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Flashcards in 2014 NRC RO Exam Deck (75)
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1
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress. Conditions are as follows:
  • The Reactor Mode Switch is in STARTUP.
  • The non-coincidence shorting links are installed.
  • All IRMs are indicating mid-scale on Range 5.
  • All SRMs indicate between 1000 and 5000 cps.

Then, SRM C fails upscale.

Which one of the following describes the resulting status of rod blocks and RPS?

A. A rod OUT block is received, only. No scram occurs.

B. A rod OUT block is received, only. A full scram occurs.

C. A rod IN and OUT block is received. No scram occurs.

D. A rod IN and OUT block is received. A full scram occurs.

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: With IRMs on less than range 8, the SRM upscale rod out block is enabled. With the non-coincidence shorting links installed, the SRM scram function is bypassed. When SRM C fails upscale, a rod out block is generated. No rod in block is generated and no full scram is generated.

2
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • A tube rupture occurs in the Reactor Water Cleanup (WCS) Non-Regenerative Heat Exchanger.
  • The resultant actual and indicated delta flow rate is 130 gpm.

Which one of the following describes the response of CCP surge tank level and the status of the WCS System one minute later?

A. Rises ; Isolated

B. Rises ; Not Isolated

C. Lowers ; Isolated

D. Lowers ; Not Isolated

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: Water will flow from the WCS system into the CCP system due to the higher pressure in WCS. This will cause CCP surge tank level to rise. Because the delta flow rate is <150.5 gpm, WCS will not isolate on high differential flow.

***Must assume leakage will not cause a high NRHX Outlet Temp isolation at 140F***

3
Q
  1. Which one of the following power supply failures would result in loss of power to RPS MG Set 2RPM-MG1B?

A. 2NJS-US1

B. 2NJS-US4

C. 2NJS-US5

D. 2NJS-US6

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: 2NJS-US6 supplies power to 2NHS-MCC009 which supplies power to the RPS MG Set 2RPM-MG1 B drive motor.

A. Plausible - This is the alternate AC power supply to RPS A scram solenoids.

B. Plausible - This is the alternate AC power supply to RPS B scram solenoids.

C. Plausible- This is the power supply to RPS MG Set 2RPM-MG1A drive motor.

4
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Division 3 is lined up to Line 5.
  • An offsite power surge causes Annunciator 852536, 4KV BUS NNS 017 SPLY ACB 17-2 AUTO TRIP/FTC to alarm.

Which one of the following describes the plant AC bus(es) that immediately de-energize(s)?

A. 2ENS*SWG103 (Div. 2)

B. 2ENS*SWG101 and 2ENS*SWG1 02 (Div. 1 & 3)

C. 2ENS*SWG101 (Div. 1) and 2NNS-SWG014 (Stub Bus)

D. 2ENS*SWG103 (Div. 2) and 2NNS-SWG015 (Stub Bus)

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: NNS-SWG017 is the normal supply for this bus from offsite power Line 6.

5
Q
  1. A loss of offsite power and loss of coolant accident has occurred. Conditions are as follows:
  • Drywell pressure is 5 psig and slowly rising.
  • All EDGs have started and are powering their respective busses. Then, the following conditions occur:
  • A lube oil leak causes 2EGS*EG2 lube oil pressure to lower to 5 psig.
  • A governor failure causes 2EGS*EG3 speed to rise at 10 rpm per second.

Which one of the following describes the resulting status of 2ENS*SWG102 and 2ENS*SWG103 ten (10) seconds later?

2ENS*SWG102 ; 2ENS*SWG103

A. Energized ; Energized

B. Energized ; De-energized

C. De-energized ; Energized

D. De-energized ; De-energized

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: 2EGS*EG2 and 2EGS*EG3 are initially powering 2ENS*SWG102 and 2ENS*SWG103, respectively, due to a loss of offsite power. Additionally, the EDGs are running with a LOCA signal (Drywell pressure > 1.68 psig), therefore numerous trips are bypassed. 2EGS*EG2 lube oil pressure is below the normal trip setpoint of 16 psig, however this trip is bypassed due to the LOCA signal. Therefore, 2EGS*EG2 remains running and powering 2ENS*SWG102. 2EGS*EG3 overspeed trip setpoint is 660 rpm and this trip is NOT bypassed by the LOCA signal. Therefore, 2EGS*EG3 trips after 6 seconds and 2ENS*SWG103 deenergizes.

6
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Annunciator 603202, APRM TRIP SYSTEM UPSCALE I INOPERABLE, alarms.
  • Computer point NMPBC14, APRM CHANNEL 1 INOP, is received.
  • Operators bypass APRM 1.

Which one of the following describes the resulting status of Rod Block Monitor (RBM) A? RBM A…

A. is inoperable and enforces a control rod block.

B. automatically transferred to an alternate APRM input.

C. is unaffected because it does NOT receive an input from APRM 1.

D. is bypassed until it is manually transferred to an alternate APRM input.

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: RBM A normally receives a Simulated Thermal Power input from APRM 1. When APRM 1 is bypassed, RBM A automatically receives an alternate Simulated Thermal Power input from APRM 3.

7
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • A loss of ALL offsite power has just occurred.
  • Concurrently, a steam leak in the Drywell has resulted in a Drywell pressure of 2.5 psig and rising rapidly.
  • All Emergency Diesel Generators (EDGs) automatically start.
  • All EDG output breakers close simultaneously

Which one of the following describes the approximate time for the sequencing of the low pressure ECCS pumps onto the 4.16KV emergency switchgears after the EDG output breakers are closed?

RHR A&B ; CSL & RHR C

A. 1 second ; 6 seconds

B. 1 second ; 10 seconds C.

5 seconds ; 6 seconds D.

5 seconds ; 10 seconds

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: Due to the presence of combined LOOP and LOCA (Drywell pressure > 1.68 psig) signals, RHS*P1A and RHS*P1B start 1 second after the EDG output breakers are closed. CSL*P1 and RHS*P1C start 5 seconds later (6 seconds from closure of the EDG output breaker).

8
Q
  1. A plant startup is being conducted in accordance with N2-0P-101A. Conditions are as follows:
  • All SRMs are reading between 5 x 10E4 and 9 x 10E4 cps.
  • All IRMs are mid-scale on range 1.
  • The operator has selected all the SRMs and the IRMs for withdraw.

Which one of the following will be the first automatic protective action as the detectors are withdrawn?

A. IRM Downscale rod block

B. SRM Downscale rod block

C. IRM Detector NOT Fully Inserted rod block

D. SRM Detector NOT Fully Inserted rod block

A

Proposed Answer: C

Explanation: When the withdraw function is selected the first action will be the movement of the SRM and IRM detectors from the core. Immediately the IRMs will be detected to be not fully inserted, which will immediately cause a rod block. This rod block is active whenever the mode switch is not in run.

9
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Annunciator 603306, CRD SCRAM VALVE PILOT AIR HDR PRESS HIGH/LOW, alarms.
  • 2IAS-TK3, RB Air Receiver, pressure is 120 psig and stable.
  • An Operator reports the Scram Air Header pressure is 63 psig and stable.
  • NO control rods are drifting.

Which one of the following statements describes the action that is to be attempted to restore Scram Air Header pressure, per N2-SOP-19, Loss of Instrument Air?

A. Verify lAS Compressors are loaded and bypass lAS Dryers.

B. Swap Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves.

C. Bypass Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves.

D. Verify lAS Compressors are loaded and isolate Service Air Header.

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: Per N2-SOP-19, it is required to swap Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves.

10
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Reactor water level is 183” and stable.
  • The Feedwater master controller, 2FWS-HIC1600, is in AUTO.
  • The individual Feedwater level control valve controllers, 2FWS-HIC1010A and 2FWS-HIC1010B, are in AUTO.

Then, Reactor power is lowered to 90% and plant conditions stabilize.

Which one of the following describes the effect of depressing the Feedwater master controller, 2FWS-HIC1600, MAN pushbutton at this time? Feedwater flow will (1) . Feedwater flow may be adjusted by depressing the (2) OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons.

A. (1) rapidly rise (2) 2FWS-HIC1600

B. (1) rapidly rise (2) 2FWS-HIC1010A or 2FWS-HIC1010B

C. ( 1) remain near the current value (2) 2FWS-HIC1600

D. ( 1) remain near the current value (2) 2FWS-HIC1010A or 2FWS-HIC1010B

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: Although Reactor power has been lowered by 10%, 2FWS-HIC1600 manual signal automatically tracks the current Feedwater flow. This feature allows a smooth transfer while placing the controller in MAN without any need for controller nulling. A small mismatch between steam and feed flow at the time of transfer may necessitate manual adjustments. In the given conditions, this would be performed by depressing the OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons on 2FWS-HIC1600. The OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons on 2FWS-HIC1010A or 2FWS-HIC1010B will not cause a flow change while those controllers are still in AUTO.

11
Q
  1. Which one of the following power supply losses would cause a closure of the Group 8 and 9 INBOARD isolation valves?

A. 2BYS-SWG001A

B. 2BYS-SWG001 B

C. 2BYS*SWG002A

D. 2BYS*SWG002B

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: Loss of 2BYS*SWG002B causes a portion of the PCIS logic to de-energize. The specific logic causes closure of just the inboard Group 8 and 9 isolation valves.

12
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • The 2VBB-UPS3A and B Manual Transfer Switches are selected to STATIC SWITCH position
  • A complete loss of 2NJS-US1 occurs
  • 10 seconds after 2NJS-US 1 is lost, a complete loss of 2BYS-SWG001C occurs.

With regards to UPS3A/B, which one of the following describes the effect of these electrical losses?

A. 2VBB-UPS3A loads are de-energized.

B. 2VBB-UPS3B loads are de-energized.

C. 2VBB-UPS3A loads automatically receive power from the maintenance supply via the static switch.

D. 2VBB-UPS3B loads automatically receive power from the maintenance supply via the static switch.

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: UPS-3A receives normal AC power from 2NJS-US1, backup battery power from 2BYS-SWG001C, and maintenance power from 2NJS-US5. With the Manual Transfer Switches in the STATIC SWITCH position, the UPS’s are able to automatically transfer to the maintenance supply if normal AC and DC inputs are lost. Therefore, when 2NJS-US 1 and 2BYS-SWG001C de-energize, UPS-3A automatically receives power from the maintenance power supply, 2NJS-US5.

