine-driven hydraulic pump

2
Q

Green hydraulic system backup pressurization provided by?

A

PTU

3
Q

Yellow hydraulic system normally pressurized by?

A

Number 2 engine-driven hydraulic pump

4
Q

Blue hydraulic system normally pressurized by?

A

Electric motor-driven hydraulic pump

5
Q

Blue hydraulic system backup pressurization provided by?

A

RAT

6
Q

Yellow hydraulic system backup pressurization provided by?

A

PTU

7
Q

RAT pressurized blue hydraulic system to __________ PSI?

A

2500 PSI

8
Q

When electrical power is unavailable, yellow hydraulic system has a hand pump to operate _____________?

A

Cargo doors

9
Q

PTU is automatically activated when the differential pressure between the green and yellow systems is greater than ________ (except when inhibited)?

A

500 PSI

10
Q

Normal Hydraulic System Pressure

A

3000 PSI

11
Q

Hydraulic system pressure turns amber when pressure drops below _______?

A

1450 PSI

12
Q

Max landing gear retraction speed?

A

220 KIAS

13
Q

Max landing gear extension speed?

A

240 KIAS

14
Q

FASTEN SEAT BELT and RETURN TO YOUR SEAT signs illuminate when cabin altitude exceeds _________, regardless of switch position?

A

11,300’

15
Q

Min flight deck oxygen pressure for dispatch (prior to applying adjustments)?

A

850 PSI

16
Q

Minimum flight deck oxygen pressure for 48XX, 49XX

A

1230 PSI

17
Q

Blue colored text on the ECAM memo section signifies?

A

Actions to be carried out

18
Q

Red colored text on the ECAM memo section signifies?

A

Immediate action required

19
Q

A triple click aural sound indicates?

A

Landing capability change

20
Q

The NW STRG DISC memo changes from green to amber after?

A

First engine start

21
Q

T.O. INHIBIT is active?

A

From takeoff power application to 1,500’ AGL, or 2 minutes after takeoff

22
Q

LDG INHIBIT is active?

A

From 800’ AGL to 80 KIAS

23
Q

What does pushing the T.O. CONFIG button do?

A

Simulates takeoff power application

24
Q

What does the amber “=” indicate on the airspeed tape?

A

Next flap extended speed (Vfe next)

25
Q

An amber “=” (Vfe next) appears only below ________?

A

15,000’ or 20,000’ MSL

26
Q

Lowest selectable speed (Vls) is indicated by?

A

Top of the amber strip

27
Q

Alpha protection speed is indicated by?

A

Top of the black and amber strip

28
Q

Alpha max speed is indicated by?

A

Top of the solid red strip

29
Q

The digital vertical speed indication turns from green to _______ when vertical speed exceeds _______ FPM BELOW ________ altitude.

A

Amber, 1,200, 1,000

30
Q

When is the beta target displayed?

A

Configuration 1, 2, or 3 and either engine EPR exceeds 1.25 and the difference between EPRs exceeds 0.25

31
Q

The flight director bars will bias out of view anytime the bank angle exceeds ______ degrees.

A

45

32
Q

The wind arrow on the ND shows winds as true or magnetic?

A

Magnetic

33
Q

Normal hydraulic system pressure

A

3000 PSI

34
Q

Max airspeed

VMO/MMO

A

350 KIAS / 0.82 M

35
Q

Max operating altitude

A

39,100’ MSL

36
Q

Max PA for takeoff or landing

A

9,200’ MSL

37
Q

Max runway slope

A

+/- 2%

38
Q

Min runway width (normal runways)

A

148’

39
Q

Min runway width (narrow runways)

A

100’

40
Q

Max landing weight

A
  1. 7 (319)

142. 2 (320)

41
Q

Max tailwind for takeoff / landing

A
10 KTS (319)
15 KTS (320 T/O)
10 KTS (320 land)
42
Q

Max crosswind component dry runway takeoff/landing

A

38 KTS

43
Q

Severe turbulence air penetration speed above 20,000’ MSL

A

0.76 M / 275 KIAS

44
Q

Severe turbulence air penetration speed below 20,000’ MSL

A

250 KIAS

45
Q

Best climb rate

A

280 KIAS

46
Q

Best climb angle

A

Green dot

47
Q

Max wind for passenger door operation

A

65 KTS

48
Q

Max speed flight deck window

A

200 KIAS

49
Q

Max windshield wiper operation

A

230 KIAS

50
Q

Max cabin pressure differential

A

-1.0 to 8.6 PSI

51
Q

Icing conditions exist on the ground and for takeoff when OAT is _____ and visible moisture in any form is present

A

10 degrees C or below

52
Q

Icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is _____ and visible moisture in any form is present

A

10 degrees C or below

53
Q

Max headwind for autoland

A
30 KIAS (320)
20 KIAS (319)
54
Q

Max tailwind for autoland

A

10 KIAS

55
Q

Max crosswind for autoland

A

15 KIAS

56
Q

Autopilot min engagement altitude after takeoff

A

100’ AGL (at least 5 sec after liftoff)

57
Q

Min autopilot use on non-precision approach

A

DDA

58
Q

Min autopilot use for nonautoland ILS with CAT 1 FMA

A

160’ AGL

59
Q

Min autopilot use for nonautoland ILS with CAT 2 or 3 FMA

A

80’ AGL

60
Q

Min autopilot engagement on go-around?

A

100’ AGL

61
Q

When must autopilot be disengaged on an autoland?

A

Rollout

62
Q

Max EGT on eng start?

A

635 deg C

63
Q

Eng starter consecutive start attempts (auto or manual)

A

First, 15 sec off
Second, 15 sec off
Third, 30 min off

64
Q

For manual eng start, observe a __________________ start attempt.

A

2-minute max

65
Q

Eng starter continuous engagement (cranking)

A

Max crank time 5 min, 30 min off

66
Q

Min eng oil quantity prior to start?

A

17 qts

67
Q

Max altitude for flaps/slats extended

A

20,000’ MSL

68
Q

Max landing gear extension altitude

A

None

69
Q

Autopilot min engagement height non-ILS approaches

A

250’ AGL or MAP (whichever occurs earlier)

70
Q

Max time limit for engine in TOGA thrust

A
5 minutes
10 minutes (engine out)
71
Q

Min oil quantity at idle RPM

A

12 quarts

72
Q

Min oil temp for engine start

A

-40 degrees C

73
Q

Wing fuel tank capacity

A

12,210 inner
1,550 outer
13,762 total

74
Q

Center fuel tank capacity

A

14,547 pounds

75
Q

Max brake temp for takeoff

A

300 degrees C

76
Q

320 forward CG correction

A

When CG < 25.0:

  • add 4,000 pounds to actual aircraft weight
  • run new performance
  • use new flap setting, flex temp, and V-speeds