2008 module exam Flashcards

1
Q

femoral neck and head are supplied by which artery?

a. obturator
b. lateral femoral circumflex
c. medial femoral circumflex

A

c. medial femoral circumflex

it supplies neck of femur + two thirds of head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

biceps femoris is used as a guide for locating :

A

Common fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Whats the function of iliopsoas

A

Flexion of thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What goes into the quadrangular space?

A

axillary nerve and posterior humeral circumflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which muscles prevent the unsupported limb from dropping during single support periods of the gait cycle?

a. Hip abductors
b. B. hamstrings

A

a. Hip abductors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What explains the presence of the primary curvatures of the vertebral column?

A

Thinner anterior part of the vertebral body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In which vein does the small saphenous vein empty?

A

The popliteal vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

patient has lost the ability to abduct his shoulder (0°-15°) & the lateral rotation of his shoulder is decreased. Injury to which nerve resulted in this presentation?

A

The suprascapular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which type of joint is the elbow joint?

A

Hinge joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which artery makes the major contribution to the deep palmar arterial arch?

A

The radial artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which vein is selected for venipuncture?

A

The median cubital vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which muscle can cause medial rotation of the arm?

A

Subscapularis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

which ligament prevents the inward displacement of the tibia?

A

Posterior cruciate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

a patient can’t move his thumb to touch the tip of his little finger, which muscle is affected?

A

Opponins pollicis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

a patient can’t hold a paper between his index and middle finger. Which muscle is affected?

A
Palmer interossei
(adduction; PAD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

which one is a branch of the internal iliac artery?

a. Obturator
b. superficial iliac circumflex

A

a.Obturator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what artery supplies the lateral compartment of the leg?

A

Fibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

which muscle is examined by asking the patient to flex his forearm and supinate it?

A

Biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which muscle is attached to coracoids process?

A

Pectoralis minor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

avulsion fracture in coracoid process. Which movement is affected?

a. flexion
b. external rotation

A

a. flexion

short head of each biceps brachii originates at the coracoid process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

which congenital problem is caused by improper fusion of the arches?

A

Spina bifida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Disproportional enlargement of the hands and feet is called

A

Acromegaly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

someone who can’t make a fist and the 2 and 3 digits are extended. Which nerve is affected?

A

median

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the common component in medial and lateral arches?

A

Calcaneus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

which bone is injured in excessive dorsiflexion?

A

talus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

which muscle causes plantar flexion and heel raising during walking?

a. Gastrocnemius
b. posterior tibialis

A

a. Gastrocnemius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

which muscle is used for transplantation?

A

plantaris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What muscle in leg is a dorsiflexor?

A

extensor digitorum longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

which nerve supplies the short head of biceps femorus?

A

Common fibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

A child presenting with MELAS?

A

tRNA leucine gene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

presence of wild type and mutant type in the same mitochondrea in an elderly patient. What is this called?

A

Heteroplasmy

32
Q

patient with gout was treated with allopurinol. What will increase?

a. uric acid
b. xanthine

A

b. xanthine

33
Q

Which amino acid is found in the triplet repeated sequence of primary collagen?

A

Glycine

the answer they put is proline

34
Q

Which vitamin is important for collagen synthesis?

A

Vitamin C

35
Q

What is the role of the enzyme creatine kinase in muscles?

A

It donates phosphate to ADP, generating ATP

36
Q

Which of the following occurs simultaneously with muscle contraction by the release of Ca++ from sarcoplasmic reticulum during exercise?

A

Glycogenolysis

37
Q

which one is a feature of glucosaminoglycans?

A

Extended chain with negative charges

38
Q

a child presented with exercise intolerance. what is the mutation?

A

mutation in mitochondrial transfer RNA gene

39
Q

which of the following lay down bone during bone growth?

A

Osteoblast

40
Q

What is pannus:

A

Granulation tissue that destroys the joint

41
Q

peripheral bone formation on knee x ray is called

A

Osteophytes

42
Q

the hallmark of the pathophysiology of osteoarthritis is

A

Cartilage degeneration

43
Q

A deformity of a joint is

A

Loss of cartilage and destruction of the joint

44
Q

what is the histopathological feature of SLE?

a. granuloma
b. vasculitis

A

b. vasculitis

45
Q

Which of the following tumors has a tendency for distal metastasis?

A

Hemangiosarcoma

the rest were examples of benign soft tissue tumors

46
Q

Osteophytes are bony outgrowths that are seen in the peripheral sides of joints. In which inflammatory joint disease are they typically seen?