13
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a failure to scram. Conditions are as follows:
  • The DIV I ADS AUTOMATIC INITIATION DISABLE switch has been taken to ON.
  • The DIV II ADS AUTOMATIC INITIATION DISABLE switch could not be operated and is stuck in OFF.

Then …

  • 2CEC*PNL601 and 603 are terminated and prevented and Reactor water level is lowered to 5 inches.
  • Reactor pressure is 920 psig and remains stable on the Turbine Bypass Valves.

Which one of the following describes the plant response two minutes later? Reactor pressure is …

A. stable and still being controlled on the Turbine Bypass Valves.

B. rapidly lowering with only the ‘A’ ADS solenoids energized.

C. rapidly lowering with only the ‘B’ ADS solenoids energized.

D. rapidly lowering with both the ‘A’ and ‘B’ ADS solenoids energized.

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: With the Division II ADS Automatic Initiation Disable switch in OFF, the Division II ADS system is capable of automatically blowing down the RPV with the Division II ADS Solenoids (B solenoids). Since PNL601 has been terminated and prevented and level is less than Level 1, both RHS A and B are running. With these conditions met, after 105 seconds the Division II ADS system will actuate and rapidly lower Reactor pressure with the B solenoids.

14
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a failure to scram. Conditions are as follows:
  • Reactor power is 8%
  • At time= 0 minutes, Standby Liquid Control (SLC) Pump 1A and 1 B keylock switches are placed in RUN.
  • Initial SLC tank level was 1850 gallons.

Which one of the following describes the earliest approximate time range at which enough boron will be injected to the Reactor to ensure that the Reactor will be shutdown under all conditions, in accordance with the EOP Bases and N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram?

A. 10 to 15 minutes

B. 20 to 25 minutes

C. 30 to 35 minutes

D. 65 to 75 minutes

A

Proposed Answer: a

Explanation: With both SLC pumps injecting, the flow rate is approximately 88 gpm. Enough boron will be injected to ensure that the Reactor will be shutdown under all conditions per EOPC5 once SLC tank level lowers to 850 gallons (Cold Shutdown Boron Weight). The time required for this amount of boron injection can be calculated

15
Q
  1. The plant is in Mode 3 with RHS B in Shutdown Cooling (SDC). Conditions are as follows:
  • A transient occurs.
  • Reactor water level drops to a low of 130 inches.
  • Reactor pressure rises to a high of 115 psig.

After the transient, conditions are as follows:

  • Reactor water level is 150 inches and very slowly rising.
  • Reactor pressure is 115 psig and stable.

Which one of the following describes the status of SDC and, if necessary, the action required to mitigate the transient? SDC …

A. remains in service.

B. has isolated, but the isolation may be reset under the current conditions.

C. has isolated. Reactor pressure must be lowered before the isolation can be reset.

D. has isolated. Reactor water level must be raised before the isolation can be reset.

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: SDC will isolate on a high Reactor pressure of 128 psig (nominal, 148 psig by TS) or a low Reactor water level of 159.3 inches (nominal, 157.8 inches by TS). In the given conditions, SDC isolated due to low Reactor water level, and still has an active isolation signal due to continued low Reactor water level. Therefore, Reactor water level must be raised before resetting the isolation.

16
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power when the CSH water leg pump (WTR LEG PMP 2) trips on motor electric fault.

Which one of the following describes the operational status of CSH and an appropriate mitigating action for the pump trip, in accordance with N2-OP-33, High Pressure Core Spray System? CSH Operational Status ; Mitigating Action

A. Operable ; Line up a Condensate Transfer pump to directly pressurize the CSH piping.

B. Operable ; Verify Condensate Storage Tank 1B level is greater than or equal to 47 feet.

C. Inoperable ; Line up a Condensate Transfer pump to directly pressurize the CSH piping.

D. Inoperable ; Verify Condensate Storage Tank 1B level is greater than or equal to 47 feet.

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: With the water leg pump 2 out of service, the HPCS system is inoperable. Per N2-0P-33, in order for it to remain available, CST Tank 1 B level must remain above 47 feet.

A. Plausible- Trip of WTR LEG PMP 2 makes HPCS inoperable. Condensate Transfer pumps should not be used to keep HPCS piping pressurized due to potential to over-pressurize the CNS piping upon HPCS initiation.

B. Plausible- Trip of WTR LEG PMP 2 makes HPCS inoperable.

C. Plausible- Condensate Transfer pumps should not be used to keep HPCS piping pressurized due to potential to over-pressurize the CNS piping upon HPCS initiation.

17
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
  • Drywell pressure is 5 psig and rising.
  • Reactor pressure is 600 psig and lowering.
  • Annunciator 601416, LPCS SYSTEM MOTOR OVERLOAD, has alarmed.
  • Computer points show 2CSL*MOV104, LPCS INJ VALVE, has a motor overload condition.

Which one of the following is correct with regards to the operation of 2CSL*MOV104? As Reactor pressure lowers to the LPCS injection setpoint, 2CSL*MOV104 will …

A. automatically open. The valve is then throttleable from 2CEC*PNL601.

B. automatically open. The valve will NOT be throttleable from 2CEC*PNL601.

C. not automatically open and it can only be manually opened locally at the valve.

D. not automatically open, however it can be manually opened using the control switch on 2CEC*PNL601.

A

Proposed Answer: A

.Explanation: The motor overload feature for the LPCS injection valve is designed to allow the valve to automatically open if a LOCA signal is present and the DP interlock is met.

18
Q

18 The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:

  • Annunciator 852108, DIV I EMER BUS BYS 002A 125VDC SYSTEM TROUBLE, is in alarm.
  • The next page of the exam gives the indications that are present at the rear of 2CEC*PNL852:

Which one of the following describes these indications?

A. A loss of battery has occurred.

B. Battery Cell Reversal is occurring.

C. A loss of battery charger has occurred.

D. A loss of 2BYS*SWG002A has occurred.

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: The given indications show that battery charger output is zero amps and the battery is discharging. This indicates that a loss of the battery charger has occurred.

19
Q
  1. The plant is at 1 00% power. Conditions are as follows:

• GTS Train B has been manually started and Reactor Building Ventilation has been
secured due to turbulent atmospheric conditions.
• The Shift Manager has directed 2GTS*PV5B, FAN RECIRC VALVE, be placed in
manual control due to inability of PV5B to automatically maintain Reactor Building
differential pressure (RB D/P).
• Indications for RB DIP and 2GTS*PV5B are as follows:

See Picture

Which one of the following describes the status of RB D/P and the action necessary to correct it?

RB D/P should be maintained (1) negative. Adjust the slider on GTS*PDIK5B to further (2) 2GTS*PV5B

A. Less ; Close

B. Less ; Open

C. More ; Close

D. More ; Open

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: Per N2-0P-61 B, Section H.6.0, with RB D/P less negative than -0.35 in WG action must be taken to make RB D/P more negative. With the PV5B controller in manual, in order to make RB DIP more negative, you must close down on PV5B. In order to close down on PV5B, the slider on the controller must be taken to the left.

A. Plausible - RB D/P is not negative enough.
B. Plausible - RB D/P is not negative enough.
D. Plausible- This would be true if the candidate did not understand how PV5B works. By
shutting PV5B, you make RB D/P more negative, by opening PV5B, you make RB D/P less
negative.

20
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a scram. Conditions are as follows:
  • Reactor water level is 180 inches and stable with only RCIC injecting.
  • Reactor pressure is 800 psig and slowly rising.
  • The status of RCIC is shown below:

If Reactor pressure continued to rise, which one of the following describes the response of RCIC pump flow and the control(s) to be used to adjust RCIC pump discharge pressure while in this configuration?

RCIC Pump Flow ; Control(s) to Adjust RCIC Pump Discharge Pressure

A. Lowers ; 2ICS*FC101 thumbwheel
B. Lowers ; 2ICS*FC1 01 OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons
C. Remains approximately the same ; 2ICS*FC101 thumbwheel
D. Remains approximately the same ; 2ICS*FC101 OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: The given indications show the RCIC flow controller, 21CS*FC1 01, in manual control. In manual, RCIC turbine speed will be held constant, whereas in auto, RCIC flow would be held constant. This will cause pump flow to lower as Reactor pressure rises. With the flow controller in manual, the OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons are used to control system parameters, not
the thumbwheel.

Note: The question avoids overlap with the GFE by testing specific operating characteristics of the RCIC system based on status of the system’s controls. Specifically, operators must have knowledge of how the RCIC Control System responds to plant parameter changes when operating the system in MANUAL (i.e. speed control) vice AUTOMATIC (flow control).

A. Plausible- The thumbwheel will not cause any system parameter changes while in manual, but would be used if in auto.
C. Plausible- If the controller were in auto, flow would be held relatively constant. However in manual, flow will lower as Reactor pressure rises. The thumbwheel will not cause any system parameter changes while in manual, but would be used if in auto.
D. Plausible- If the controller were in auto, flow would be held relatively constant. However in manual, flow will lower as Reactor pressure rises.

21
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA and a complete loss of offsite power. Conditions are as follows:
  • The Division 2 EDG failed to automatically start and CANNOT be started.
  • Reactor water level is being controlled 160 to 200 inches using LPCS.
  • Reactor pressure is 100 psig and slowly lowering.
  • Drywell pressure is 1.5 psig and slowly lowering.
  • The crew has exited N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control.
  • It is desired to cool down the plant to Cold Shutdown.

Which one of the following identifies the lineup to be used to cool down the plant to Cold Shutdown?

