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Flashcards in 2012 NRC RO Exam Deck (75)
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1
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power when the following occurs:
  • A system piping failure in the Reactor Building Closed Loop Cooling System (CCP)
  • A trip of all operating CCP pumps has occurred

Which one of the following identifies the components which can still be cooled using the service water system following the loss of CCP?

A. Drywell Unit Coolers
B. RDS Pump Seal Coolers
C. RHS Pump Seal Coolers
D. Drywell Equipment Drain Coolers

A

Proposed Answer: C

A. Incorrect -Drywell Unit Coolers are only cooled by RBCLC or the alternate drywell cooling system

B. Incorrect -RDS Pump Seal Coolers are only cooled by RBCLC or a temporary cooling water system during shutdown, not service water

C. Correct -RHS Pump seal coolers can also be supplied with Service Water.

D. Incorrect -Drywell Equipment Drain Coolers are only cooled by RBCLC

2
Q
  1. In accordance with N2-0P-92, Neutron Monitoring, which one of the following describes the lineup for placing the IRMs controls and displays in service prior to a plant startup?

Place the IRM drawer switch to (1 )
-AND-
Place the IRM Recorders C51-R603A - D in (2) speed.

(1 ) (2)
A. STANDBY SLOW
B. STANDBY FAST
C. OPERATE SLOW
D. OPERATE FAST

A

D. Correct -OP-92 states “At H13-P606 place drawer switch to OPERATE and place C51R603A -D in FAST speed.”

3
Q
  1. The plant is operating normally at rated power when a malfunction on 2BYS*PNL201B caused the following indications:
  • System Status Light “RHR B Relay Logic power Fail” is lit.
  • Annunciator 601601 “RHR C SYSTEM INOPERABLE” alarms.
  • Annunciator 601631 “RHR B SYSTEM INOPERABLE” alarms.

Which one of the following describes the status of the RHR B and C pumps?

RHR B and C pumps ..

A. can be manually started
B. are capable of auto starting
C. are not capable of auto starting and cannot be manually started
D. will start, but only after depressing the Manual Initiation pushbutton

A

A. Correct -The malfunction on 2BYS*PNL201 B causes a loss of the Div 2 RHS Auto/Manual initiations as discussed in N2-S0P-04 Attachment 3. Loss of Div II RHS Auto/Manuallnitiations. Annunciator 601601, RHR C SYSTEM INOPERABLE, and Annunciator 601631, RHR B SYSTEM INOPERABLE, in alarm

B. Incorrect -Cannot be automatically started per N2-S0P-04, Attachment 3

C. Incorrect -RHR Band C pumps can be manually started because control power to the breakers has not been lost, (i.e. loss of 2BYS*SWG002B)

D. Incorrect -Manual Initiation pushbutton will not cause the RHR B or C pumps to start per N2-S0P-04, Attachment 3.

4
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the following conditions:

• Division III is lined up to Line 5
• An offsite power surge causes annunciator 852536,
4KV BUS NNS 017 SPLY ACB 17-2 AUTO TRIP I FTC to alarm

Which one of the following describes the plant AC bus(es) de-energized as a result of the above conditions?

A. 2ENS*SWG103 (Div. II)
B. 2ENS*SWG101 and 2ENS*SWG102 (Div I & III)
C. 2ENS*SWG101 (Div. I) and 2NNS-SWG014 (Stub Bus)
D. 2ENS*SWG103 (Div. II) and 2NNS-SWG015 (Stub Bus)

A

A. Correct -2ENS*SWG103 (Div II) -NNS-SWG017 is the normal supply for this bus via offsite power

B. Incorrect -2ENS*SWG101 and 2ENS*SWG102 (Div I & III) are normally supplied from NNS-SWG016 via offsite power

C. Incorrect -2ENS*SWG101 (Div. I) is normally supplied from NNS-SWG016 and NNSSWG014 (Stub Bus) is normally supplied from the NPS-SWG003

D. Incorrect -Although 2ENS*SWG103 (Div. II) is powered from NNS-SWG017, NNSSWG015 (Stub Bus) is normally supplied from NPS-SWG003

5
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a seismic event followed by a failure to scram. Conditions are as follows:
  • 2SLS*P1A and P1B Standby Liquid Poison (SLC) pumps are not available due to motor electric faults
  • 2SLS*MOV1A, STORAGE TANK OUTLET VLV is stuck shut and cannot be opened.

Per N2-EOP-6, which one of the following lineups will allow boron to be injected into the RPV to shutdown the reactor?

–See Attached Image–

Lineup number …
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3

A

A. Incorrect. Although injection via WCS is a method for injecting boron into the core, the SLS failure given in the question stem does not preclude using SLS B piping to also inject the boron. Plausible in that if the candidate does not know the lineup used to inject boron via the hydro pump, they may think that the failure given in the question stem precludes the use of using the B SLS pump piping to inject boron.

B. Incorrect. The SLS failure given in the question stem does precludes using SLS A piping to inject the boron. Plausible if the candidate does not know that there are two methods allowed per Attachment 16 to inject boron using the hydro pump and that the suction valve is required to be open in order to use it.

C. Correct. The SLS failure given in the question stem precludes the use of SLS A to inject boron using the hydro pump. Since SLS B is still available, boron injection can be lined up via this train. Additionally, boron injection via WCS is still available.

D. Incorrect. The storage tank outlet valve for SLS A needs to be open in order to use the SLS A train to inject born via the hydro pump. Plausible in that if the candidate does not know the hydro pump suction connection comes off downstream of the storage tank outlet valve this would be the correct answer.

6
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with GTS Train A running and aligned for containment venting via the drywell when the following occurs:
  • Drywell pressure trip unit C72-N650A fails upscale
  • 603101, RPS A DRYWELL PRESSURE HIGH TRIP annunciator alarms

Which one of the following lists (1) the GTS Train A response and (2) the GTS Train B response?

A. (1) GTS Train A will continue to run in containment vent mode via the drywell
(2) GTS Train B will remain in standby

B. (1 ) GTS Train A will continue to run in containment vent mode via the drywell
(2) GTS Train B will automatically initiate

C. (1 ) GTS Train A will continue to run, however CPS*AOV110, DRYWELL PURGE OUTLET OUTBOARD ISOL VLV closes
(2) GTS Train B will remain in standby

D. (1 ) GTS Train A will continue to run, however CPS*AOV110, DRYWELL PURGE OUTLET OUTBOARD ISOL VLV closes
(2) GTS Train B will automatically initiate

A

A. Correct -Because only one drywell trip unit failed, the primary containment vent valves only received a half isolation signal, (the vent valves are part of Group 9). The Group 9 isolation requires 2 out of 2 logic, (i.e. two drywell trip units must actuate) in order for
either the inboard or outboard containment vent valves to close. Since no isolation occurred, GTS Train A will remain running in containment vent mode. Also GTS train B only receives a half initiate signal per ARP 603101. With only a half isolation in, GTS
train B will not start.

7
Q
  1. The plant experienced a Loss Off-Site Power. The Standby Emergency Diesels automatically started.

The thermostatic control valve regulating DG lube oil temperature associated with 2EGS*EG1 has failed causing all lube oil to bypass the lube oil cooler.

Lube oil temperature will rise until. ..

A. engine failure occurs
B. the diesel trips on high vibration
C. the diesel trips on high lube oil temperature
D. the diesel trips on high main bearing temperature

A

A. Correct: -Following an emergency start all trips are bypassed except overspeed and Generator Differential Current.

8
Q
  1. The RCIC turbine is being manually started for level control after the RCIC MANUAL INITIATION pushbutton failed to operate. Conditions are as follows:
  • RPV pressure is 850 psig and stable.
  • RCIC system flow indicates 0 gpm.
  • RCIC turbine speed indicates 4500 rpm.
  • RCIC pump discharge pressure indicates 700 psig
  • ICS*MOV126, PMP 1 DISCH TO REACTOR is open

Which one of the following is the minimum pump discharge pressure needed to establish injection flow into the RPV and the action needed to achieve that pressure per N2-0P-35, Reactor Core Isolation Cooling System?

A. 860 psig by manually raising turbine speed.
B. 860 psig by raising flow controller setpoint.
C. 960 psig by manually raising turbine speed.
D. 960 psig by raising flow controller setpoint.

A

C. Correct -per N2-0P-35, Step F.3.8 Slowly raise RCIC turbine speed using the RCIC FLOW CONTROLLER in M for Manual. F.3.9 NOTE, RCIC discharge pressure of approximately 110 psig above Reactor pressure will be required to commence RPV injection.

9
Q
  1. The plant is in Mode 4 due to a forced outage. Conditions are as follows:
  • RHS B Loop is operating in Shutdown Cooling Mode
  • The plant will not go to Mode 5 during the outage
  • RHS B Heat Exchanger Service Water Outlet Temperature is 100°F and stable
  • Cooldown Rate is 95°F/hr
  • RHS*MOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1 B INLET BYPASS VLV THROTTLE is 50% open
  • NO Reactor Recirculation Pumps are in operation
  • RHR B Loop Flow is 5000 gpm

Which one of the following valve throttling manipulations is required to operate at rated system flow conditions while maintaining the current cooldown rate?

RHS*MOV40B, SOC B RETURN throttled.. ; RHS*MOV8B, HEAT EXCH. 1B INLET BYPASS VLV throttled..

