4.8: 14 CFR Part 91: General Operating and Flight Rules -- 91.3-91.151 Flashcards Preview

FAA Private Pilot Knowledge Test > 4.8: 14 CFR Part 91: General Operating and Flight Rules -- 91.3-91.151 > Flashcards

Flashcards in 4.8: 14 CFR Part 91: General Operating and Flight Rules -- 91.3-91.151 Deck (52)
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1
Q

The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

A

pilot in command.

2
Q

Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?

A

The pilot in command

3
Q

You are PIC of a flight. During your preflight, you notice a mechanical discrepancy that you think makes the aircraft unairworthy. Who is responsible for this determination?

A

The pilot-in-command.

4
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found?

A

In the current, FAA-approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.

5
Q

Where may an aircraft’s operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport airworthiness certificate?

A

Attached to the Airworthiness Certificate.

6
Q

Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?

A

if precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to person or property on the surface.

7
Q

No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with

A

.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.

8
Q

Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?

A

In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.

9
Q

You attended a party last night, and you consumed several glasses of wine. You are planning to fly your aircraft home and have been careful to make sure 8 hours have passed since your last alcoholic drink. You can make the flight now only if you are not under the influence of alcohol and your blood alcohol level is

A

below .04%

10
Q

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

A

8 hours.

11
Q

While experiencing a hangover, a pilot

A

will have impaired motor and mental responses.

12
Q

Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include

A

an alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.

13
Q

In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require the pilot in command to

A

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft’s takeoff and landing distance data.

14
Q

Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.

15
Q

For a VFR flight not in the vicinity of an airport, the PIC must

A

determine runway lengths at airports of intended use.

16
Q

You are pilot-in-command of a VFR flight that you think will be within the fuel range of your aircraft. As part of your preflight planning you must

A

obtain weather reports, forecasts and fuel requirements for the flight.

17
Q

Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened during

A

takeoffs and landings.

18
Q

Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crewmembers are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harnesses fastened?

A

Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harnesses during takeoff and landing.

19
Q

With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

A

The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

20
Q

With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during

A

taxi, takeoffs and landings.

21
Q

Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons in an aircraft and when?

A

Passengers, during taxi, takeoffs, and landings only.

22
Q

You are planning a trip and one of your passengers states that he prefers not to use his shoulder harness because it is uncomfortable. You should

A

explain that it is a mandatory requirement and that he must use the shoulder harness during takeoff and landing.

23
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight

A

except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.

24
Q

An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane’s position, which aircraft has the right-of-way?

A

The airship.

25
Q

When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right-of-way belongs to the aircraft

A

at the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front or to overtake another.

26
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A

Glider.

27
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over all other air traffic?

A

An aircraft in distress.

28
Q

What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

A

Both pilots should give way to the right.

29
Q

What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head-on?

A

The aircraft on the left shall give way.

30
Q

Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed?

A

Aircraft towing other aircraft.

31
Q

A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right-of-way?

A

The seaplane.

32
Q

When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots.

33
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?

A

250 knots.

34
Q

When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is

A

200 knots.

35
Q

Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C airspace is

A

200 knots.

36
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

A

An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

37
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?

A

An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet of the aircraft.

38
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?

A

500 feet.

39
Q

Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than a congested area?

A

An altitude of 500 feet AGL, expect over open water or a sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any persons, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

40
Q

According to 14 CFR part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing?

A

An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails.

41
Q

Prior to takeoff, the altimeter should be set to which altitude or altimeter setting?

A

The current local altimeter setting, if available, or the departure airport elevation.

42
Q

If an altimeter setting is not available before flight, to which altitude should the pilot adjust the altimeter?

A

The elevation of the departure area.

43
Q

At what altitude shall the altimeter be set to 29.92 when climbing to cruising flight level?

A

18,000 feet MSL.

44
Q

When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?

A

Upon request.

45
Q

When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.

46
Q

If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may

A

deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.

47
Q

As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

A

In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

48
Q

When an ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance unless that pilot obtains an amended clearance. The one exception to this regulation is

A

an emergency.

49
Q

What action, if any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?

A

File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.

50
Q

As pilot-in-command of an aircraft, you may deviate from an ATC clearance when

A

there is an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action.

51
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.

52
Q

What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?

A

Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.

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