A. Place normal Shutdown Cooling in service using RHR pump A per N2-0P-31, Residual Heat Removal.
B. Place normal Shutdown Cooling in service using RHR pump B per N2-0P-31, Residual Heat Removal.
C. Place alternate Shutdown Cooling (Preferred Lineup) in service using RHR pump A per N2-SOP-31, Loss of Shutdown Cooling.
D. Place alternate Shutdown Cooling (Preferred Lineup) in service using RHR pump B per N2-SOP-31, Loss of Shutdown Cooling.

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: N2-0P-31 P&L 22 references use of N2-SOP-31, Loss of Shutdown Cooling, if normal Shutdown Cooling cannot be established. N2-SOP-31 directs use of alternate Shutdown Cooling preferred lineup if you are in Mode 3 and attempting to cool down. RHR pump B is unavailable since 2ENS*SWG103 is de-energized. Therefore RHR pump A must be
used for alternate Shutdown Cooling (preferred lineup).

A. Plausible- With a loss of offsite power and Division 2 EDG not available, there is no power to open 2RHS*MOV112, the SOC suction line isolation valve inside Primary Containment.
Additionally, under LOCA conditions, it is not possible to enter Primary Containment to manually open the valve.
B. Plausible -With a loss of offsite power and 2EGS*EG3 not available, there is no power to RHR pump B.
D. Plausible- With a loss of offsite power and 2EGS*EG3 not available, there is no power to RHR pump B.

22
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
  • Reactor water level is -10 inches and stable.
  • RCIC is injecting at 600 gpm.
  • No other injection systems are available.

Then …

  • Annunciator 601332, RCIC EQUIP ROOM TEMPERATURE HIGH, alarms.
  • RCIC equipment room temperature is 1 00°F and slowly rising.
  • An Operator reports a steam leak is present in the RCIC equipment room.

Which one of the following describes the required response, in accordance with the Emergency Operating Procedures?

A. Shutdown and isolate RCIC immediately.
B. Defeat the RCIC high area temperature isolation and continue use of RCIC for Reactor injection.
C. Continue use of RCIC for Reactor injection until a high-high room temperature isolation is reached. Then if Reactor water level cannot be maintained above -14 inches, perform Steam Cooling.
D. Continue use of RCIC for Reactor injection until a high-high room temperature isolation is reached. Then if Reactor water level cannot be maintained above -14 inches, perform an RPV Slowdown.

A

Proposed Answer: b
Explanation: Reactor water level is just above the top of active fuel and stable with RCIC at maximum flow. Additionally, no other injection systems are available to replace RCIC. Therefore RCIC is required by N2-EOP-RPV to maintain adequate core cooling, the main mitigating strategy of the procedure. This is in contrast to the mitigating strategy of N2-EOPSC,
which would lead to eventual isolation of RCIC. The overall EOP strategy places greater importance on adequate core cooling, thus N2-EOP-RPV (and, as a result, ARP 601332) direct defeating the RCIC high area temperature isolation using N2-EOP-6.2 and continuing injection
using RCIC.

A. Plausible -This would be correct if RCIC was not necessary to maintain adequate core cooling. Since RCIC is needed to maintain adequate core cooling, it should be left in service and have the high temperature isolation bypassed.
C. Plausible- The high temperature isolation should be bypassed to allow continued RCIC operation for adequate core cooling.
D. Plausible- The high temperature isolation should be bypassed to allow continued RCIC operation for adequate core cooling. Additionally, with no other injection systems available, if RCIC trips/isolates, Steam Cooling would be performed, not RPV Slowdown.

23
Q
  1. The Standby Liquid Control System (SLS) quarterly operability test on SLS pump A is about to be performed.

Which one of the following identifies how the automatic Reactor Water Cleanup System (WCS) isolation is avoided during this test?

A. WCS isolation signal is bypassed when using the SLS pump TEST switch to start the SLS pump.
B. WCS isolation bypass switches are placed in the BYPASS position prior to starting the SLS pump.
C. WCS system is shutdown and containment isolation valves closed prior to starting the SLS pump.
D. WCS containment isolation valve power supply breakers are opened prior to starting the SLS pump.

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: Use of the TEST Switch for either pump bypasses the interlocks that open the MOV1A/B valves, fire the squibs, and isolate the respective divisional WCS isolation valve. This allows operation of the pump to circulate the contents of the test tank for surveillance testing.

B. Plausible - There are no bypass switches for this situation.
C. Plausible-WCS remains in operation.
D. Plausible- No breakers are opened.

24
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • The Mode Switch is placed in SHUTDOWN.
  • A malfunction occurs such that the RPS B Scram Solenoids remain energized.
  • All other RPS functions respond as designed.

Which one of the following gives ( 1) the value of Reactor power 20 seconds after the malfunction and (2) the action required?

A. 100% ; Initiate ARI per N2-SOP-101C, Reactor Scram
B. 100% ; Actuate the MANUAL SCRAM PUSHBUTTONS per N2-SOP-101C, Reactor Scram.
C. Downscale (<4%) ; Enter N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control, and stabilize/control Reactor water level and pressure.
D. Downscale (<4%) ; Enter N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control. Exit N2-EOPRPV and enter N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram

A

Proposed Answer: c

With a failure of the RPS B Scram Solenoids to de-energize, the Scram Pilot Valves (SOV139’s) could not reposition themselves to vent off their associated HCUs and insert the control rods. However the backup scram valves are still functional and are energize to function valves. Since the backup scram valves would still operate, the scram air header would depressurize which will cause all rods to insert and power to go <4% (downscale). Since all rods would go in, there would be no A TWS and so normal pressure/level control would be used per N2-EOP-RPV.

A. Plausible - This action would be taken if the rods did not insert and the manual scram pushbuttons did not deenergize the RPS solenoids
B. Plausible -Although the operator could operate the manual scram pushbuttons, reactor power would not be 100%, it would be downscale after 20 seconds.
D. Plausible- Even though power would be <4%, if not all rods went in, entry into N2-EOP-C5 would be required.

25
Q
  1. A loss of high pressure injection has occurred. Conditions are as follows:
  • ADS automatically initiated.
  • Reactor pressure is 80 psig and stable.
  • Reactor water level is 180 inches and stable.

Which one of the following identifies the status of the Control Room P601 and P628/P631 RED indicating lights for SRV137?

P601 ; P628/P631
A. On ; On
B. On ; Off
C. Off ; On
D. Off ; Off

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: SRV137 is one of the ADS valves, so it would have opened upon ADS initiation. Therefore, the red solenoid lights on P628/631 will be on. However, Reactor pressure is too low (<400 psig) to cause the red acoustic monitor light on P601 to be on.

A. Plausible- This is the expected condition at higher Reactor pressures (>400 psig).
B. Plausible -This would be correct if the valve opened by relief or safety mode.
D. Plausible- This would be correct for a non-ADS valve that remained closed.

26
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress with power about 15% and the Main Generator about to be synchronized with the grid.

Which one of the following describes (1) the number of Turbine Bypass Valves (TBVs) that should be open prior to synchronization and (2) the method for closing the TBVs after synchronization, in accordance with N2-0P-101A, Plant Startup, and N2-0P-68, Main Generator?

(1) TBVs should be open prior to synchronization. After synchronization, TBVs are closed by pressing the INCREASE pushbutton on the (2)

A. 1 to 1.5 ; Load Selector

B. 1 to 1.5 ; Pressure Setpoint Selector

C. 2.5 to 3 ; Load Selector

D. 2.5 to 3 ; Pressure Setpoint Selector

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: N2-0P-1 01A directs achieving 2.5 to 3 TBVs open before synchronizing the Main Generator. This is to ensure the Main Generator is able to be quickly loaded to a sufficient level to prevent tripping on reverse power. This concern results from the principles involved in paralleling a finite source, such as the Main Generator, with an infinite source, such as the grid. Once the Main Generator is synchronized, the TBVs are closed using the load selector. The pressure setpoint has previously been raised to 925 psig to support successful Main Generator loading, therefore further operation of the pressure setpoint is not desired. With the Main Generator synchronized to the grid, adjusting load selector affects TCV/TBV positioning. Note: This question matches the KIA because it tests the operational implication of the concept of needing to have adequate capability to assume load on the Main Generator immediately after paralleling with the grid to prevent the Main Generator from tripping on reverse power. This concept is handled in practice by having adequate TBVs open with Reactor pressure high enough.

A. Plausible- N2-0P-101A directs 2.5 to 3 TBVs open.

B. Plausible- N2-0P-1 01A directs 2.5 to 3 TBVs open. Load Selector is used after synchronization to close TBVs. Pressure Setpoint was used earlier in the startup for this purpose.

D. Plausible- Load Selector is used after synchronization to close TBVs. Pressure Setpoint was used earlier in the startup for this purpose.

27
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • 2CCS-TV104, TB CLOSED LOOP COOLING TEMPERATURE CONTROL VALVE, is stuck and cannot move
  • Due to changing lake conditions, Service Water supply temperature has lowered 5°F.

Which one of the following describes the response of Main Turbine Lube Oil temperature and the Main Generator leads temperature?

Main Turbine Lube Oil Temperature ; Main Generator Leads Temperature

A. Remains approximately the same ; Remains approximately the same

B. Remains approximately the same ; Lowers

C. Lowers ; Remains approximately the same

D. Lowers ; Lowers

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: Service Water supplies the cooling water to the TBCLC heat exchangers and TBCLC supplies the cooling water to the Main Turbine Lube Oil and Main Generator Leads coolers. With Service Water temperature lowering and 2CCS-TV104 remaining in the initial position, TBCLC supply temperature will lower. The Main Turbine Lube Oil coolers have a dedicated temperature control valve that will adjust to maintain Lube Oil temperature approximately constant. The Main Generator Leads coolers do NOT have a dedicated temperature control valve, therefore Leads temperature will lower along with the TBCLC supply temperature.

A. Plausible - The Main Generator Leads coolers clo NOT have a dedicated temperature control valve, therefore Leads temperature will lower along with the TBCLC supply temperature.

C. Plausible -The Main Turbine Lube Oil coolers have a dedicated temperature control valve that will adjust to maintain Lube Oil temperature approximately constant. The Main Generator Leads coolers do NOT have a dedicated temperature control valve, therefore Leads temperature will lower along with the TBCLC supply temperature.