A. CLOSED ; CLOSED
B. OPEN ; CLOSED
C. OPEN ; OPEN
D. CLOSED ; OPEN

A

C. Correct -With Loop Flow LOW, it is required to throttle RHS*MOV40B, SDC B RETURN THROTTLE in the OPEN direction. This will RAISE Cooldown rate. To LOWER Cooldown rate, it is required to throttle RHS*MOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1 B INLET BYPASS VLV in the OPEN direction

10
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown after a LOCA with the following conditions:
  • RPV pressure is 410 psig and lowering slowly
  • 2CSL*P1, Low Pressure Core Spray Pump has been shutdown
  • 2CSL*P2, LPCS / RHR A WTR LEG PMP has tripped on motor electric fault
  • Annunciator 601428, LPCS HIGH POINT VENT LEVEL LOW alarmed a short time after the water leg pump tripped
  • The CRS has determined that LPCS is needed for core cooling

Which of the following is correct if 2CSL*P1 is restarted under these conditions?

A. 2CSL*P1 starts but does not inject into the RPV at this pressure.
B. 2CSL*P1 starts but trips due to overcurrent from excessive flow into the RPV.
C. The discharge piping could break in the primary containment resulting in a reduction in suppression pool level.
D. The discharge piping could break resulting in Reactor Building flooding and a reduction in suppression pool level.

A

D. Correct -OP-32, P&L 5.0 states To prevent water hammer, LPCS Pump should not be manually started if annunciator 601428, LPCS HIGH POINT VENT LEVEL LOW is received. The pump is rated for a discharge flow rate of 6350 gpm at a discharge pressure of 290 psig.

11
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, when the following occurs:
  • Annunciator 603306, CRD SCRAM VALVE PILOT AIR HDR PRESS HIGH/LOW, alarmed.
  • 2IAS-TK3, RB Air Receiver pressure is 120 psig and stable.
  • Auxiliary Operator reports the Scram Air Header pressure 63 psig and stable.
  • NO control rods are drifting.

Which one of the following statements describes the action that is to be attempted to restore Scram Air Header pressure, per N2-S0P-19, Loss of Instrument Air?

A. Verify all lAS Compressors are loaded and bypass lAS Dryers
B. Swap Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves
C. Bypass Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves
D. Verify all lAS Compressors are loaded and isolate Service Air Header

A

Proposed Answer: B

A. Incorrect -This would be true for Dryer Valve malfunction
B. Correct -Per N2-S0P-19, it is required to swap Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves
C. Incorrect -This is not procedural. Scram air header is required to be filtered and regulated at 70 -75 psig
D. Incorrect -This would be true if IA Header Pressure was below 85 pSig, due to a SA Header rupture

12
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the effect of the operating Battery Room Exhaust Fan, 2HVC*FN4B tripping on overcurrent?

A. Hydrogen will build up in the battery room and the battery must be removed from service.
B. The standby fan 2HVC*FN4A will automatically start and battery operation will NOT be affected.
C. Portable ventilation for the battery room must be setup to prevent Hydrogen buildup and the battery remains in operation.
D. Hydrogen will build up in the Battery Room until the standby fan 2HVC*FN4A is manually started, the battery remains in operation.

A

B. Correct -If FN4A trips the standby fan *FN4B will auto start on *FN4A low air flow if its control switch is in the “Normal After Stop” position. There will not be buildup of Hydrogen and there is no effect on battery operation or room temperature.

13
Q
  1. The plant is in Mode 1 with a reactor shutdown in progress. Conditions are as follows:
  • Drywell de-inerting purge is in progress using GTS Train B lAW N2-0P-61A, Primary Containment Ventilation Purge and Nitrogen System
  • 2GTS*PV5B, REACTOR BLDG INLET/OUTLET DIFF PRESS CONT VLV, is in MANUAL
  • 2HVR-MOD17A and B, RX BLDG SPLY RECIRC DAMPERS are being controlled manually.
  • Reactor Building DP is -0.9” water and stable
  • Drywell pressure is 0.40 psig and slowly lowering

In this lineup, throttling closed on 2GTS*PV5B will cause Drywell pressure to _(1)_ and Reactor Building Differential Pressure to become _(2)_ ?

A. (1) lower faster
(2) less negative

B. (1) lower slower
(2) more negative

C. (1) lower slower
(2) less negative

D. (1) lower faster
(2) more negative

A

D. Correct. If 5B were throttled in the closed direction, less air would be recirculated back to the suction of the GTS train. This would result in more flow from both the RB and the Drywell. With more flow coming from the drywell, drywell pressure would lower faster. With more flow coming from the RB, then the RB would get more negative.

14
Q
  1. Which one of the following identifies the response of Uninterruptible Power Supply 2VBA*UPS2A if the normal AC feed is lost?

A. UPS2A shifts to 2BYS*SWGOO2A.
B. The normal AC shifts to 2NJS-US4 via 2VBB-TRS1.
C. The Static switch automatically transfers to 2LAC*PNL 1 OOA.
D. Transfer switch 2VBA*TRS2A automatically shifts to 2VBA*UPS2C.

A

A. Correct -On loss of normal AC UPS2A will transfer to DC via BYS*SWG002A

15
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown following a LOCA with the following conditions:
  • HPCS is aligned and injecting into the core with suction from the suppression pool.
  • RPV water level is 150 inches and slowly rising
  • 2CSH*P1, HPCS P1 injection flow is 6500 gpm and stable
  • Suppression Pool level is 192.5 feet and stable.
  • The CRS has determined that 5000 gpm is needed from HPCS to maintain adequate core cooling.

Which one of the following describes (1) the impact of operating in this condition per NER-2M039, NMP 2 EOP Bases, and (2) what action is necessary per N2-EOP-6, Attachment 29 to prevent it from happening?

A. (1) 2CSH*P1 may trip due to pump runout
(2) Secure 2CHS*P1 by placing the control switch in Pull To Lock

B. (1) 2CSH*P1 flow may noticeably degrade
(2) Secure 2CHS*P1 by placing the control switch in Pull To Lock

C. (1) 2CSH*P1 may trip due to pump runout
(2) Make 2CSH*MOV107, PMP 1 INJECTION VLV throttleable and reduce 2CSH*P1 flow to 5000 gpm

D. (1) 2CSH*P1 flow may noticeably degrade
(2) Make 2CSH*MOV107, PMP 1 INJECTION VLV throttleable and reduce 2CSH*P1 flow to 5000 gpm

A

D. Correct -Per the EOP Bases, Section 14, operating HPCS in the bad region of the vortex curve will cause HPCS capacity to noticeably degrade and since the CRS only needs 5000 gpm from HPCS, Attachment 29 directs HPCS to be made throttleable and flow reduced.

16
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a failure to scram with the following conditions:
  • N2-EOP-C4, RPV Flooding has been entered
  • 5 SRVs are open
  • RPV pressure is stable at 225 psig
  • The crew has commenced injection into the RPV using Condensate and Feed

Complete the following statement:

The reactor core (1) adequately cooled and the RO should (2) the rate of injection until RPV pressure rises above 235 psig or until the RPV has been flooded to the main steam lines.

(1) ; (2)

A. IS NOT ; LOWER
B. IS ; LOWER
C. IS NOT ; RAISE
D. IS ; RAISE

A

C. Correct -The core IS NOT adequately cooled and the RO should RAISE injection flow to cause pressure to rise above the MSCP.

17
Q
  1. A reactor startup is in progress. While withdrawing rods to raise reactor power, the following annunciator alarms:

• 603216, SRM DETECTOR POSITION ABNORMAL

Which one of the following is correct with regard to this annunciator?

At least one SRM is indicating …..

A. <3 cps with its detector not full in. A rod withdrawal block will be generated if IRMs are on range 2 or below.
B. <3 cps with its detector not full in. A rod withdrawal block will be generated if IRMs are on range 7 or below.
C. <100 cps with its detector not full in. A rod withdrawal block will be generated if IRMs are on range 2 or below.
D. <100 cps with its detector not full in. A rod withdrawal block will be generated if IRMs are on range 7 or below.

A

C. Correct. Anytime an SRM reads <100 cps and its detector is not full in, 603216 will annunciate. A rod withdrawal block will be initiating if IRMS are on rage 2 or below, (i.e. bypassed if IRMS are on range 3 or above)

B. Incorrect. Plausible in that <3 cps is the SRM DOWNSCALE ALARM which will generate a rod block and the SRM UPSCALE alarm will generate a rod block if IRMs are on range 7 or below

18
Q
  1. Following an AUTOMATIC initiation of the Automatic Depressurization System (ADS), the following conditions exist:
  • ALL Low Pressure ECCS Pumps have been TRIPPED due to Suction Strainer clogging.
  • 2CSH*P1, HPCS PMP 1 is running and injecting into the core.
  • RPV Water Level is 30 inches and RISING.

What is the status of the ADS Safety Relief Valves (SRVs)?

ADS SRVs …
A. remain OPEN due to a logic seal-in
B. have SHUT due to recovering RPV Water Level
C. have SHUT due to loss of ECCS Pump permissives
D. remain OPEN because an ECCS Pump is providing a permissive signal

A

A. Correct -Initially, LP ECCS Pumps were RUNNING. Manual Initiation switches energize K6A Initiation Relay AND K8A Seal In Relay. When K8A is energized, it seals itself in by closing a contact above the Seal In Reset pushbutton in the diagram. ADS Valves REMAIN OPEN, even if LP ECCS Pump permissives are subsequently LOST.

