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PANRE review > 11/3's practice > Flashcards

11/3's practice Flashcards

1
Q

murmur associated with rheumatic fever?

A

mitral regurgitation

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2
Q

What is the definitive test result for polycystic ovary?

A

LH:FSH ratio of 2:1 or greater

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3
Q

What cancer is associated with pheochromocytoma?

A

Medullary thyroid CA

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4
Q

What is the diagnostic test for amoebiasis?

A

indirect hemagglutination test for amoebiasis

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5
Q

A 30-year-old man presents with a 1-year history of watery diarrhea. He has lost 5 kg. He has joint pains of 1-month duration. His stool examination for occult blood is negative. Stool culture is negative. No ova and cyst are seen in the stool. Laboratory tests fail to reveal rheumatoid factor or anti-nuclear antibodies. Serum calcium, phosphorous and alkaline phosphatase is 9.2 mg/dl, 4 mg/dl and 110 U/L respectively. A biopsy taken from the upper intestine shows distended macrophages in the lamina propria, which is found to be positive with PAS stain. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case??

A

Whipple disease - macrophages indicate infection

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6
Q

What demographic factors influence one’s risk for SCC?

A

male gender, caucasian, light eyes

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7
Q

What lab test is ordered in an adolescent female to assess when she may begin menses?

A

FSH

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8
Q

What is the APC genetic test for?

A

familial adenomatosis polyposis syndrome

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9
Q

What is the MSH2 genetic test for?

A

hereditary non-polyposis colon cancer syndrome

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10
Q

What is the RET genetic test for? Associated conditions (3)?

A

multiple endocrine neoplasia syndrome type II (MEN-II), which is typically associated with medullary thyroid cancer, parathyroid adenomas, and pheochromocytomas

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11
Q

What do ACE inhibitors do to oral hypoglycemics?

A

Increase their activity, increasing the risk of hypoglycemia

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12
Q

Patient with diarrhea, dermatitis, and dementia, diagnosis? Treatment?

A

Niacin deficiency - diet high in tryptophan

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13
Q

What is the most common location of an anal fissure?

A

Posterior

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14
Q

What is the first line treatment for an acute Meniere’s disease flare of symptoms?

A

Benzos (valium)

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15
Q

What is the threshold of outbreaks/year for beginning prophylactic herpes therapy?

A

> = 6/year

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16
Q

At what point after an acetaminophen overdose do LFTs start to rise?

A

12 hours

17
Q

What medication is given to decrease the size of fibroids?

A

Lupron

18
Q

What is preferred management for SVC syndrome?

A

stenting/radiation

19
Q

A 20 yo woman p/w malodorous vaginal discharge. Physical examination reveals a homogeneous gray discharge. Some of the vaginal discharge is obtained and mixed with 10% KOH, whereupon a fishy amine odor is produced. A Gram stain of the vaginal discharge reveals diagnostic “clue” cells. Diagnosis?

A

Bacterial vaginosis

20
Q

A 72-year-old man presents with double vision, weakness, fatigue, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. Med list: Digoxin, Furosemide, Potassium, Acetylsalicylic acid, Amoxicillin. What is the culprit?

A

Digoxin

21
Q

Infant with a loud systolic ejection murmur is ascertained at the left upper sternal border. An EKG reveals normal sinus rhythm and the chest X-ray reveals a “boot shaped” cardiac shadow. Diagnosis?

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

22
Q

child with fever then rash

A

roseola

23
Q

floppy newborn of a mother with a mono-like illness at some point in pregnancy, bulging fontanelles. Normal CSF. Diagnosis?

A

Toxoplasmosis

24
Q

Patient with encephalopathy has an MRI scan of the brain demonstrates low-density lesions in the brain; they represent areas of gross demyelination. What is the most likely diagnosis??

A

HSV encephalitis

25
Q

What’s the first blood test to change in anemia?

A

Red Cell Distribution Width (RDW)

26
Q

A patient presents with multiple angular, mildly pruritic, flat-topped violaceous papules on both shins as well as Wickham’s striae. Diagnosis?

A

Lichen planus

27
Q

Pt has a superficial form of cellulitis caused by B-hemolytic streptococci. It most typically occurs on the cheek. Diagnosis? Lab finding?

A

Erysipelas, lymphocytosis

28
Q

A 19-year-old college student presents with numerous mildly erythematous oval lesions with fine scaling over her chest and trunk which appear to follow the cleavage lines of the skin. A week prior to the outbreak of her rash, she noticed a single, similar but larger lesion below the right clavicle. Diagnosis?

A

Pityriasis Rosea

29
Q

A patient complains of severe itching on the wrists and hands. Examination reveals pinpoint vesicles and pustules, some arranged in an irregular linear fashion. Diagnosis?

A

Scabies

30
Q

In severe contact dermatitis, what is the treatment?

A

Prednisone for 12-14 days with a taper

31
Q

An adult presents with diffuse, raised, target-like lesions with two zones of color change. Lesions affect approximately 50% of body surface. He has a recent history of sulfonamide treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Toxic epidermal necrolysis denotes >30 % BSA skin loss with lesions as observed. A drug reaction is the most common cause in adults.

32
Q

What is the treatment for TTP?

A

Plasma exchange

33
Q
  1. A 4-year-old is brought to the clinic with a bright red rash on his face. He had a fever and was irritable for two days prior. Exam reveals a deep red macular facial rash with circumoral pallor. A fine lacy rash is visible on the trunk and shoulders. He is currently afebrile. What is the most likely cause?
A

erythrovirus aka parvovirus B19 is responsible for erythema infectiosum, also known as “slapped cheek” or “5th disease.”

34
Q

A 23-year-old female at 26 weeks gestation presents with myalgias, headache, and fatigue 10 days after returning from a camping trip in the mid-Atlantic US. Exam reveals a nontender, slightly raised, red lesion with central clearing on the lower posterior left thigh. Diagnosis? What is the recommended treatment?

A

Lyme disease: amoxicillin

35
Q

Pt has a positive geimsa-stained blood smear, dx?

A

Giemsa-stained blood smears are diagnostic for malaria. The density of parasitemia may correlate with severity of infection.

36
Q

Which class of antibiotics work by inhibiting cell wall synthesis?

A

PCNs

37
Q

Which of antibiotics class is most strongly associated with an increased risk of prolonged QT syndrome?

A

macrolides

38
Q

Sulfonamides are antibacterial due to their ability to inhibit what?

A

folic acid

PANRE review (14 decks)

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