D. Plausible- The Main Turbine Lube Oil coolers have a dedicated temperature control valve that will adjust to maintain Lube Oil temperature approximately constant.

28
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power when 2NNS-SWG012 de-energizes.
    Which one of the following describes the impact on the Fire Protection system?

A. The Electric Fire pump motor loses power.
B. The Diesel Fire pump starting circuit loses power.
C. Both Pressure Maintenance pumps lose power. The Electric Fire pump auto-starts.
D. One Pressure Maintenance pump loses power, but the other maintains system pressure.

A

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: 2NNS-SWG012 is the power supply to the Electric Fire pump motor.

B. Plausible- The Diesel Fire pump start circuit is not powered from 2NNS-SWG012, it is powered from 2SCA-PNL 102 which is powered from US 1.
C. Plausible- The Pressure Maintenance pumps are powered from 2NHS-MCC015, which does not receive power from 2NNS-SWG012.
D. Plausible- The Pressure Maintenance pumps are both powered from 2NHS-MCC015, which does not receive power from 2NNS-SWG012.

29
Q
  1. The plant is at 80% power. Conditions are as follows:
    • A malfunction occurs in the M/A station for Recirculation Flow Control Valve 2RCS*HYV17A.
    • The failure exactly mimics the slider being in the slow detent position in the direction indicated by the arrow below.
    • The malfunction occurs for approximately 15 seconds and then clears.

Which one of the following describes how the EHC system controls Reactor pressure in response to this malfunction?
EHC …

A. adjusts Turbine Control Valves and stabilizes Reactor pressure at the initial value.
B. adjusts Turbine Control Valves and stabilizes Reactor pressure slightly higher than the initial value.
C. adjusts Turbine Control Valves and stabilizes Reactor pressure slightly lower than the initial value.
D. controls Reactor pressure at the initial value with no significant Turbine Control Valve adjustment because 2RCS*HYV17A locks up.

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: This failure gives a close signal to 2RCS*HYV17A. Since the failure is the same as the M/A station being in the slow detent position, none of the FCV lockup signals will cause a lockup. The loop flow controller will throttle the FCV further closed. This will lower Recirculation flow and Reactor power. Reactor pressure will begin to lower and EHC will throttle Turbine Control Valves further closed to prevent a major drop in Reactor pressure. However, the EHC system controls Reactor pressure proportionally to Turbine steam flow. As Turbine steam flow lowers, Reactor pressure will be controlled at a lower value.

A. Plausible- The EHC setpoint will remain constant, however the control characteristics of the system are such that at lower steam flow, Reactor pressure will be controlled at a lower value.
B. Plausible- The given failure shows the loop flow controller with a close signal, not an open signal. Reactor pressure would rise if the FCV moved in the open direction.
D. Plausible- The FCV does have numerous lockup signals, however none that would prevent valve motion in this circumstance.

30
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Annunciator 602319, RWCU FILTER DEMIN INLET TEMP HI-HI, alarms.
  • The running Reactor Water Cleanup pump trips.
  • 2WCS*MOV112, CLEANUP SUCT OUTBOARD ISOL VLV, closes.
  • 2WCS*MOV200, CLEANUP RETURN ISOL VLV THROTTLE, remains open.

Which one of the following describes this RWCU response?
High non-regenerative heat exchanger outlet temperature ….

A. directly caused the pump to trip, which caused MOV112 to close.
B. directly caused MOV112 to shut and MOV200 should have closed.
C. directly caused MOV112 to shut and the system responded properly.
D. should not have caused MOV112 to shut and the system responded improperly.

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: Annunciator 602319 corresponds to a RWCU filter demin inlet temperature of 140°F. This causes closure of MOV112 to protect the resin. The closure of MOV112 trips the
running WCS pump.

31
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • The Offgas system is in dual train operation.
  • 2OFG-AT16A, H2 ANALYZER FOR RECOMBINER TRAIN “A”, has been declared inoperable.

Which one of the following describes the operational implications (if any) for the inoperable H2 Monitor per N2-0P-42, Offgas System?
Operation with Offgas Train A may …

A. continue with no compensatory actions.
B. NOT continue until the associated H2 Monitor is operable.
C. NOT continue until H2 grab samples are taken and analyzed for Train A.
D. continue, however Train A H2 concentrations should be calculated using the common H2 concentration read on 2OFG-AT115, H2 ANALYZER FOR OFG SYSTEM A AND B.

A

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: N2-0P-42, Section C.3.0 gives information regarding the operational implications for a H2 monitor out of service in dual train operation. When one H2 monitor is inoperable, the H2 concentration for that train can be calculated using the common H2 concentration and
associated system flows. Use of Grab Samples or other direct reading methods to determine H2 concentrations may not provide a representative value of the actual H2 concentration throughout the Offgas System

32
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • RHR is in a normal standby lineup.
  • An electrical fault causes 2EHS*MCC303 to de-energize and remain de-energized.

Which one of the following identifies the RHR lineup(s) that is(are) UNAVAILABLE unless an MOV is manually opened in the field?

(1) Loop B Suppression Pool Cooling
(2) Loop B Suppression Chamber Spray
(3) Loop B Low Pressure Coolant Injection

A. (1) only
B. (2) only
C. (1) and (2) only
D. (1 ), (2), and (3)

A

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: 2EHS*MCC303 provides power to numerous RHR Loop B MOVs, including MOV33B (needed for Suppression Chamber spray), MOV388 (needed for Suppression Pool cooling), and MOV24B (needed for LPCIInjection). Therefore, with 2EHS*MCC303 deenergized, RHR Loop B is unavailable for Suppression Pool cooling, Suppression Chamber spray, and LPCI Injection without manually opening an MOV in the field.

33
Q
  1. A loss of coolant accident has occurred. Conditions are as follows:
  • RHR Loop A is spraying the Suppression Chamber.
  • Suppression Chamber pressure is 10 psig and rising slowly.
  • Drywell pressure is 12 psig and rising slowly.

RHR Loop A is subsequently aligned to spray both the Suppression Chamber and the Drywell.

In accordance with N2-EOP-PC, which one of the following describes (1) the response of Drywell pressure once Drywell spray is in service, and (2) the limit before which Drywell spray is REQUIRED to be secured?

Drywell pressure will lower (1)
Drywell spray is REQUIRED to be secured before Drywell pressure drops to (2)

A. (1) below Suppression Chamber pressure.
(2) 0 psig.
B. (1) below Suppression Chamber pressure.
(2) 1.68 psig.
C. (1) but remain above Suppression Chamber pressure.
(2) 0 psig.
D. (1) but remain above Suppression Chamber pressure.
(2) 1.68 psig.

A

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: A loss of coolant accident drives non-condensable gases from the Drywell airspace to the Suppression Chamber airspace. When Drywell Spray is placed in service, the steam in the Drywell airspace condenses, lowering Drywell pressure. Drywell pressure will drop below Suppression Chamber pressure (by -0.25 psid) before vacuum breakers will lift to return non-condensable gases from the Suppression Chamber to the Drywell. N2-EOP-PC step PCP-3 requires securing Drywell spray before Drywell pressure drops to 0 psig.

34
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power with one OPRM inoperable, when the following occurs:
    • 2RCS*MOV18A, RECIRC PMP 1A DISCH VLV, spuriously closes approximately 50% and then trips on motor overload.
    • The crew enters N2-SOP-29, Sudden Reduction in Core Flow.
    • Operators determine the plant is operating within the OPRM Dependent Stability Region and no core oscillations are occurring.

Which one of the following describes the response of Recirculation pump 1A and the required operator action in accordance with N2-SOP-29?

A

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: Recirculation pump 1A will automatically trip when RCS*MOV18A is less than 90% open. N2-SOP-29 would require a manual Reactor scram if core oscillations were observed, core flow and power entered the Scram Region, or if< 3 OPRMs were operable with core flow and power in the OPRM Dependent Stability Region. Since these conditions are NOT met, N2-SOP-29 requires inserting the first four CRAM rods.

A Plausible -A scram is NOT required because core flow and power remain outside the Scram Region, no core oscillations are observed, and ~ 3 OPRMs are operable with core flow and power in the OPRM Dependent Stability Region.
C. Plausible- Recirculation pump 1A does not immediately trip when the discharge valve comes off the full open position, however it does trip once the valve is ~ 10% closed.
D. Plausible- Recirculation pump 1A does not immediately trip when the discharge valve comes off the full open position, however it does trip once the valve is ~ 10% closed.

35
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:

• Over the course of one minute, 2FWS-FT1A, Feedwater Flow Transmitter A, fails downscale.

Which one of the following describes the automatic plant response to this failure?
Actual Feedwater flow will …

A. remain approximately constant because the Feedwater level control system bypasses the failed signal.
B. remain approximately constant because the Feedwater level control valves lock up due to the failed signal.
C. rise but Reactor water level will stay below level 8.
D. rise and Reactor water level will eventually exceed level 8.

A

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: When 2FWS-FT1A fails downscale, the Feedwater level control system sees Feedwater flow as much lower than Main Steam flow and anticipates lowering Reactor water level. The system compensates by raising actual Feedwater system flow. The Feedwater level control system is biased such that this failure will cause a rise of approximately 25 inches in Reactor water level at rated power. This level rise will exceed level 8 (202.3 inches).

36
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
    • Line 5 de-energizes due to a fault.
    • The Division 1 Diesel, 2EGS*EG1, re-energizes 2ENS*SWG101.

Which one of the following describes the operation of the Drywell Coolers during this transient?

The Drywell Coolers …

A. remain running throughout the transient.
B. trip, but then automatically re-start once 2ENS*SWG1 01 is re-energized.
C. trip and remain tripped once 2ENS*SWG101 is re-energized. The Division 1 CCP supply valves to the Drywell Coolers must be re-opened to restart the Drywell Coolers.
D. trip and remain tripped once 2ENS*SWG1 01 is re-energized. The Division 1 CCP supply valves to the Drywell Coolers do NOT need to be re-opened to restart the Drywell Coolers.