19
Q
  1. The plant was operating at 100% power when a plant transient occurred. Conditions are as follows:

• Indications on the Average Power Range Monitor Chassis for APRMs 1 through 4 have “OPRM” displayed in inverse video.

Which one of the following conditions is indicated by these displays?

Reactor power is greater than or equal to 23% _(1)_ core flow is less than or equal to 75%.
OPRM trips and alarm setpoints are _(2)_

A. (1)OR
(2) ENABLED

B. (1) AND
(2)ENABLED

C. (1) OR
(2) NOT ENABLED

D. (1) AND
(2) NOT ENABLED

A

B. Correct -With OPRM displayed in inverse video, power must be greater than or equal to 23% AND core flow must be less than or equal to 75%. Also, when OPRM is displayed, this indicates that the OPRM trips and setpoints are ENABLED

20
Q
  1. A reactor startup is in progress with power at 4%. Conditions are as follows:
  • IRM B failed upscale causing a half scram on the B side
  • IRM B has been bypassed
  • The RO is in the process of resetting the half scram on the B side

Which one of the following lists the minimum number of switches that must be placed in RESET in order to reenergize the RPS B PILOT SCRAM VALVE SOLENOID white lights?

A. Only REACTOR SCRAM RESET LOGIC B
B. Only REACTOR SCRAM RESET LOGIC D
C. Both REACTOR SCRAM RESET LOGIC A and B
D. Both REACTOR SCRAM RESET LOGIC B and D

A

A. Correct. IRM B trips only the B1 logic. Since Scram Reset Logic Switch B resets the B1 Logic, then the RO is only required to place the B switch in reset in order to reset the RPS B logic and energize the RPS B white solenoid lights.

21
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% when the following occurs:

• Loop A Feed Flow Transmitter 2FWS-FT1A fails downscale

With NO operator actions, which one of the following will result first, and what actions are required?

A. RPV Water Level will LOWER until reaching Level 3, and actions will be required per N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control
B. RPV Water Level will RISE until reaching Level 8, and actions will be required per N2SOP-1 01 C, Reactor Scram
C. RPV Water Level will RISE and stabilize below Level 8, and actions will be required per N2-S0P-06, Feedwater Failures
D. BOTH Reactor Recirculation Pumps will DOWNSHIFT, and actions will be required per N2-S0P-08, Unplanned Power Change

A

B. Correct -“full power” implies Three Element Auto control. When ONE Feedwater Flow Input FAILS LOW, FLCS will increase Feedwater Flow until RPV Water Level 8 is reached. L8 causes a Main Turbine and RFP Trips, which causes a scram requiring N2SOP-101C entry

22
Q
  1. 2VBB-UPS1 B is in service with the TRANSFER CONTROL SWITCH in MANUAL RESTART when a temporary overload occurs and then clears.

Which one of the following describes (1) how 2VBB-UPS1 B loads are powered AFTER this event AND (2) what actions are required to restore a normal lineup per N2-0P-71 D?

A. (1) 2NJS-US6
(2) Manually transfer to the normal supply at panel 2VBB-PNL301.

B. (1) 2NJS-US4
(2) Manually transfer to the normal supply at the UPS, 2VBB-UPS1 B.

C. (1) 2NJS-US6
(2) Place the TRANSFER CONTROL SWITCH at 2VBB-UPS1B to AUTO RESTART.

D. (1) 2NJS-US4
(2) Place the TRANSFER CONTROL SWITCH at 2VBB-PNL301 to AUTO RESTART.

A

C. Correct -When the transfer control switch in manual restart, once the UPS transfers to maintenance it will remain there until manually transferred back to the normal AC. The temporary overload condition would cause the UPS to transfer to maintenance and it would remain there after the condition cleared because the transfer control switch is in manual restart. The UPS must be manually transferred back to its normal supply 2NJSUS6 at the UPS.

23
Q
  1. The plant is starting up following an outage when the following indications are observed for SRM A after withdrawing a control rod:
    - see picture

Which one of the following actions is required to continue the startup?

A. Bypass SRM A Channel to clear the INOP condition
B. Retract SRM A Detector to clear the UPSC condition
C. Wait until ALL IRMs are on Range 8, THEN retract SRM Detector to clear the UPSC condition
D. Wait until ALL IRMs are on Range 3, THEN verify the Control Rod Out Block automatically clears

A

B. Correct -Upscale Alarm condition is indicated by light status. With a startup in progress, SRMs are required to be maintained on scale by retracting detectors

24
Q
  1. During a reactor startup the following conditions exist:
  • IRM channel “E” is on Range 1 and is reading 10 on the 0-40 scale.
  • Control rod withdrawal has the reactor on a stable 100 sec period.

3 minutes later, which one of the following will be the IRM “E” indication if the RO correctly moves the IRM range switches?

Power{CPS} ; IRM Scale ; IRM Range

A. 10 ; 40 ; Range 5
B. 33 ; 125 ; Range 4
C. 30 ; 40 ; Range 3
D. 60 ; 125 ; Range 2

A

D. Correct -A reactor period of 100 seconds will result in power rising by 60.496 which is equivalent to 60 on IRM range 2. (p=po T/f 10 x e(180/100) = 60.496) or Reactor Period (1.44 x Doubling Time)

25
Q
  1. Given the following:
  • The main turbine has tripped and reactor pressure has increased above the scram setpoint.
  • Approximately one third of the control rods remain fully withdrawn.
  • MSIV’s remain open and several SRV’s are cycling.

N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram directs that SRVs be manually opened until RPV pressure drops to a certain pressure.
Which ONE of the following identifies (1) this pressure and (2) the basis for performing this action per NER-2M-039, NMP EOP Bases?

A. (1) 800 psig
(2) Prevent automatic closure of the MSIV’s

B. (1) 800 psig
(2) Maintain Turbine Bypass Valves open

C. (1) 970 psig
(2) Prevent automatic closure of the MSIV’s

D. (1) 970 psig
(2) Maintain Turbine Bypass Valves open

A

D. Correct -970 psig is the pressure at which bypass valves should be full open reducing below this pressure will cause them to close

26
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power when the following indications are observed for the Standby Liquid Control System on 2CEC*PNL601:
    - see attached picture

Which one of the following is correct if the Standby Liquid Poison (SLS) system receives a valid Division 1 and 2 RRCS initiation signal?

A. Division 1 SLS Squib valve will not fire. Total boron injection flowrate into the RPV will be approximately 44 gpm.
B. Division 2 SLS Squib valve will not fire. Total boron injection flowrate into the RPV will be approximately 44 gpm.
C. Division 1 SLS Squib Valve will not fire. Total boron injection flowrate into the RPV will be approximately 88 gpm.
D. Division 2 SLS Squib valve will not fire. Total boron injection flowrate into the RPV will be approximately 88 gpm.

A

D. Correct. With the squib continuity light out on the Division 2 squib, the squib will not fire. Even though the Division 2 squib does not fire, because the Division 1 and 2 SLS pumps are cross connected up stream of their associated squib valves, full flow (88 gpm), will be achieved into the reactor vessel through the Division 1 squib valve.

Incorrect. Plausible in that if this were the Traversing In-Core Probe Containment Isolation Squib, then the squib light would be on to indicate a loss of continuity. The candidate has to remember that the Standby Liquid Control squib and the Traversing Incore Probe squib are opposite with regards to the squib continuity light. Additionally, the candidate will have to remember that the SLS pumps are cross connected upstream of the squib valves and not downstream. If the candidate thought the pump were cross connected downstream, then 44 gpm would be the flowrate going into the RPV.

27
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power when the scram inlet valve for a control rod at position 24 opens.

Which one of the following identifies (1) the response of reactor power and the (2) scram discharge volume (SDV) level to this event?

A. (1) Rises
(2) Rises
B. (1) Rises
(2) Stays the same
C. (1) Lowers
(2) Rises
D. (1) Lowers
(2) Stays the same

A

D. Correct -opening of the scram inlet valve will cause the control rod to partially drift in, resulting in a drop in reactor power. Although the rod will be prohibited from fully inserting due to potential mechanism damage, the rod will still partially insert causing reactor power to lower. Because the scram outlet valve did not open, SDV level remains the same

28
Q
  1. With the plant operating at full power, a loss of power from 2VBB-UPS3A occurs.

Which one of the following describes the impact of this power loss on the Rod Block Monitor and Average Power Range Monitors?

A. APRM Channels 1 and 2 are de-energized and produce an RPS A half scram. RBM Channel A loses power and causes a rod block.

B. APRM Channels 3 and 4 are de-energized and produce an RPS B half scram. RBM Channel B loses power and causes a rod block.

C. APRM Channels 1 and 2 lose a power source, but remain energized. Loss of power to a 2/4 Logic Module produces an RPS A half scram. RBM Channel A loses a power source but remains energized.

D. APRM Channels 3 and 4 lose a power source, but remain energized. Loss of power to a 2/4 Logic Module produces an RPS B half scram. RBM Channel B loses a power source but remains energized.

A

C. Correct -APRMs and RBMs are powered from Quadruple Low Voltage Power Supplies with redundant supply sources. Loss of 2VBB-UPS3A removes one of two inputs of power to QLVPS, and a loss of power to the 2/4 Logic Module which produces an RPS
A Half Scram

29
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown following a LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
  • Suppression Pool Water Level is 233 feet
  • Suppression chamber pressure is 5 psig and stable

Which one of the following correctly completes the following statement?