A

osteoarthritis

47
Q

renal disease that is associated with SLE?

A

Glomerulonephritis

48
Q

what is considered as poor prognosis in RA?

a. uveitis
b. scleritis
c. vasculitis
d. alveolitis

A

c. vasculitis

49
Q

a man with recurrent pain in his big toe, whats a likely diagnosis?

A

gouty arthritis

50
Q

What characterizes rhabdomyosarcoma?

a. age at the time of diagnosis
b. positive immunoreactivity to cytokeratin
c. striation in the cytoplasm
d. location of the tumor

A

c. striation in the cytoplasm

51
Q

a male with lower leg pain and fever

a. Pyogenic osteomylitis
b. Tuberculus osteomyelitis

A

a. Pyogenic osteomylitis

not sure about this Q

52
Q

Intravenous drug abuser presenting with arthritis. culture showed budding yeasts and psuedohyphae
what’s the causative organism?

A

Candida albicans

53
Q

What’s responsible for tissue damage in RA?

A

Macrophages
immune complexes
Th1

54
Q

what is responsible for initiating the tissue damage in SLE?

a. Autoantibodies against soluble antigens
b. Autoantibodies against cell bound antigens
c. Autoantibodies against specific drug bound to cells

A

a. Autoantibodies against soluble antigens

55
Q

a child presenting with arthritis and diarrhea :

A

Salmonella

56
Q

45 year old female with polyarthritis and it was thought that it was caused by immune complex deposition. Which virus can cause this?

A

Hepatitits B

57
Q

Which of the following statements regarding gonococcal septic arthritis is correct?

a. About 1-5% of patients with gonococcal infection develop septic arthritis
b. patients have history of infection with gonorrhea
c. 25% of the patients have gonorrhea

A

a. About 1-5% of patients with gonococcal infection develop septic arthritis

58
Q

Necrosis of the synovium and cartilage destruction. Which organism can cause this?

A

Staph. aureas

59
Q

a 2 year old child with symptoms of septic arthritis. Culture showed gram negative coccobacilli. What is the microorganism isolated?

A

H. influenzae

60
Q

A patient with gout in the metatarsalphalangeal joint. What is the most appropriate treatment?

a. Indomethacin
b. allopurinol

A

a. Indomethacin

if pain= indomethacin

61
Q

A patient with a history of peptic ulcer has osteoarthritis. What is the anti-inflammatory drug of choice for this case?

A

Celecoxib

62
Q

Which one of the following drugs is known to be an inhibitor of the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase?

A

Methotrexate

63
Q

which COX-2 selective inhibitor was withdrawn because of its association with increased cardiovascular problems and strokes?

A

Rofecoxib

64
Q

which drug is good as an antipyretic and not as an anti-inflammatory?

A

Paracetamol

65
Q

which drug irreversibly inhibit COX-2?

A

Aspirin

66
Q

What would happen if Na+\K+ pump is blocked?

A

The collapse of resting potential

67
Q

the contraction cycle is almost completed. ATP is hydrolyzed, what happens next?

a. The myosin head flips back into the starting position
b. The myosin head is generating mechanical force by a power stroke

A

a. The myosin head flips back into the starting position

68
Q

What happend to the actin-myosin when ATP binds?

A

Myosin detaches from filamentous actin

69
Q

What is the effect of the alpha-latrotoxin from the black widow spider on the NMJ?

A

Ca2+ independent exocytosis

70
Q

what happens when the conductance of K+ is increased toward the end of action potential?

A

Hyperpolarization

71
Q

An increase in what will increase the frequency of muscle contraction?

A

Action potential

72
Q

what ensures unidirectional propagation of action potential?

A

Membrane inexcitability in the refractory phase

73
Q

what is true about slow twitch fibers?

a. Have a lot of mitochondrea
b. large in diameter

A

a. Have a lot of mitochondrea

74
Q

someone standing on the ground and pushing the wall with increasing pressure. Describe their muscle length and tension

A

Constant length and variable tension

75
Q

75 year old obese female with pain in her hip

A

Osteoarthritis

76
Q

a male presented with arthritis, pain, chills, fever, and knee effusion. What is the initial investigation?

A

Synovial fluid analysis

77
Q

What best describes pain assessments?

a. Physiological measurements are not as reliable as self-reports
b. visual analogue is drawing of faces that are shown to children to assess their pain

A

a. Physiological measurements are not as reliable as self-reports