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: Although loss of Line 5 does not cause a loss of power to the Drywell Coolers themselves, the loss does cause the fans to trip due to loss of position indication on the associated CCP isolation valves. Once 2ENS*SWG101 is re-energized by the diesel, this condition clears and the Drywell Coolers can be manually re-started. N2-SOP-03 Attachment 1 provides the guidance to manually re-start the Drywell Coolers. Although the Drywell Coolers trip due to the loss of CCP supply valve position indication, the valves do not actually shut.

37
Q
  1. The plant has been in Mode 3 for the last 24 hours. Conditions are as follows:
  • Drywell floor and equipment drain tank levels are as given below.
  • No Drywell floor or equipment drain tank pump downs have occurred during this time period.

-See attached Picture

Which one of the following describes:

(1) the approximate value of Unidentified Leak Rate during this time period, and
(2) whether this value is above or below the Technical Specification limit?

A. (1) 1.7gpm
(2) Below the Technical Specification limit
B. (1) 1.7gpm
(2) Above the Technical Specification limit
C. (1) 6.0 gpm
(2) Below the Technical Specification limit
D. (1) 6.0 gpm
(2) Above the Technical Specification limit

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: Unidentified Leak Rate is calculated using Drywell Floor Drain Tank levels. For the given 15 minute period, the leak rate into the Drywell Floor Drain Tank was approximately 1. 7 gpm ((125 gallons- 100 gallons) /15 minutes). This is below the Technical Specification
limit of 5 gpm.

Note: The question satisfies the generic KIA by requiring a calculation using plant data (Ability to evaluate plant performance … based on … instrument interpretation) and then requiring a judgment to be made regarding compliance with operating restrictions based on this calculation (Ability to … make operational judgments based on … instrument interpretation).

B. Plausible- The Technical Specification limit is 5 gpm, therefore the 1.7 gpm leak rate is below the limit.
C. Plausible- This leak rate is calculated erroneously from the Drywell Equipment Drain Tank levels, which is identified leakage, not unidentified.
D. Plausible- This leak rate is calculated erroneously from the Drywell Equipment Drain Tank levels, which is identified leakage, not unidentified.

38
Q
  1. The plant has scrammed from 100% power due to a Turbine Trip. Conditions are as follows:
  • The crew has entered N2-SOP-83, Primary Containment Isolation Failure, in an attempt to close all MSIVs.
  • LOGIC C PUSHBUTTON has been rotated and depressed.

-See Attached Photo

Which one of the following describes (1) the status of the MSIVs and (2) the actions required to close ONLY the MSIVs per N2-SOP-83?

A ( 1) Only the Inboard MSIVs are Closed
(2) Rotate and depress LOGIC B pushbutton
B. (1) Only the Inboard MSIVs are Closed
(2) Rotate and depress LOGIC D pushbutton
C. (1) All MSIVs are Open
(2) Rotate and depress LOGIC B pushbutton
D. (1) All MSIVs are Open
(2) Rotate and depress LOGIC D pushbutton

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: Per N2-SOP-83, Section 5.11, in order to isolate only the MSIVs, either pushbuttons for A and B -or- C and D need to be depressed. Since Pushbutton C is already rotated and depressed, then D would be the only additional pushbutton needed. One pushbutton cannot isolate the MSIVs. The MSIVs are either all open or all shut based on the isolation pushbuttons.
A. Plausible - This distracter takes advantage of a common misconception for candidates. Manual isolation of other PCIS components can be accomplished using one pushbutton on 2CEC*PNL602, however the MSIVs require the use of two pushbuttons. Additionally, LOGIC D needs to be depressed, not LOGIC B.
B. Plausible -This distracter takes advantage of a common misconception for candidates. Manual isolation of other PCIS components can be accomplished using one pushbutton on 2CEC*PNL602, however the MSIV’s require the use of two push buttons.
C. Plausible- This would be true if LOGIC A was already rotated and depressed.

39
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • A Turbine trip causes a Reactor scram.
  • One control rod fails to insert and is at position 48.
  • All other control rods fully insert.

Which one of the following correctly completes the below statements?

The MAXIMUM SUBCRITICAL BANK WITHDRAW POSITION (1) being exceeded. The Reactor (2) considered shutdown under all conditions

(1) ; (2)
A. IS ; IS
B. IS ; IS NOT
C. IS NOT ; IS
D. IS NOT ; IS NOT

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: The Maximum Subcritical Bank Withdraw position of 00 is being exceeded.
However the Reactor is still considered shutdown under all conditions.

B. Plausible - Even with one rod out, the Reactor is considered shutdown under all conditions.
C & D. Plausible- The Maximum Subcritical Bank Withdraw position of 00 is being exceeded.

40
Q
  1. Which one of the following identifies:
    (1) the threshold value for APRM peak-to-peak oscillations requiring action, and
    (2) the required action for exceeding this threshold,
    in accordance with N2-SOP-29, Sudden Reduction in Core Flow?

A. (1) 10%
(2) Insert CRAM rods using RMCS.
B. (1) 10%
(2) Scram the Reactor.
C. (1) 25%
(2) Insert CRAM rods using RMCS.
D. (1) 25%
(2) Scram the Reactor.

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: N2-SOP-29 directs inserting a manual Reactor scram if core oscillations are observed. One of the criteria qualifying as a core oscillation is “any APRM peak-to-peak value exceeds 1 0%”.

41
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Annunciator 601246, REACTOR BLDG CLOSED LOOP COOLING SYS TROUBLE, alarms.
  • The alarm is determined to be due to low expansion tank level.
  • The expansion tank make-up valve is open.
  • The expansion tank level is out of sight low.

Then …

  • The running CCP pumps trip.
  • The standby CCP pumps fail to auto start and cannot be manually started.

Which one of the following describes the required actions, in accordance with N2-SOP-13, Loss or Degraded CCP System?

A. Scram the Reactor and trip both Recirc pumps and WCS pumps.
B. Scram the Reactor and trip WCS pumps. Trip the Recirc Pumps only when high temperature alarms are received.
C. Reduce power to 85% using Recirc flow or CRAM rods while attempting to locate and isolate the leak. If tank level cannot be readily restored, then scram the Reactor.
D. Reduce power to 85% using Recirc flow or CRAM rods while removing WCS from service and continuing efforts to start a CCP pump. If a pump cannot be started, then
scram the Reactor.

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: Per N2-SOP-13, if all pumps trip and none can be started then the required actions per the 1st override is to scram, trip both Recirc pumps and the WCS pumps. The
running CCP pumps tripped on low suction and the standby pumps will not start due to the low suction condition. The conditions provided are symptomatic of a leak in the system.

42
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown for a refueling outage. Conditions are as follows:
  • An irradiated fuel bundle is dropped in the Spent Fuel Pool.
  • Reactor Building ventilation automatically isolates due to high radiation levels.
  • Both Standby Gas trains and Emergency Recirc Units fail to start.
  • Reactor Building differential pressure is +0.05 inches WG.

Which one of the following identifies the type of offsite radiation release that will occur, if any?

A. No release
B. Treated, elevated release
C. Untreated, elevated release
D. Untreated, ground level release

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: With high airborne radiation levels, no Reactor Building ventilation running, and positive Reactor Building pressure, a radiation release will occur from the Reactor Building. The release will be untreated since SGTS is not operating. The release will be ground level, NOT elevated, since no fans are operating to direct the release to elevated release points.

43
Q
  1. A loss of coolant accident has occurred. Conditions are as follows:
  • Drywell pressure is 3.0 psig and slowly rising.
  • The hottest Drywell temperature is 275°F and slowly rising.
  • All Drywell cooling fans are tripped.

Which one of the following describes the ability to restore Drywell cooling, in accordance with N2-EOP-6.24, Drywell Unit Cooler Operation?
Drywell cooling …

A. can be fully restored without further evaluation and without defeating interlocks.
B. can be fully restored without further evaluation, but only after defeating interlocks.
C. CANNOT be restored without further evaluation because of the potential for CCP piping damage.
D. CANNOT be restored without further evaluation because of the potential for Drywell cooling fan motor damage.

A

Proposed Answer: c
Explanation: N2-EOP-6.24 does not allow restoration of Drywell cooling until further evaluation has been conducted because the hottest Drywell temperature is 250°F. Steam voiding in the Drywell CCP piping is of concern, which could result in significant water hammer and piping damage in the event of CCP flow restoration.

44
Q
  1. A station blackout has occurred. Given the following actions:

Action# ; Action Description

1: De-energize the RCIC Gland Seal Compressor.
2: De-energize non-essential station lighting.
3: Degas the generator, then de-energize the Hydrogen Seal Oil and Emergency Seal Oil Pumps.
4: Break condenser vacuum and when the turbine stops, place the Emergency Bearing Oil pump control switch in Pull-To-Lock.

Which one of the following identifies the actions required within the first two hours of the Station Blackout, in accordance with N2-SOP-01, Station Blackout?

A. Actions 1 & 3.
B. Actions 1 & 4.
C. Actions 2 & 3.
D. Actions 2 & 4.

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: N2-SOP-01 requires de-energizing non-essential station lighting and securing the Emergency Bearing Oil pump within 2 hours to control battery discharge rate.

A & B. Plausible- N2-SOP-01 does not specify securing the RCIC Gland Seal Compressor. Plausible in that RCIC will continue to operate with the compressor secured.
B. Plausible- N2-SOP-01 does not specify securing the RCIC Gland Seal Compressor.
Plausible in that RCIC will continue to operate with the compressor secured.
C. Plausible- N2-SOP-01 does not specify that the Emergency Seal Oil pump be secured.
Plausible in that this DC pump would be operating.

45
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Thunderstorms are causing significant grid voltage instability.
  • N2-SOP-70, Major Grid Disturbances, has been entered.
  • Power Control reports that the Post LOCA Contingency Alarms are in for both Line 5 and 6.

Which one of the following describes the required action based on this report and the reason for this response?