If RHS A were placed in suppression chamber spray,

A. suppression chamber pressure would not be affected because the suppression chamber spray ring is submerged.
B. suppression chamber and drywell pressure would lower at the same rate because the pressure suppression function of the primary containment has been lost.
C. the primary containment could potentially reach its design negative pressure capability of -4.7 psig because the drywell to suppression chamber vacuum breaker openings are submerged.
D. the drywell floor could potentially reach its design upward floor differential pressure of 10 psid because the drywell to suppression chamber vacuum breaker openings are submerged.

A

A. Correct. The suppression chamber spray rings are at elevation 231 feet. Per NER-2M039 (page 5-17), with the spray nozzles submerged, there will be no spraying action and suppression chamber pressure would be unaffected.

30
Q
  1. A reactor shutdown is in progress. An operator is attempting to move rod 02-35 from position 26 to position 24 using single notch movement when the following occurs:
  • Rod 02-35 triple notches to position 20
  • Troubleshooting has determined the directional control valves, (DCV) on HCU 02-35 malfunctioned.

Which ONE of the following directional control valve failures could have caused rod 02-35 to triple notch?

Note:
• SOV-120 is Withdraw, Exhaust, and Settle DCV
• SOV-121 is Insert Exhaust DCV
• SOV-122 is Withdraw Supply DCV
• SOV-123 is Insert Supply DCV

A. SOV-121 and SOV-123 shut earlier than required during the DCV insert sequence.
B. SOV-120 and SOV-122 shut earlier than required during the DCV insert sequence.
C. SOV-121 and SOV-123 stayed open longer than required during the DCV insert sequence.
D. SOV-120 and SOV-122 stayed open longer than required during the DCV insert sequence.

A

C. Correct. With 121 and 123 staying open longer, drive flow is applied to the insert side of the CRDM causing the rod to continue to move in.

31
Q
  1. The reactor was MANUALLY scrammed from rated power due to a trip of BOTH Recirc pumps. Conditions are as follows:
  • Reactor pressure is 800 psig and lowering
  • Reactor water level is 150 inches and stable
  • Neither Recirc pump is running

Which one of the following is a concern per N2-S0P-29?

A. A Group 1 isolation will occur if RPV pressure lowers less than 766 psig
B. The loss of control rod drive cooling water flow may damage the control rod drives
C. Vessel stratification causing excessive cooldown of the bottom head
D. Excessive cooldown of the Recirc loops resulting in exceeding the Dome to Recirc loop differential temperature limitation

A

C. Correct: Per N2-S0P-29, Attachment 1, Recovering from Sudden Reduction in Recirc Flow, page 4 of 6, the concern is excessive cooldown of the bottom head. One of the corrective actions provided is to reset the scram which will reduce the cooldown of the bottom head

32
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown following a stuck open SRV. Conditions are as follows:
  • RHS Pump “A” is in service in for suppression pool cooling
  • RHS Pump “B” is aligned for shutdown cooling
  • Both RHS Pump “An Room Unit Coolers have tripped
  • Annunciator 601456, RHR PUMP ROOM A/B TEMPERATURE HIGH is in alarm
  • Annunciator 601457, RHR PUMP ROOM A/B TEMPERATURE HI-HI alarms

Which one of the following automatic actions will occur and how will the suppression pool cooling lineup and/or shutdown cooling lineup be affected?

A. This is an alarm condition only and no pump trips or valve lineup changes will occur.
B. A Group 5 isolation will occur but the suppression pool cooling lineup will NOT be affected.
C. A Group 5 isolation will occur and RHS Pump “A” will trip but no valves will change position.
D. Suppression Pool Cooling Valve 2RHS*FV38A will close and RHS Pump “A” will continue to run on minimum flow.

A

B. Correct -Annunciator 601457, RHR PUMP ROOM AlB TEMPERATURE HI-HI is synonymous with a Group 5 isolation, however this only affects the shutdown cooling lineup and will NOT affect the suppression pool cooling lineup.

33
Q
  1. Regarding the Spent Fuel Pool Cooling (SFC) system, complete the following statements:

During a LOCA the OPERATING SFC Pump will (1)
During a simultaneous LOOP/LOCA the OPERATING SFC Pump will (2)

A. (1) continue running
(2) trip but automatically starts after 70 seconds
B. (1) continue running
(2) trip but can be manually started after 70 seconds
C. (1) trip but can be manually started after 70 seconds
(2) trip but automatically starts after 70 seconds
D. (1) trip but can be manually started after 70 seconds
(2) trip but can be manually started after 70 seconds

A

B. Correct: On a LOCA, the running Pump will continue to run but a Pump cannot be started or restarted during the first 70 seconds after receipt of the LOCA signal. If a LOOP/LOCA occurs the running Pumps will trip. A Pump may be manually restarted after 70 seconds using N2-S0P-03.

34
Q
  1. One zone of Relay Room Underfloor Area fire detection is inoperable and has been placed in Alarm Only at 2CEC*PNL849. This area is protected by cross zone detection.

Which one of the following identifies the impact of this failure if an actual fire occurs in the room?

The remaining zone will ___

A. ONLY actuate control room alarms. Fire suppression must be manually actuated.
B. actuate local AND control room alarms. Fire suppression must be manually actuated.
C. ONLY actuate control room alarms. Fire suppression will be automatically actuated.
D. actuate local AND control room alarms. Fire suppression will be automatically actuated.

A

B. Correct -per N2-0P-47, Section B, page 8 (system description), If a fire occurs in a zone and the fire is determined to be an actual fire but the zone is in Alarm Only, the suppressant may be discharged manually form the control room or locally

35
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown following a LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
  • HPCS system is not injecting
  • Indicated RPV level is -50 inches
  • RPV pressure is 600 psig

Which one of the following correctly completes the following statement?

Actual RPV water level is __(1)__the Top of Active Fuel and the core is being cooled using __(2)__.

-See attached picture

A. (1) ABOVE
(2) boiling heat transfer only
B. (1) ABOVE
(2) boiling heat transfer AND steam flow
C. (1) BELOW
(2) steam flow only
D. (1) BELOW
(2) boiling heat transfer AND steam flow

A

D. Correct. When plotting on the graph, actual water level lies between the TAF and the IVISCWL. When operating in this region, the method of ACC is submergence for the covered portion of the core and steam cooling for the uncovered portion of the core.

36
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress. Conditions are as follows:
  • RPV pressure is 500 psig
  • Annunciator 603139, REACTOR WATER LEVEL HIGH/LOW alarms
  • RPV water level is 178” and slowly lowering Per ARP 603139,

What actions are required to restore reactor water level to the normal band?

A. Reduce WCS reject flow by closing WCS-FV135.
B. Start a second RDS pump and maximize CRD flow.
C. Enter N2-S0P-06, Feedwater Failures. Start a feed pump and take manual control of 2FWS-LV10B to restore level.
D. Enter N2-S0P-06, Feedwater Failures. Start a feed pump and take manual control of 2FWS-L V55B to restore level.

A

A. Correct -lAW ARP 603139, Do not enter SOP-06 when below 900 psig. WCS reject flow must be reduced by closing WCS*FV135 to stop rejecting to the condenser or radwaste.

37
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 85% power, with the following:
  • 7 Condensate Demins are in service and 2 are in standby
  • Fourth Point Heater Drain Pump ‘A’ trips on electrical fault

Which one of the following describes the effect on the Condensate Demineralizer differential pressure (D/P) and the required actions?

A. D/P lowers, remove Demineralizers as necessary
B. D/P rises, open Condensate Demineralizer Bypass Valve
C. D/P rises, place in service standby Demineralizers as necessary
D. D/P lowers, verify closed Condensate Demineralizer Bypass Valve

A

C. Correct -With the plant at power, approximately 2/3 of the total Feedwater system flow passes through the deep bed demineralizers. The additional 113 of total Feedwater system flow is provided by the Fourth Point Heater drain flow, which enters the Condensate system downstream of the demineralizers. Based on the loss of the pumping forward by one heater drain pump. Condensate System Flow rises and causes a higher demineralizer DIP and a drop in Booster Pump Suction pressure. Placing
additional demineralizers in service will restore system DIP.

38
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power with LPRM calibration in progress. Conditions are as follows:
  • Traversing Incore Probe System B (TIP B) is being used in the MANUAL Mode
  • The TIP neutron detector probe is being inserted and has just reached the bottom core limit

Then …

A LOCA causes drywell pressure to rise to 5 psig.

Which one of the following describes how the TIP B system will respond to the high drywell condition?

A. TIP B automatically reverses direction and retracts into the shielded chamber The TIP indexer nitrogen purge valve will automatically close.

B. TIP B automatically reverses direction and retracts into the shielded chamber The TIP indexer nitrogen purge valve will stay open but may be manually closed if necessary.

C. TIP B continues inserting into the core Manual action is required to retract TIP B into the shielded chamber The TIP indexer nitrogen purge valve will automatically close

D. TIP B continues inserting into the core Manual action is required to retract TIP B into the shielded chamber The TIP indexer nitrogen purge valve will stay open but may be manually closed if necessary.

A

A. Correct. The TIP system responds to a Group 3 isolation signal, (high drywell, level 2) signal. When a Group 3 isolation signal is received, any TIP probe inserted past its shielded chamber will automatically shift to reverse and fully retract back to its shielded chamber. The nitrogen purge valve will also automatically close.

The TIP will be in fast speed until it reaches the indexer, then will shift to slow.

39
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a FAILURE TO SCRAM. Conditions are as follows:
  • RPV pressure is stable at 900 psig
  • Standby Liquid Control has not yet been initiated.
  • The CRS has given the order to cooldown to cold shutdown conditions.

While cooling down the following is observed when pressure reaches 500 psig:

  • Power on IRMs and SRMs begins to rise
  • Period indication is 100 seconds

Which one of the following is required by N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram?
Stop the cooldown and ….

A. STABILIZE pressure at 500 psig.
B. RAISE pressure back to 900 psig and STABILIZE.
C. INITIATE standby liquid control. Once the reactor becomes subcritical then continue the cooldown.
D. INITIATE standby liquid control. Once the SLS tank drops to <2000 gallons, continue the cooldown.

A

A. Correct. Per N2-EOP-C5, if the reactor goes critical during cooldown, then pressure must be stabilized below 1052 psig. The EOP bases state that stabilizing pressure would be to pick a value close to the initial value but below the SCRAM setpoint. Since initial RPV pressure at the time of criticality is 500 psig, then stabilizing at 500 pSig would be appropriate.

40
Q
  1. The plant was at 18% power when a FWLC failure caused RPV level to lower and a Recirc Flow Control Valve Runback occurred. Conditions are as follows:
  • Power is at 15%
  • Core flow is at 19.5 Mlbs/hr

Per N2-S0P-29, Sudden Reduction in Core Flow, which one of the following actions is REQUIRED to be done first?

A. INSERT the first four CRAM rods
B. PLACE the mode switch in shutdown
C. MONITOR for core oscillations and SHIFT APRM recorders to fast speed
D. TAKE manual control of FWLC and RAISE RPV water level to reset the runback

A

B. Correct. Plotting the power and core flow on the two loop power to flow map shows they are to the left of the Natural Circ Line, (Scram Region). N2-S0P-29 requires the reactor to be scrammed if the plant is operating in the Scram Region.

41
Q
  1. The reactor was operating at 100% when a manual scram was initiated. 30 seconds later, the following indications are observed on a portion of the Full Core Display:
    - see attached picture

Assuming all other indications not shown for the Full Core Display have normal scram indications, which one of the following is correct?
Before the scram …

A. Rod 34-23 was at position 00 and is now full in. Entry into N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram will not be required.
B. Rod 34-27 was at a position greater than position 00, but is now full in. Entry into N2EOP-C5, Failure to Scram will eventually be required.
C. Rod 38-23 was at a position greater than position 00 but it did not move and is now stuck at its pre-scram position. Entry into N2-EOP-CS, Failure to Scram will eventually be required.
D. Rod 38-27 was at a position greater than position 00, but is now is stuck after partially inserting. Entry into N2-EOP-CS, Failure to Scram will eventually be required.

A

A. Incorrect. Because both rod 38-23 and 38-27 are not fully in, then more than one rod is not full in which requires entry into N2-EOP-CS.

B. Incorrect. Since the RED drift light is not on for rod 34-27, this means that the rod did not move past an odd reed switch. Since the full in light is on, this means the rod was at position 00 before the scram happened.

C. Incorrect. Since the RED drift light is on for 38-23, this means that the rod inserted at least a half a notch (enough to pick up an odd reed switch). If the rod was stuck at its prescram position, then the RED drift light would not be on.

D. Correct. With the RED drift light in and the GREEN full in light not in, the rod is stuck after partially inserting. If the rod had not moved, then the RED drift light would not be in. Because both rod 38-23 and 38-27 are not fully in, then more than one rod is not full in which requires entry into N2-EOP-CS.

42
Q
  1. The main generator is synchronized to the grid. A grid disturbance results in a rapid drop in generator load.

The Power Load Unbalance Circuit will initiate a Turbine Control Valve Fast Closure if the unbalance is at LEAST __(1)__.

This will cause a reactor scram if reactor power is at LEAST __(2)__ as indicated by turbine 1st stage pressure.

A. (1 ) 30%
(2) 21%
B. (1) 30%
(2) 26%
C. (1 ) 40%
(2) 21%
D. (1 ) 40%
(2) 26%

A

D. Correct: The Power Load Unbalance circuit requires at least a 40% difference. The Fast Closure scram is bypassed at 26% power as sensed by turbine 1st stage pressure.

43
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% when a loss of all Turbine Building Closed Loop Cooling (CCS) Pumps occurs.

With no operator actions, which one of the following is correct with regards to this condition?

A. Loss of CCS to the stator water coolers will cause a generator runback. The turbine will trip after 2 minutes. The turbine trip will be the direct cause of the reactor scram.

B. Loss of CCS to the stator water coolers will cause a generator run back. RPV pressure will rise until it reaches its RPS setpoint. RPV pressure will be the direct cause of the reactor scram.

C. Loss of CCS to the Main Turbine Lube Oil Coolers will cause high vibration in the main turbine. When vibration levels reach >12 mils, the turbine will automatically trip. The turbine trip will be the direct cause of the reactor scram.

D. Loss of CCS to the Main Turbine Electrohydraulic Control (EHC) coolers will cause a high EHC temperature turbine trip. The turbine trip will cause RPV to rise to its RPS setpoint. RPV pressure will be the direct cause of the reactor scram.

A

B. Correct. The generator runback will cause all 5 turbine bypass valves to open. Once all 5 bypass valves are open, RPV pressure will rise until it reaches its RPS scram setpoint. This a” happens before the turbine trips.

44
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown following a LOCA. Conditions are as follows:

• RHS A and B are in suppression pool cooling
• Flow in RHS A and B systems are both at 7450 gpm with all flow going through the RHS heat exchangers
• The Service Water system is aligned for maximum flow through the RHS heat
exchangers
• The CRS has determined suppression chamber sprays are needed and suppression pool cooling is still needed from both RHS systems.

Regarding the above:
(1) Per the Unit 2 Technical Specification Bases, how many RHS loops are required to be in Suppression Chamber Spray mode in order to compensate for potential steam bypass leakage into the Suppression Chamber
AND
(2) How will this impact the amount of heat removed from the Suppression Pool if Suppression Chamber Spray is initiated lAW EOP-6 Attachment 22, Containment Sprays?

A. (1) One loop
(2) Amount of heat removed lowers
B. (1) Two Loops
(2) Amount of heat removed lowers
C. (1) One loop
(2) Amount of heat removed is approximately the same
D. (1) Two Loops
(2) Amount of heat removed is approximately the same

A

C. Correct: Per Tech Spec Bases B 3.6.2.4, in the event of a DBA, a minimum of one RHR suppression pool spray subsystem is required to mitigate potential bypass leakage paths and maintain the primary containment peak pressure below the design limits. If suppression chamber spray is initiated while in suppression pool cooling, then the flow rate through the heat exchanger remains the same. That is, after spray is initiated, flow through the heat exchanger is adjusted to 7450 gpm which is the flow rate while in suppression pool cooling.

45
Q
  1. Following a fire in the main control room, N2-S0P-78 Control Room Evacuation directs that the Appendix R Disconnect switches be placed in the ACTUATE position

When placed in ACTUATE, these switches …

A. install separate auto isolation circuits to ensure that fire damage will prevent required system isolations.
B. install separate auto initiation circuits to ensure that fire damage will prevent automatic ECCS system initiations.
C. prevent the spurious actuation of safety-related equipment required for safe shutdown that could result from automatic signals generated from a damaged control and/or relay room.
D. disable control room controls for ALL systems not operated from the Remote Shutdown Panel so that fire induced circuit faults associated with these controls will not complicate efforts in stabilizing plant operation.

A

C. Correct: One of the functions of the appendix R disconnect switches is to prevent spurious actuation of safety systems needed to safely shutdown and cooldown the reactor.

46
Q
  1. Given the following:
  • A plant startup is in progress
  • Reactor power is 26%
  • Power ascension is on hold while engineering investigates a main generator winding issue
  • The Load Limit has been lowered to limit generator load to 250 MWE
  • The LOAD LIMIT LIMITING light is illuminated
  • The MAXIMUM COMBINED FLOW LIMIT is set to control at 115%

Then …

• A failure associated with Recirc Flow Control causes reactor power to rise by 10%.

Which one of the following is correct regarding the response of the Electrohydraulic Control System?

A. The control valves will not open any further. The bypass valves will open as required to control pressure.
B. The control valves will not open any further and the bypass valves will not open. The reactor will scram on high pressure.
C. Pressure will rise until the backup pressure regulator takes control and stabilizes pressure by opening the bypass valves.
D. The control valves will open an additional amount until the 250 MWE Load Limit is reached. The bypass valves will then open as required to control pressure.

A

A. Correct: The control valves are already at their opening limit as evidenced by the Load Limit Limiting light being illuminated and will not open any further. Since the control valves cannot open the system will open the bypass valves to control the pressure rise. A 10% power rise is within the capability of the bypass valves.

B. Incorrect: Although the load limit limits the control valves from opening it will not impact the bypass valves. Since the Max Combined Flow Limit is set to control at 115%, the bypass valves will open.

47
Q
  1. The plant is at rated power. Conditions are as follows:

• An air line break causes Instrument Air pressure to lower to 82 psig.

Which of the following actions will have automatically occurred in an attempt to maintain air pressure?