A. Lines 5 and 6 must be declared inoperable because their loss is imminent.
B. The Div 1 and 2 Diesels must be started because loss of Lines 5 and 6 is imminent.
C. Lines 5 and 6 must be declared inoperable because they may not supply adequate voltage under accident conditions.
D. The Div 1 and 2 Diesels must be started because Lines 5 and 6 may not supply adequate voltage under accident conditions

A

Proposed Answer: c

The SOP discussion states, “The Load Flow computer at National Grid runs a program that looks at 115 KV voltage for Line 5 and Line 6. This program determines if there is sufficient voltage (depending on grid loading) to supply NMP 2 ECCS loads during a LOCA (plant trip). If
the voltage is too low, a contingency low voltage alarm is received at Power Control. If the contingency low voltage alarm is received OR actual voltage is less than 11 0 KV with the load Flow computer unavailable, then the offsite power source cannot perform its function under accident conditions and is, therefore, inoperable.

46
Q
  1. The plant is cooling down in Mode 3. Conditions are as follows:
  • A loss of Shutdown Cooling has occurred.
  • RCS temperature is 205°F and rising slowly.
  • The CRS has directed that Alternate Shutdown Cooling (ASC) Preferred Lineup be initiated.

Per N2-SOP-31, Loss of SDC, which one of the following describes 1) the RHS mode used to remove heat from the primary containment for ASC Preferred Lineup and 2) the reason why the ASC Preferred Lineup is preferred over the ASC Alternate Lineup?

A. (1) LPCI Injection Mode
(2) A shorter time is required to reach cold shutdown.

B. (1) Suppression Pool Cooling Mode
(2) A shorter time is required to reach cold shutdown.

C. (1) LPCIInjection Mode
(2) There is a greater chance of violating cooldown limits while in ASC Alternate Lineup as opposed to ASC Preferred Lineup.

D. (1) Suppression Pool Cooling Mode
(2) There is a greater chance of violating cooldown limits while in ASC Alternate Lineup as opposed to ASC Preferred Lineup.

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: N2-SOP-31, Section 5.2 explains that when in the preferred Lineup, it will take less time to reach cold shutdown conditions because heat is being removed from the coolant by the RHS HX prior to injecting water into the reactor (LPCI Injection Mode). The Alternate Lineup does not cool the water prior to going into the RPV but instead relies on a separate loop of RHS being run in Suppression Pool Cooling Mode.

B-D. Plausible- Suppression Pool Cooling mode is an allowable mode of heat removal from the primary containment, however this mode is only used in the Alternate, not the Preferred Lineup.

Additionally, per N2-SOP-31, Section 5.4, both Preferred and Alternate lineups for ASC have an equal chance of violating cooldown rates because the concern deals with the Suppression Pool temperature, not which lineup you are in.

47
Q
  1. Which one of the following identifies:
    (1) the required action if Primary Containment parameters CANNOT be restored and maintained inside the Pressure Suppression Pressure (PSP),

and

(2) the reason for this action, in accordance with N2-EOP-PC, Primary Containment Control and the Unit 2 EOP Bases?

A

Proposed Answer: B

The limiting basis for the Pressure Suppression Pressure curve at NMP2 is the highest Suppression Chamber pressure which can occur without steam in the Suppression Chamber
airspace. NER-2M-039 states that the RPV Blowdown due to PSP is required “to ensure that pressure suppression capability sufficient to accommodate a Blowdown is maintained while the RPV is at pressure”.

48
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • A Control Room evacuation has been ordered.
  • The crew has entered N2-SOP-78, Control Room Evacuation.

Which one of the following identifies actions are taken outside the Control Room to ensure a reactor scram and/or MSIV isolation during a Control Room Evacuation in accordance with N2-SOP-78?

(1) Trip the RPM EPA breakers.
(2) Vent the scram air header.
(3) Open breakers on the VBS panels supplied by UPS3A/3B.
(4) Place SRI TEST switches in TEST.

A. (1) and (2)
B. (1) and (3)
C. (2) and (4)
D. (3) and (4)

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: When a control room evacuation is directed, the Lower Control Building Operator takes action to backup the OATC to ensure the reactor is scrammed and the MSIVs are closed. This is accomplished by tripping the RPS MG Set EPAs and opening the RPS and MSIV logic power breakers on the VBS (UPS) panels supplied by UPS3A/B.

49
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Annunciator 849128, FIRE DETECTED PNL 129 W STAIR/288, alarms.
  • Zone 353SG E288 RR NW Area, is in alarm.
  • The zone is in ALARM ONLY at the Main Fire Control Panel.

Which one of the following describes:
(1) the type of fire suppression agent associated with this zone, and
(2) the required action to actuate suppression for this zone,
in accordance with N2-0P-47, Fire Detection?

A. (1) Halon
(2) Place zone control switch to Discharge at 2CEC-PNL849.
B. (1) Halon
(2) Place zone disconnect switch in Disconnect at the Local Fire Control Panel.
C. (1) Water
(2) Place zone control switch to Discharge at 2CEC-PNL849.
D. (1) Water
(2) Place zone disconnect switch in Disconnect at the Local Fire Control Panel.

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: The zone designator (353SG) provides information about the type of fire suppression agent associated with the zone. The “G” indicates this zone is protected by Halon.
With the zone in ALARM ONLY at the Main Fire Control Panel, discharge may still be initiated by placing the zone control switch in DISCHARGE at the Main Fire Control Panel (2CECPNL849).

50
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power when the Main Turbine spuriously trips.

Given the following electrical buses:

(1) 2NPS-SWG001
(2) 2NPS-SWG002
(3) 2NPS-SWG003

Which one of the following identifies electrical buses that automatically transfer to an alternate power supply?

A. (1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1 ), (2), and (3)

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: At 100% power, 2NPS-SWG001 and 2NPS-SWG003 are powered from the Main Generator output. Upon the Main Turbine trip, the Main Generator will lockout. When this occurs, 2NPS-SWG001 and 2NPS-SWG003 auto transfer to offsite power via fast transfer.
2NPS-SWG002 is fed from Auxiliary Boiler Service transformer 2ABS-X1. 2ABS-X1 is fed from offsite power. Therefore, 2ABS-X1 and 2NPS-SWG002 do not auto transfer on the Main Generator lockout.

51
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown following a Seismic Event and LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
  • Suppression Pool level is 196.5 feet and steady.
  • RHR Loop A is operating in LPCI mode.
  • RHR Loop B is operating in Suppression Pool Cooling mode.

Which one of the following describes the method for determining Suppression Pool temperature, in accordance with NER-2M-039, NMP 2 EOP Basis Document?
Use …

A. Suppression Pool temperature indication on SPDS.
B. RHR heat exchanger inlet temperature on RHR Loop B.
C. RHR heat exchanger outlet temperature on RHR Loop A.
D. post-accident monitor Suppression Pool temperature indicators.

A

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: With Suppression Pool level <197ft, one method given for determining temperature is the HTX inlet temp provided that the pump is aligned with suction from the Suppression Pool, such as RHR Loop 8 operating in Suppression Pool Cooling mode.

52
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a Failure to Scram. Conditions are as follows:
  • Reactor pressure is 850 psig and is being controlled 800-1000 psig with RCIC and SRVs.
  • Suppression Pool temperature is 130°F and very slowly rising.
  • Suppression Pool water level is 202 feet and very slowly rising.

-See attached picture

Which one of the following describes the impact of these parameters on the required Reactor pressure control strategy, in accordance with N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram, N2-EOP-PC, Primary Containment Control, and the EOP Bases?

A. An RPV Blowdown is required.
B. Reactor pressure must be maintained at or below approximately 900 psig.
C. Reactor pressure must be maintained at or below approximately 500 psig.
D. Continued use of the entire current Reactor pressure band is acceptable.

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: With Suppression Pool water level at 202 feet, the operator may interpolate between the 201 and 205 foot curve. With Suppression Pool temperature at 130°F, the maximum Reactor pressure allowed is approximately 1100 psig. Since the entire 800 to 1000 psig pressure range is on the good side of the curve, then the operator can continue to use the current pressure band

A. Plausible - HCTL is not being violated with the given conditions.
B. Plausible - This would be true if suppression pool temperature were higher.
C. Plausible- Reactor pressure above -1100 psig would be on the BAD side of the HCTL curve. This would be correct if Suppression Pool Temperature were higher.

53
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a Failure to Scram. Conditions are as follows:
  • Reactor water level reaches a low of 115 inches and then begins rising.
  • Reactor power stabilizes at 1-2% on APRMs.
  • Reactor pressure is being controlled on the Main Turbine Bypass Valves.

In accordance with the Emergency Operating Procedures, which one of the following correctly completes the below statements?

Terminating and preventing all RPV injection except boron, CRD, and RCIC (1) required .
The ability to use High Pressure Core Spray (HPCS) for RPV injection once in the proper level band is (2)

(1) ; (2)
A. IS ; RESTRICTED
B. IS ; UNRESTRICTED
C. IS NOT ; RESTRICTED
D. IS NOT ; UNRESTRICTED

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: Reactor power is below 4%, N2-EOP-C5 directs maintaining Reactor water level between -39 and 202.3 inches and does NOT direct terminating and preventing injection. Even though Reactor water level is NOT required to be intentionally lowered, use of HPCS is not allowed unless Reactor water level cannot be maintained with Preferred A TWS Systems after an RPV Slowdown.

54
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:

• Instrument air pressure on Panel 851 (21AS-PI1 01) indicates 84 psig and slowly lowering.

Which one of the following actions is required, in accordance with N2-SOP-19, Loss of Instrument Air?

A. Scram the Reactor.
B. Perform an emergency power reduction.
C. Dispatch an Operator to monitor lAS pressures in the Reactor Building.
D. Verify 2IAS-AOV171, Instrument Air to Service Air Cross-Tie, auto-opens.