Action 1: Lag compressor starts

Action 2: Backup compressor starts

Action 3: In-service Air Dryer swaps towers

Action 4: 2IAS-AOV171, service air isolation valve closes

A. Actions 1, 3 and 4 only
B. Actions 1, 2 and 3 only
C. Actions 1, 2 and 4 only
D. Actions 1,2,3 and 4

A

C. Correct: The lag compressor starts at 100 psig and lowering. The Backup air compressor starts and the service air isolates when pressure lowers to 85 psig.

48
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown following a LOCA. Conditions are as follows
  • Drywell sprays were initiated when drywell temperature exceeded 250 degrees
  • Drywell temperature and pressure are now lowering

lAW N2-EOP-PC, drywell sprays are REQUIRED to be secured .. ,

A. before drywell pressure lowers to zero psig.
B. before the suppression chamber to drywell vacuum breakers lift.
C. when primary containment pressure goes negative relative to the secondary containment.
D. when drywell temperature and pressure lower to the BAD region of the Drywell Spray Initiation Limit curve.

A

A. Correct: Per the NMP2 EOP Bases document: The operation of drywell sprays must be terminated by the time pressure decreases to 0 psig in the drywell to ensure that primary containment pressure is not reduced below atmospheric. Maintaining a positive pressure provides a positive margin to the negative design pressure of the primary containment (-4.7 psig). This action is directed by step N2-EOP-PC, DWT-4.

49
Q
  1. The plant is in Mode 4 with RHS B aligned for shutdown cooling. Conditions are as follows:

• A loss of electrical power to Division I caused a reduction in service water flow to RHS Heat Exchanger B.

Per N2-0P-31 RESIDUAL HEAT REMOVAL SYSTEM. what is the MAXIMUM allowed RHS Heat Exchanger service water outlet temperature under these conditions?

A. 130 F
B. 148 F
C. Within 100 F of REACTOR water temperature
D. Within 100 F of Heat Exchanger service water INLET temperature

A

A. Correct: lAW N2-0P-31. Precautions and Limitations number 1.0, this is the maximum allowed RHR HX service water outlet temperature. This temperature limit is due to pipe design limits of the Service Water system.

50
Q
  1. Given the following:
  • A plant transient has occurred requiring entry into the EOPs
  • RHS Pump 8 and C are the ONLY ECCS pumps running
  • EOPs require that an RPV blowdown be executed. Just prior to the blowdown, a complete loss of Division II 125 VDC occurs.

The ADS Valves can be opened by:

1 - Energizing their “A” solenoids by placing the keylock switches on panel PNL 628 to the OPEN position
2 - Energizing their “B” solenoids by placing the keylock switches on panel PNL 631 to the OPEN position
3- Arming and depressing ADS Logic Channels “A” and “E” pushbuttons on PNL 601
4 - Arming and depressing ADS Logic Channels “B” and “F” pushbuttons on PNL 601

A. Only 1
8. Only 1 or 3
C. Only 1, 2, or 3
D. Only 1, 2, or4

A

A. Correct. With loss of Division II DC power, the B solenoids do not have power to open. Since the only running pumps are in Division II, the ADS push buttons on P601 for Division I will not work. The only remaining method is the keylock switches on P628.

51
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA. The following conditions exist
  • Drywell Temperature is 310°F
  • RPV Pressure is 50 psig
  • ECCS Systems are injecting into the RPV
  • Wide Range RPV water level is 30 inches and steadily rising
  • Fuel Zone instruments read upscale

-see attached picture

Which one of the following describes the current requirement regarding entry into RPV Flooding EOP and why?

A. RPV Flooding must be entered because parameters are in the BAD region of RPV Saturation Temperature curve and reference leg flashing IS occurring.
B. RPV Flooding must be entered because parameters are in the BAD region of RPV Saturation Temperature curve even though reference leg flashing IS NOT occurring.
C. RPV Flooding entry is NOT required because water level readings are above Minimum Indicated Level values even though reference leg flashing IS occurring.
D. RPV Flooding entry is NOT required because water level readings are above Minimum Indicated Level values and reference leg flashing IS NOT occurring.

A

D. Correct -Conditions are above DETAIL A’s Saturation Temperature Curve of EOP-PC and RPV. Although elevated DWT and low RPV pressure can result in flashing there is no evidence of flashing on the Wide Range instruments. The Caution states that Level instruments can only be used if “there is NO evidence of instrument leg flashing AND the instrument reads above the Minimum Indicated Level (Table C). Since there is NO evidence that instrument leg boiling is taking place on the Wide Range and Wide Range level is above the minimum indicated value of 25 inches, level can be determined.

52
Q
  1. The plant is in Mode 5 performing a reactor cavity drain down lAW N2-PM-082, RPV Flood Up / Draindown.

Which one of the following will occur if the drain down is terminated 2 feet below the reactor flange?

A. Exposure of the moisture separator which results in high radiation levels on the refuel floor.
B. Exposure of the steam dryer which results in higher radiation levels and potential high airborne activity.
C. Loss of minimum reactor level above the fuel which results in high radiation levels on the refuel floor.
D. Loss of reference leg for the shutdown level indication which results in a loss of Control Room level indication.

A

B Correct: Inadequate monitoring of RPV level while performing drain down may result in exposing the steam dryer resulting in higher radiation levels and high airborne activity. During a 2002 event at the Fitzpatrick plant, cavity level was lowered approximately 20 inches below the target level (top of RPV Flange). This exposed about 12 inches of the highly contaminated RPV Steam Dryer to the atmosphere for about 17 minutes and resulted in high radiation levels and contamination in parts of the reactor building.

53
Q
  1. The plant is operating at rated power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Stack WRGMS radiation reading is normal
  • Vent WRGMS radiation reading is higher than normal

Which one of the following identifies the possible release source?

A. Standby Gas Treatment fan discharge.
B. Main Steam Tunnel Ventilation exhaust.
C. Above Refuel Floor Ventilation exhaust.
D. Mechanical Vacuum Pump discharge.

A

C. Correct -the Above Refuel Floor Ventilation exhaust discharges to the Reactor/Radwaste Building Vent Stack.

54
Q
  1. The plant was at rated power when a seismic event occurred. Conditions are as follows:
  • The reactor is shutdown following a suppression pool leak.
  • Annunciator 601550, SUPPRESSION POOL WATER TEMP HIGH/HIGH is in alarm
  • Suppression pool water temperature as indicated on 2CEC*PNL601 is reading 105°F
  • Suppression pool water level as indicated on 2CEC*PNL601 is reading 196 feet and stable
  • No low pressure ECCS pumps are running

Which one of the following correctly identifies the validity of the SUPPRESSION POOL WATER TEMPER HIGH/HIGH annunciator and the Suppression Pool Temperature Indications on 2CEC*PNL601?

Pool Temperature ; Alarm Indications

A. Valid ; Valid
B. Valid ; Invalid
C. Invalid ; Valid
D. Invalid ; Invalid

A

D. Correct: Neither the alarms or indicators are valid. The lowest sensor of any pool temperature is at a pool level of 197 feet, (the temperature sensors for 601550 are at 199 feet)

55
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress. Conditions are as follows:
  • The Main Turbine is being rolled lAW N2-OP-21, Main Turbine System
  • Turbine speed is currently 1800 RPM Then ….
  • Annunciator 851140 TURBINE GENERATOR VIBRATION HIGH alarms

Per ARP 851140, the turbine should be tripped if any vibration level is __(1)__ mils for 15 minutes and vacuum in the main condenser should be broken if vibration levels are projected to go above __(2)__ mils following a turbine trip.

(1) ; (2)
A. 3 ; 12
B. 3 ; 30
C. 10 ; 12
D. 10 ; 30

A

B. Incorrect. Plausible in that the 3 mils for tripping the turbine could be confused with the 3 mils/min requirement for tripping the turbine when >9 mils.

C. Incorrect. Plausible in that the 12 mils for breaking vacuum could be confused with the 12 mils for an immediate turbine trip.

D. Correct: Per ARP 851140 and OP21, P&L 27.0 and 28.0, the turbine should be tripped with vibration levels above 10 mils for 15 minutes AND vacuum should be broken if the vibration levels are projected to go above 30 mils.

56
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • Annunciator 601260, DRYWELL UNIT COOLERS LEAKAGE HIGH, alarmed
  • CCP*MOV265/273 and CCP*MOV122/124, Unit Coolers RBCLC Supply and Return valves were closed
  • Highest Drywell Temperature is 140 F and slowly rising
  • Drywell pressure is 0.8 psig and slowly rising

Per N2-S0P-60, Loss of Drywell Cooling, which of the following actions are required to restore the Drywell Unit Cooler Fans to service and lower drywell temperature and pressure?

Override Switches ; Required Action

A

B. Correct: Since only the fans are being restored, N2-S0P-60 directs that the UNIT COOLER FANS GR1 and GR2 LOCA OVERRIDE be operated. Additionally, because the fans tripped, the fans must be restarted.

C. Incorrect: The DRYWELL UNIT COOLER WTR DIV I and DIV II LOCA OVERRIDE switches override the LOCA signal to the CCP valves to re-open them with a LOCA signal present. The UNIT COOLER FANS GR 1 and GR2 LOCA OVERRIDE switches must be operated to restart the fans with the CCP valves closed.

57
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power when the following indications are observed on 2CEC*PNL849:
    - see attached picture

Indications for ZONE 505 SW FPW-MOV172A, 172B on the sloping section of 2CEC*PNL849 show that the header is pressurized.

The Fire Brigade Leader reports that ZONE 505SW XFMR 2STX-XNS1 is in alarm at the Local Fire Panel.

Per EPIP-EPP-28, FIRE FIGHTING, the control room staff __(1)__ call this a CONFIRMED FIRE because __(2)__

A. (1) SHOULD NOT
(2)suppression system actuation and flow CANNOT be confirmed.

B. (1) SHOULD NOT
(2) the Fire Brigade Leader has not reported back to the control room that an actual fire exists.

C. (1) SHOULD
(2) the alarm at the Local Fire Panel indicates that there is an actual fire.

D. (1) SHOULD
(2) a fire has been detected and there is indication of suppression system activation with flow.

A

*** This question is outdated***

A. Incorrect. Per EPIP-EPP-28, a fire can be called CONFIRMED provided the following exists; Fire Alarm/Annunciator and suppression system activation accompanied by actual flow or discharge. Having the electric fire pump start and ZONE 505 indicating the header is pressurized is sufficient to show suppression system activation with actual flow.
B. Incorrect. Although the FBL can call a fire confirmed, the control room staff can also call the fire confirmed if there are indications in the control room consistent with a Fire Alarm/Annunciator and suppression system activation accompanied by actual flow or discharge.
C. Incorrect. A local fire panel alarm is not sufficient to call a fire confirmed.
D. Correct. Per EPIP-EPP-28, a fire can be called CONFIRMED provided the following exists; Fire Alarm/Annunciator and suppression system activation which is indicated by annunciator 849227, FIRE DETECTED PNL 121 CB W CORRIDOR ELEV/261, accompanied by actual flow or discharge. Having the electric fire pump start, determined by annunciator 849204 and ZONE 505 indicating the header is pressurized, is sufficient to show suppression system activation with actual flow. ZONE 505SW XFMR 2STX-XNS 1 is a deluge system for the Station Service Transformer once this system is pressurized there will be flow because all the nozzles are open.

58
Q
  1. Given the following:
  • Station Blackout conditions exist
  • No operator actions have been taken in N2-S0P-01, Station Blackout
  • RCIC is about to be placed in service
  • Both Division 1 and 2 125 VDC batteries were fully charged prior to the Station Blackout
  • Battery discharge rates for both Division 1 and 2 batteries are equal

After the start of RCIC …
(1) Which battery will reach its minimum terminal voltage first
AND
(2) How long is that battery designed to maintain terminal voltage above that value following the complete loss of AC power?

A. (1 ) Division 1
(2) At least 2 hours
B. (1) Division 1
(2) At least 4 hours
C. (1) Division 2
(2) At least 2 hours
D. (1 ) Division 2
(2) At least 4 hours

A

A. Correct: The only RCIC MOV supplied by Division 2 (2BYS*SWG002B) is one of the 2 turbine exhaust vacuum breakers. All the remaining loads including lights and indication are supplied from Division 1 (SWG002A). Therefore Div I Battery will discharge faster than the Div II Battery. The batteries provide power for large load starting transients, and all DC loads in the event of AC power failure, for at least 2 hours following a loss of chargers provided that the battery had been fully charged.

59
Q
  1. A reactor startup is in progress. Conditions are as follows:
  • Reactor pressure is 600 psig
  • The following then occurs:

Time Event

07: 05 2RDS-P1A ROD DRIVE PUMP trips on low suction pressure. Operators are dispatched to swap RDS suction strainers
07: 1 0 Accumulator trouble alarms are received for withdrawn control rods 42-19,02-23, and 10-15.
07: 15 A Plant Operator reports the following accumulator pressures to the control room:

42-19: 970 psig
02-23: 910 psig
10-15: 920 psig

Per N2-S0P-30 Control Rod Failures, when must the mode switch be placed in SHUTDOWN?

A. 07:10
B. 07:15
C. 07:25
D. 07:30

A

A. Incorrect: A scram is required at 07:15. Accumulator trouble alarms annunciate at 1000 psig accumulator pressure. In order to call an accumulator inoperable, pressure must be <940 pSig, which requires a report from the field. Plausible in that because RPV pressure is <900 psig, a scram is required immediately after determining at least one accumulator for a withdrawn control rod is inoperable. If the candidate incorrectly correlates an accumulator trouble alarm to an inoperable accumulator, then they could choose this distracter.

B. Correct. A loss of a running RDS pump will cause charging water header pressure to go immediately <940 psig. At 07: 15, a report from the PO gave two accumulator pressures <940 psig which makes them inoperable. Per the N2-S0P-30 override, a scram is required immediately if these conditions exist.

C. Incorrect. A scram is required at 07:15. Plausible in that if the candidate does not remember to take into account that RPV pressure is <900 psig, they may choose to apply the charging header pressure <940 psig for 20 minutes which would require placing the mode switch in shutdown at 07:25.

60
Q
  1. Which one of the following lists the drywell temperature that above which the Drywell Ventilation system CANNOT be used per N2-EOP-6 Attachment 24, Drywell Unit Cooler Operation With LOCA Signal?

A. 150°F
B. 200°F
C. 250°F
D. 340°F

A

A. Incorrect. Plausible because 150°F is an entry condition for EOP-PC.

B. Incorrect. Plausible because 200°F is the TS value for transitioning between mode 3 and 4.

C. Correct. Per EOP-6, with temperature above 250°F, water hammer may occur in the CCP piping, so restoration of drywell ventilation cannot be performed.

D. Incorrect. Plausible because 340°F is the highest temperature in EOP-PC before which a blowdown must be performed.

61
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
  • A spurious turbine trip occurs
  • Annunciator 851539, REAC FEED PMP 1A/1B/1C SUCTION PRESS LOW/LO-LO alarms
  • Feed pump suction pressure is 200 psig and stable

Which one of the following (1) describes the response of the feedwater control system and (2) per N2-0P-3 Condensate and Feedwater System, what is the reason for this response?

A (1 ) The high pressure high flow control valves (LV 10A, B & C) close and the controllers shift to MANUAL.
(2) To minimize the possibility of Feed Pump cavitation.

B. (1 ) The high pressure high flow control valves (LV 10A, B & C) close and the controllers shift to MANUAL.
(2) To prevent feedwater pump runout.

C. (1 ) The high pressure high flow control valves (LV 10A, B & C) are limited to a maximum of 40% open.
(2) To minimize the possibility of Feed Pump cavitation.

D. (1) The high pressure high flow control valves (LV 10A, 8 & C) are limited to a maximum of 40% open.
(2) To prevent feedwater pump runout.

A

C. Correct: lAW N2-0P-03, The Feed Pump Flow Limiter Logic minimizes the possibility of Feed Pump cavitation anytime a low Feed Pump suction pressure is present concurrently with a Main Turbine trip. With this logic engaged, flow is limited through the Feed Pump thus restoring NPSH at the pump suction. The logic is automatically bypassed when either initiating condition is clear. When actuated, the logic output clamps the high pressure high flow control valves (LV 10A, B & C) to a maximum of 40% open (53% flow).

62
Q
  1. The plant is operating at rated power. Conditions are as follows:
  • A swap of the operating Reactor Building ventilation (HVR) exhaust fans is performed.
  • Reactor Building differential pressure changes from -0.6” to -0.25” WG

Which one of the following identifies the automatic response of the Reactor Building Ventilation system and the Standby Gas System (GTS) to the change in Reactor Building differential pressure?

HVR MOD17A/B, VENT SUPPLY AIR RECIRC DAMPER RESPONSE ; GTS RESPONSE

A. Modulates Open ; Starts
B. Modulates Close ; Starts
C. Modulates Open ; Remains in Standby
D. Modulates Close ; Remains in Standby

A

C. Correct: HVR MOD17 A/B will modulate open to reduce intake air flow to the reactor building. This will result in driving the differential pressure back in the negative direction via the exhaust fans. GTS will not start on high (less negative) building dp.

63
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, when the following sequence occurs:

Time Event

0800 • The Reactor Building isolates on high exhaust radiation.

0805 • Reactor Water Cleanup System WCS Pump Room A temperature is 160 degrees F and steady
• Reactor Water Cleanup failed to isolate both automatically and manually.

0820 • Radiation monitor RMS2A on Reactor Building Elevation 215 is reading 9.2 E+03 mRlhr steady and indicating RED on DRMS display
• Radiation monitor RMS2B on Reactor Building Elevation 215 is reading 8.2 E+03 mRlhr steady and indicating RED on DRMS display

Which one of the following describes the proper implementation of EOP-SC with regards to area radiation levels?

A. Only one area is affected by elevated radiation levels. Continue to try to isolate WCS system. A normal plant shutdown is NOT required.
B. Two areas are affected by elevated radiation levels. A normal plant shutdown IS required. RPV Blowdown is NOT required.
C. Only one area is affected by elevated radiation levels. A manual scram IS required but an RPV Blowdown is NOT required.
D. Two areas are affected by elevated radiation levels. A manual scram IS required AND an RPV Blowdown IS required.

A

D. Correct: Per the TMG page 39, each area radiation monitor is treated as a separate area. Since RMS2A and 2B are reading above Max Safe Values, then 2 areas are affected. Because WCS (Reactor Water Cleanup) is a primary system entry into N2EOP-RPV is required via EOP-SC, step 8, which will require a scram. Because 2 areas are above Max Safe a Blowdown is required by EOP-SC Step SC-1O.