A

Proposed Answer: c
Explanation: If Instrument air pressure, as indicated on Panel 851 21AS-PI1 01, lowers to < 85 psig, then the override of N2-SOP-19 requires verifying 21AS-AOV171 auto-closes and dispatching an Operator to monitor two air pressure indications in the Reactor Building. These air pressure indications must be monitored to assess subsequent conditional scram steps in the procedure.

55
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power.

Which one of the following describes:

(1) the minimum Suppression Pool water level required by Technical Specifications, and
(2) the threshold Suppression Pool water level requiring RPV Blowdown, in accordance with N2-EOP-PC, Primary Containment Control?

A. (1) 195 feet
(2) 190 feet
B. (1) 195 feet
(2) 192 feet
C. (1) 199.5 feet
(2) 190 feet
D. (1) 199.5 feet
(2) 192 feet

A

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: The Suppression Pool functions to condense steam discharged from Downcomers, SRV discharge lines, and/or the RCIC turbine exhaust line. To ensure these functions are met, Technical Specifications require Suppression Pool water level to be maintained < 199.5 feet while in Modes 1, 2, and 3. The Downcomer openings first become exposed to the Suppression Chamber air space when water level reaches 190 feet, however the N2-EOP-PC threshold value for RPV Blowdown is 192 feet based on the lowest readable Suppression Pool water level.

56
Q
  1. Which one of the following describes:
    (1) the maximum number of New Fuel Storage Vault covers that may be removed at a time during fuel handling, and
    (2) the reason for this limitation, in accordance with N2-0P-39, Fuel Handling and Reactor Service Equipment, and the UFSAR?

A. (1) One
(2) Criticality control
B. (1) One
(2) Contamination control
C. (1) Two
(2) Criticality control
D. (1) Two
(2) Contamination control

A

Proposed Answer: A

Only one New Fuel Storage Vault cover may be removed at a time during fuel handling. This is part of the New Fuel Storage Vault criticality control strategy.

B. Plausible - New fuel assemblies are radioactive material with the potential for contamination in the event of a manufacturing defect, however this limitation is designed for criticality control, not contamination control.

57
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:

• A blown fuse results in loss of DC control power to the closed supply breaker for 2NPSSWG001.

Which one of the following describes the effect on the supply breaker operation?
The supply breaker …

A. trips open and CANNOT be re-closed from the Control Room.
B. remains closed, can still be operated from the Control Room, but loses protective trips.
C. remains closed, CANNOT be operated from the Control Room, and loses protective trips.
D. remains closed, CANNOT be operated from the Control Room, but retains all protective
trips.

A

Proposed Answer: c
Explanation: 2BYS-SWG001A supplies DC control power for 2NPS-SWG001 supply breakers. Upon loss of the DC control power, the closed 2NPS-SWG001 supply breaker remains closed, but loses remote operation capability and protective trips.

58
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a Failure to Scram. Conditions are as follows:

• The RO is manually inserting control rods using the Reactor Manual Control System (RMCS) per N2-EOP-6.14, Alternate Control Rod Insertion.

Per N2-EOP-6.14, which one of the following correctly completes the following statement?

When using RMCS to manually drive rods, the Rod Worth Minimizer is (1) . Control Rods are inserted (2) .

A. (1) bypassed.
(2) starting in the center and spiraling to the outside.
B. (1) bypassed.
(2) starting on the outside and spiraling to the center.
C. (1) not bypassed.
(2) starting in the center and spiraling to the outside.
D. (1) not bypassed.
(2) starting on the outside and spiraling to the center.

A

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: When inserting control rods using RMCS during a Failure to Scram condition, N2-EOP-6.14 requires the RWM to be in Bypass. This is because the order in which the rods are inserted is different from the programmed rod sequence. Not having the RWM in bypass will cause a rod block which will stop RMCS from inserting the control rods. Per N2-EOP-6.14, the rod insertion sequence starts with rods in the center and spirals out to the outside.

59
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power when a malfunction within the PCIS system causes an inadvertent isolation of the Reactor Building Closed Loop Cooling Water to the Drywell Coolers.

Per N2-0P-60, Drywell Cooling System, which one of the following is the operational implication of this isolation if NO operator actions are taken?
The Drywell Cooling fans will. ..

A. trip and the plant will eventually scram on a subsequent high Drywell pressure.
B. trip and Drywell temperature will slowly rise, however no scram will occur.
C. continue to operate, but the plant will scram on a subsequent high Drywell pressure.
D. continue to operate and Drywell temperature will slowly rise, however no scram will occur.

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: An isolation of the CCP cooling water valves will cause an automatic trip of the Drywell Cooling Fans. If all drywell cooling is lost during power operation, the drywell
temperature/pressure rise will be rapid and immediate action should be taken to prevent a high drywell pressure signal (1.68 psig) from occurring.

60
Q
  1. A loss of coolant accident with fuel damage has occurred. Conditions are as follows:
  • Primary Containment venting has been directed using N2-EOP-6.21, Containment Venting, due to high Drywell pressure.
  • Drywell pressure is 45 psig and stable.
  • Suppression Chamber pressure is 35 psig and slowly rising
  • Primary Containment water level is 220 feet and slowly rising.

Which one of the following describes the vent path to be used, in accordance with N2-EOP-PC, Primary Containment Control?
Vent from the …

A. Drywell, because this is the preferred venting lineup.
B. Suppression Chamber, because this is the preferred venting lineup.
C. Drywell, because the preferred venting lineup from the Suppression Chamber is NOT available.
D. Suppression Chamber, because the preferred venting lineup from the Drywell is NOT available.

A

Proposed Answer: c

Explanation: The preferred venting lineup is from the Suppression Chamber, however Primary Containment water level is too high (> 217 feet) to vent from the Suppression Chamber. Therefore, the Drywell should be vented.

61
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • The running CRD pump has tripped.
  • The standby CRD pump has failed to start.
  • Two accumulator trouble alarms have been received for withdrawn control rods.
  • Both control rods have accumulator pressures of 920 psig.
  • The CRD pumps cannot be started.

Per N2-OP-30, Control Rod Drive Failures, which one of the following correctly completes the below statement?

A Reactor scram is required (1) . This scram is required due to degraded (2)

A. (1) immediately
(2) control rod scram capability

B. (1) immediately
(2) cooling to the CRD mechanisms

C. (1) 20 minutes after the loss of CRD Charging Header pressure
(2) control rod scram capability

D. (1) 20 minutes after the loss of CRD Charging Header pressure
(2) cooling to the CRD mechanisms

A

Proposed Answer: c
Explanation: With Reactor power at 100%, Reactor pressure is above 900 psig. With Reactor pressure above 900 psig, N2-SOP-30 requires a Reactor scram if two or more accumulators for withdrawn control rods are inoperable AND CRD charging water header pressure is <940 psig for 20 minutes. The reason for the scram is degraded control rod scram capability.

62
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power when a LOCA occurs. Conditions are as follows:

Time - Reactor Water Level

0 seconds - 180 inches

30 seconds - 155 inches

60 seconds - 115 inches

90 seconds - 100 inches

Reactor water level has been continuously lowering throughout this transient.
Which one of the following identifies the status of the Recirc pumps at Time = 30 seconds and at Time = 90 seconds?

Time = 30 Seconds ; Time = 90 Seconds
A. Running at High Speed ; Running at Low Speed
B. Running at High Speed ; Tripped
C. Running at Low Speed ; Running at Low Speed
D. Running at Low Speed ; Tripped

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: The Recirc pumps are initially in high speed, based on the 100% initial power level. The Recirc pumps downshift from high to low speed with no time delay when Reactor water level reaches 159.3” (Level 3). Therefore, at Time = 30 seconds (155”), the pumps are running in low speed. The Recirc pumps trip with no time delay when Reactor water level reaches 1 08.8” (Level 2). Therefore, at Time = 90 seconds (1 00”), the pumps have tripped.

63
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • A steam leak has developed in the Reactor Building.
  • The CRS has determined access to Reactor Building elevation 206’, the RCIC pump room, and the associated pipe chase is required to support EOP actions.
  • The following Reactor Building temperatures have been recorded:

Which one of the following identifies the number of Reactor Building General Areas that have exceeded the Maximum Safe Temperature, if any, in accordance with N2-EOP-SC?

A. Zero
B. One
C. Two
D. Three

A

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: The Maximum Safe Area temperature is either 135°F (if personnel access is required for support of EOP actions) or 212°F. Since access is required to the given areas the 135°F limitation must be used. Each block of temperatures on the provided attachment represent a different General Area. All temperatures in the RX BLDG RCIC PMP ROOM \ RX BLDG RADIOACTIVE PIPE CHASE EL 206 General Area are> 135°F. This means one General Area is above the Maximum Safe Temperature.

64
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Annunciator 602115, RECIRC PUMP 1A SEAL STAGING FLOW HIGH/LOW is in alarm.
  • Upper seal pressure (B35-R602A) indicates 980 psig.
  • Lower seal pressure (B35-R603A) indicates 1000 psig.
  • Drywell pressure is 0.41 psig and slowly rising.

Which one of the following actions is required in accordance with N2-SOP-29.1, Recirc Pump Failures?

A. Trip Recirc pump A and then close the suction and discharge isolation valves.
B. Trip Recirc pump A, but do NOT isolate the pump unless Drywell pressure rises further.
C. Perform a normal shutdown of Recirc pump A per N2-0P-29, Reactor Recirculation System.
D. Continue to monitor Recirc pump A. Do NOT trip the pump unless seal pressures
degrade further.

A

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: With upper seal cavity pressure >920 psig and Drywell pressure rising, N2-SOP-29.1 requires tripping the affected pump and then closing the suction and discharge isolation valves.

Upper seal cavity pressure <100 psig, or Upper seal cavity pressure >920 psig, or Lower seal cavity pressure >1200 psig,

AND

DFR > 1 gpm rise, or Rising Drywell Pressure

65
Q
  1. Which one of the following describes (1) the operation of the Hydrogen (H2) Recombiners and (2) an associated reason for this requirement, in accordance with N2-EOP-PCH, Hydrogen Control, and the EOP Bases?