64
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown and the control room evacuated after a fire in the control room. Conditions are as follows:
  • RCIC is being operated from the remote shutdown panel lAW N2-S0P-78, Control Room Evacuation
  • RPV level is 200 inches and rising
  • The RCIC Flow controller thumbwheel is set in AUTO at 400 gpm
  • RCIC Turbine speed is 1500 RPM
  • RPV Level continues to rise

lAW N2-S0P-78, what actions are required to maintain RPV level in band?

A. Trip the turbine using the manual trip pushbutton.
B. Close 2ICS*MOV120 TURB STM SUPPLY VLV.
C. Adjust Flow Controller thumbwheel setpoint to 300 gpm.
D. Place Flow Controller to MANUAL and lower turbine speed.

A

A. Incorrect: Tripping the turbine is not required per SOP-78 and if injection needs to be restored, the trip and throttle valve would have to be reset.
B. Correct: Per SOP-78. If speed cannot be maintained above 1500 RPM and level continues to rise then close the Steam Admission Valve MOV120.
C. Incorrect: Lowering thumbwheel setting to 300 gpm violates the procedure conditional statement that if lowering flow below 400 gpm, the controller should be placed in manual to prevent system flow oscillations. Also would result in speed below 1500
RPM.
D. Incorrect: Lowering turbine speed below 1500 RPM and violate the low RPM procedure limit of 1500 RPM.

65
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress with the followillg:
  • Reactor power is 18%
  • A Main Condenser leak develops
  • Condenser vacuum rapidly lowers to 8.0 inches Hg.

With no operator action, which one of the following describes the conditions that would exist following this event?

The reactor has …
A. scrammed and decay heat is being removed using the SRV’s.
B. scrammed and decay heat is being removed by Turbine Bypass Valves.
C. NOT scrammed and reactor pressure is being controlled by Turbine Bypass Valves.
D. NOT scrammed and reactor pressure is being controlled by the Turbine Control Valves.

A

A. Correct: When condenser vacuum reaches is 22.1 inches Hg the Main turbine will trip. At 8.5 inches Hg the MSIV’s will shut. At 18% power the Mode Switch will be in run which will cause a Rx scram when the MSIV’s shut. The Bypass valves will not fail shut on low vacuum but with the MSIV’s shut they will not provide for pressure control. Therefore pressure will be controlled using the SRVs.

66
Q
  1. The plant is in MODE 5 with refueling activities in progress on the Refuel Floor.

Per N2-FHP-003, REFUELING MANUAL which one of the following is considered a CORE ALTERATION?

A. Removal of an LPRM string.
B. Withdrawal of a control rod from a cell containing no fuel.
C. Reseating of a fuel bundle in the core with the refuel mast.
D. Movement of a recently irradiated fuel bundle in the Fuel Pool.

A

A. Incorrect: As defined in the Refueling Manual, movemement of LPRMs does not constitue a core alteration.
B. Incorrect: As defined in the Refueling Manual, movement of a control rod in a cell that does not contain any fuel does not constitue a core alteration.
C. Correct: As defined in the Refueling Manual, this constitues a core alteration in that it is the movement of fuel, within the reactor vessel with the vessel head removed. The Fleet Reactivity Procedure requires that a licensed RO or certified fuel handling/refueling operator perform core alterations.
D. Incorrect: As defined in the Refueling Manual this does not constitute a core alteration as the fuel move is occurring in the spent fuel pool.

67
Q
  1. Per OP-AA-105-102, NRC Active License Maintenance at NMP, what is the MINIMUM number of 12-hour shifts a licensed operator would have to stand in a calendar quarter in order to maintain an active license?
    A. 2
    B. 3
    C. 5
    D. 6
A

C. Correct. An operator has to stand at least (5) 12 hour shifts in order to maintain an active license. Also may stand (7) 8 hour shifts

68
Q
  1. Per CNG-OP-4.01-1000, INTEGRATED RISK MANAGEMENT, who is allowed to conduct an Infrequently Performed Test or Evolution (IPTE) manager brief?
    Only a …
    A. Responsible Group Supervisor or above
    B. Shift Manager or above
    C. General Supervisor or above
    D. Plant General Manager or above
A

C. Correct: Per CNG-OP-4.01-1000, IPTE briefs shall be conducted by the GS level or above.

***Outdated***

Per HU-AA-1211, and IPA Brefing must have the appropriate Senior Line Manager involvement. Page 5, section 3.1

69
Q
  1. The plant is at rated conditions with testing in progress which adds heat to the suppression pool.

Which one of the following is the LOWEST suppression pool temperature above which Technical Specifications requires an IMMEDIATE manual scram be inserted?

A. 90F

B. 110F

C. 115F

D. 120F

A

B. Correct: LCO 3.6.2.1 required action D.1 requires that the mode switch be immediately placed in shutdown.

70
Q
  1. With the Reactor Building Isolated and Standby Gas Treatment in service, which one of the following radiation monitors will STILL detect actual airborne radiation levels in the Reactor Building?

A. Standby Gas Treatment Monitor, GTS-RE105
B. Emergency Recirc Mode Monitor, HVR-RE229
C. Below Refuel Floor Monitors, HVR*RE32A and B
D. Main Stack Gaseous Effluent Monitor, 2RMS-RE193

A

B. Correct -2HVR-CAB229 is used to monitor and trend Reactor Building Ventilation when the Reactor Building is isolated and a Emergency HVR Recirc Unit (2HVR*UC413A or B) is in service.

71
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a radiation emergency. Conditions are as follows:
  • An ALERT has been declared.
  • An operator will be entering the RCIC pump room in order to operate a valve.
  • It has been determined by RP that a Specific Radiation Work Permit, (RWP) is required to perform this work and that time does not permit for normal processing and development of the Specific RWP

Per EPIP-EPP-15, EMERGENCY HEALTH PHYSICS, who may give permission to modify the normal processing and development requirements for this Specific RWP?

A. The CRS
B. The Emergency Director
C. The Lead RP Technician on shift
D. The General Supervisor of Radiation Protection

A

B. Correct. Per EPIP-EPP-15, RWP processing requirements may be modified by the ED if normal processing would result in unacceptable delays in emergency or critical path work.

72
Q
  1. The reactor is operating at rated power when annunciator 602116, RECIRC PMP 1B SEAL STAGING FLOW HIGH LOW, alarms. The following indications exist for Reactor Recirc Pump 1B:
  • Seal staging flow is high (computer point RCSFC10)
  • Lower (#1) Seal cavity pressure is 1020 psig
  • Upper (#2) Seal cavity pressure is 830 psig

Which one of the following identifies the status of Reactor Recirc Pump B seals?

A. Only the lower seal is degraded
B. Only the upper seal is degraded
C. Both the upper and lower seals are partially degraded
D. Both the upper and lower seals have completely failed

A

A. Correct -As the lower seal degrades, its pressure drop goes down, resulting in the upper seal cavity pressure rising toward the lower seal cavity pressure. Staging flow rises as a result of the degraded lower seal; hence, the annunciator cited in the stem; in this case, for HI FLOW.

73
Q
  1. N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control contains a caution about RCIC operation with a high suction temperature.
    (1) What is the value of suction temperature contained within the caution

AND

(2) What is the bases for the caution per NER-2M-039, EOP BASES?

A. (1) 125 F
(2) To prevent pump cavitation
B. (1 ) 140 F
(2) To prevent pump cavitation
C. (1) 125 F
(2) To prevent bearing damage and loss of turbine control
D. (1 ) 140 F
(2) To prevent bearing damage and loss of turbine control

A

D. Correct: Per the EOP bases document, page 4-18, exceeding 140 degrees may cause system damage. Since lube oil and control oil are cooled by the water being pumped, high temperatures may result in bearing damage or loss of control capability.

74
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a small LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
  • Suppression chamber pressure is 10 psig and slowly rising
  • The operating crew has taken all required actions per EOP-PC for rising primary containment pressure

Per N2-EOP-PC, which one of the following EOP mitigation strategies is performed when suppression chamber pressure reaches 10 psig?

A. Spray the drywell
B. Spray the suppression chamber
C. Enter N2-EOP-C2 and blowdown
D. Start all available Drywell Cooling

A

A. Correct. Per N2-EOP-PC, when suppression chamber pressure reaches 10 pSig, drywell sprays are initiated.
B. Incorrect. Suppression chamber sprays are initiated when drywell pressure is >1.68 psig and before 10 psig
C. Incorrect. A blowdown is only performed if drywell pressure exceeds the PSP limit.
D. Incorrect. All available drywell cooling is started in the Drywell temperature leg and the drywell unit coolers are all tripped once suppression chamber pressure is 10 psig.

75
Q
  1. What impact does losing 125 VDC control power have on a CLOSED 4KV safety-related load breaker?

A. Prevents remote AND local breaker operation. Breaker protective relaying is REMOVED.
B. Prevents remote AND local breaker operation. Breaker protective relaying remains AVAILABLE.
C. Prevents ONLY remote breaker operation. Local manual trip capability remains AVAILABLE. Breaker protective relaying is AVAILABLE.
D. Prevents ONLY remote breaker operation. Local manual trip capability remains AVAILABLE. Breaker protective relaying is REMOVED.

A

D. Correct: Control power is necessary to electrically operate the breaker remotely. Since the breaker is closed, the opening springs are charged and trip capability remains using the local mechanical trip. The protective relaying requires control power to function.