H2 Recombiners are (1) when H2 concentration is above 5% to (2)

A. (1) only allowed to be operated
(2) prevent damage to the heater elements
B. (1) only allowed to be operated
(2) ensure an adequate reaction can be maintained
C. (1) secured
(2) prevent gas ignition or excessive reaction temperatures
D. (1) secured
(2) prevent excessive moisture buildup in the reaction chamber

A

Proposed Answer: c
Explanation: N2-EOP-PCH requires securing the H2 Recombiners when H2 concentration exceeds 5%. There are two reasons associated with this requirement: (1) eliminate a potential ignition source for a deflagration in the containment and (2) prevent excessive reaction temperatures from damaging the H2 Recombiner.

66
Q
  1. The plant is in Mode 5 with a full core offload in progress. Conditions are as follows:
  • You are the Operator At-The-Controls.
  • Manipulation of RHR Shutdown Cooling flow rate is required.

Per N2-0P-31, Residual Heat Removal, and N2-FHP-003, Refueling Manual, which one of the following correctly completes the below statement?

Total drive flow through the jet pumps must be maintained …

A. greater than 5700 gpm to maintain stable jet pump operation.
B. greater than 5700 gpm to prevent thermal stratification in the core.
C. less than 5700 gpm to maintain water visual clarity for the Refuel Bridge team.
D. less than 5700 gpm to prevent damage to instrument tubes or lifting blade guides.

A

Proposed Answer: D

Explanation: With core off load in progress, in-core instrumentation may NOT be fully
surrounded by fuel assemblies and/or blade guides. In this condition, it is required to maintain total drive flow through the jet pumps to less than 5700 gpm to prevent damage to the instrument tubes from flow induced vibration and to prevent lifting the blade guides.

67
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
  • The hottest Reactor Building temperature is 110°F and slowly rising.
  • The hottest Drywell temperature is 310°F and slowly rising.
  • Reactor pressure is 50 psig and stable.
  • There is no indication of instrument leg flashing for any RPV Level Instrument
  • The SRO has directed Reactor water level be controlled in the preferred control band given in N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control.

Which one of the following identifies the Reactor water level instrument(s) (if any) that may be used to trend Reactor water level across the entire preferred level band, in accordance with N2-EOP-RPV?

A. Wide Range, only
B. Wide Range and Narrow Range, only
C. Wide Range, Narrow Range, and Fuel Zone, only
D. No Reactor water level indications are valid across this entire level band

A

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: The given Drywell/ Reactor Building temperatures and Reactor pressure place operation in the BAD region of the RPV Saturation Temperature curve. Even though operation is in the BAD region of the RPV Saturation Temperature curve, instruments may still be used as long as indications of flashing are not present and as long as they are above the minimum indicated level. The preferred RPV level band per N2-EOP-RPV is 159.3 inches to 202.3 inches (160-200 inches). Both Wide Range and Narrow Range instruments are capable of trending over the entire 160 to 200 inch band, however, Fuel Zone would be off scale high for this band. Upset and Shutdown Range cannot be used because 160 inches is below their minimum indicated levels per N2-EOP-RPV.

68
Q
  1. Which one of the following identifies the flagging tool color used to indicate that a single input to a multiple input Control Room annunciator has been disabled, in accordance with CNG-OP-1.01-2003, Alarm Response and Control?

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Black
D. Yellow

A

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: A yellow flagging tool is used to identify a multiple input annunciator which has had one or more inputs removed from service.
A. Plausible-A red flagging tool is used for an annunciator that is completely tagged out.
B. Plausible -A blue flagging tool is used for an annunciator that is locked in or removed from service.
C. Plausible-A black flagging tool is used for an annunciator that is in for maintenance or nuisance.

***Note: This is no longer a valid procedure and the closest replacement available appears to be OP-AA-103-102 which does not use these flagging tools***

69
Q
  1. Preparations are under way for an Infrequently Plant Activity (IPA). Conditions are as follows:
  • The IPA Integrated Pre-Job Brief is about to begin.
  • One Reactor Operator (RO) who will be involved in performing the IPA is currently unavailable to attend the brief.

Which one of the following describes the requirement for briefing this RO, in accordance with HU-AA-1211?

A. The RO may be briefed separately, but this brief must occur before the RO performs in the IPA.
B. The Integrated Pre-Job Brief must be re-scheduled for when all individuals involved in the IPA can attend at the same time.
C. The RO can perform in the IPA without receiving the IPA Brief as long as they are NOT performing any critical steps.
D. The RO can perform in the IPA without receiving the IPA Brief as long as a peer-check is received from someone who was briefed.

A

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: IPAs requires an IPA Briefing. All workers involved in a job requiring a brief must be briefed before participation in the job. A worker may be granted permission to be absent from the initial brief, as long as they are briefed separately before taking part in the job. They may also participate in the brief remotely with the use of a speaker phone or other communication device.

HU-AA-1211 pg. 13

70
Q
  1. The plant has experienced an un-isolable Main Steam Line break inside the Turbine Building.

Which one of the following describes how to control Turbine Building ventilation (HVT), in accordance with N2-EOP-RR, Radioactivity Release Control?

A. Isolate HVT to minimize the release from the Turbine Building.
B. Verify HVT is operating to maintain an elevated, monitored release.
C. Isolate HVT to prevent transferring air between the Turbine Building and Reactor Building.
D. Verify HVT is operating to maintain Turbine Building pressure lower than Reactor Building pressure.

A

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: HVT is verified operating to maintain a monitored, elevated release pathway. If HVT trips or is shutdown, Turbine Building pressure will rise and radioactivity may be released through unmonitored, ground level pathways, such as building doors and cracks in walls.

71
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown. Conditions are as follows:
  • A 31 year old Operator is entering the Drywell for a job.
  • General area dose rate is 4 Rem/hr.
  • The Operator’s TEDE for the year is 1210 mRem.
  • The Operator’s lifetime exposure is 25 Rem.
  • No dose extensions have been obtained.
  • It will take 45 minutes to complete the job.

Which one of the following describes the dose gained in order to complete the job, in accordance with RP-AA-203, Exposure Control and Authorization?
The operator’s dose …

A. remains within the normal dose control level and does NOT require an extension.
B. requires an extension beyond the normal dose control level, but does NOT exceed the Exelon annual administrative limit.
C. exceeds the Exelon annual administrative limit, but NOT the Federal annual limit.
D. exceeds both the Exelon annual administrative limit and the Federal annual limit.

A

Proposed Answer: c
Explanation: The normal administrative dose control limit without any extensions is 2000 mRem TEDE, the Exelon annual administrative limit is 4000 mRem, and the Federal annual limit is 5000 mRem. The total dose the worker will have received after completing the job will be 121 0 + 4000 (45 I 60) = 4210 mRem. This will require an extension beyond the 2000 mRem dose control limit and will also exceed the Exelon annual administrative limit of 4000 mRem, but will NOT exceed the Federal annual limit of 5000 mRem.

72
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • An evolution is in progress.
  • The operator controlling the evolution identifies an alarm that will be received after the next manipulation.

Given the following statements:

(1) Alarm must be discussed with Control Room SRO before receipt of alarm.
(2) Alarm response procedure must be reviewed before or after receipt of alarm for the first time in the shift.
(3) Alarm must be specifically identified as expected in the procedure that controls the evolution.

Which one of the following identifies which of these statements are requirements to classify the alarm as an “Expected Alarm”, in accordance with OP-AA-103-102, Watch-Standing Practices?

A. ( 1) and (2) only
B. (1) and (3) only
C. (2) and (3) only
D. (1 ), (2), and (3)

A

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: The alarm must be discussed with the Control Room SRO BEFORE receipt of the alarm and the ARP must be reviewed before or after the receipt of the alarm to classify it as an “Expected Alarm” per OP-AA-103-102, pg 8

73
Q
  1. Which one of the following is indicated by an arrow-shaped pentagon (see symbol below) in the Emergency Operating Procedures, in accordance with NER-2M-039, NMP2 Emergency Operating Procedures and Severe Accident Procedures Basis Document?

A. Hold Point
B. Before Step
C. Override Step
D. Decision Point

A

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: Arrow-shaped pentagons symbolize conditions coordinating the timing of
subsequent steps. The associated actions should be performed, if possible, before the specified conditions occur.

A. Plausible - Hold points are shown as octagons.
C. Plausible- Override steps are shown as rectangles with rounded corners.
D. Plausible- Decision points are shown as diamonds.

74
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • A piece of safety-related equipment required by Technical Specifications has been out-of-service for two days for maintenance overhaul.
  • All maintenance is now complete.
  • All safety tags have been removed.
  • The equipment has been restored to a normal standby lineup per the associated Operating Procedure.
  • Post-Maintenance Testing of the equipment is about to start.

Which one of the following describes the current status of the equipment per CNG-OP-1.01-2002, Operations Shift Turnover and Relief?
The equipment is …

A. inoperable, but available.
B. non-functional, but available.
C. both inoperable and unavailable.
D. both non-functional and unavailable.

A

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: CNG-OP-1.01-2002 contains definitions for various system status designations, such as operable, available, and functional. Since the equipment has been physically restored to a normal standby lineup, it is available for use. However, operability is not restored until the equipment is tested (PMT) to ensure it meets all required design functions. Additionally, the term functional does not apply per CNG-OP-1.01-2002 because this is equipment required by Technical Specifications, and functional is used to describe non-Technical Specification required equipment.

75
Q

Given the following radiation monitors:

(1) Offgas radiation monitors
(2) Drywell area radiation monitors
(3) Main Steam Line radiation monitors
(4) Reactor Building area radiation monitors

Which one of the following identifies which radiation monitors are directly used to determine entry into N2-SOP-17, Fuel Failure?

A. (1) or (2) only
B. (1) or (3) only
C. (2) or (4) only
D. (3) or (4) only

A

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: N2-SOP-17 is entered due to either high Offgas or Main Steam Line radiation.

Drywell area rad monitors are used in determining extent of fuel damage in the E-Plan. RB area rad monitors may experience elevated readings due to fuel damage and are used to determine entry into N2-EOP-SC.