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Pathopharmacology Exam 1 Review > 1-13-17 > Flashcards

Flashcards in 1-13-17 Deck (213)
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1
Q

What the patient/family states about the current/past illness.

A

Subjective Assessment (Symptoms)

2
Q

Test Results

What is observed by the health care provider.

A

Objective Assessment (Signs)

3
Q

Protecting healthy people from developing a disease or experiencing an injury. Ex: Eating healthy to avoid obesity.

A

Primary Prevention

4
Q

Intervene after an illness occurs to halt or slow the progress of disease in early stages. Ex: Taking care of diabetes so it doesn’t progress to heart problems.

A

Secondary Prevention

5
Q

Helps people manage complicated long-term health problems such as heart disease.

A

Tertiary Prevention

6
Q

Parts of Medical Histories

A
Current and prior illness
Allergies
Hospitalizations
Treatments
Specific complaints
Current therapy (drugs, herbs, speech, etc)
7
Q

the nurse gives the patient an anti-anxiety medication and his anxiety is lowered.

A

therapeutic effect

8
Q

the nurse gives the patient a sleeping pill and the patient gets nauseated

A

side effects

9
Q

the nurse gives the patient a dose of penicillin for a bacterial infection and the patient develops itching and hives

A

hypersensitivity

10
Q

the nurse gives the patient a sleeping pill and he sleeps for 2 days

A

idiosyncratic

11
Q

the patient has been on pain medication for terminal cancer for one month and needs an increased dose to get the same effect

A

tolerance

12
Q

lab results show that the level of medication is above therapeutic level.

A

toxic reaction

13
Q

the patient complains of fatigue after he starts taking his medication to decrease depression.

A

side effect

14
Q

the nurse gives the patient a medication to decrease anxiety and the patient becomes overly anxious.

A

idiosyncratic

15
Q

The schedule controlled substance group that has the biggest risk for abuse and is used in patient care

A

Schedule II

16
Q

the schedule controlled substance group that has the least risk for abuse

A

Schedule V

17
Q

the schedule controlled substance group that is never used for medical purposes

A

schedule I

18
Q

the pregnancy category of drugs that can never be given to pregnant women

A

X

19
Q

the pregnancy category that is the safest for pregnant women to use

A

A

20
Q

the route of drug administration that provides the slowest rate of absorption

A

oral

21
Q

how much of a drug will be left in the body following two half lives if the original dosage was 500 mg?

A

125mg

22
Q

what type of enteral drug takes the longest to absorb?

A

entericoated

23
Q

What types of enteral drugs take the quickest to absorb?

A

liquids
powders
buccal tabs
wafers

24
Q

What kind of route requires the medication to be given under the tongue?

A

sublingual

25
Q

What kind of route requires the medication to be given between the cheek and gum?

A

buccal

26
Q

where is the chief location of drug metabolism in the body

A

liver

27
Q

if a know drug is classified as an “enzyme” inducer, will the patient need a bigger or smaller dose?

A

bigger

28
Q

if a know drug is classified as an “enzyme” inhibitor, will the patient need a bigger or smaller dose?

A

smaller

29
Q

what kind of drug receptor interaction is a drug antidote based on?

A

antagonistic

30
Q

what is the key to keeping the elderly and the children safe from cumulative drug effects regarding dosage?

A

start low and go slow

31
Q

what type of drugs require routine monitoring of blood serum levels to keep the patient safe?

A

narrow therapeutic index

32
Q

patients with G6PD deficiency should avoid drugs that cause further…

A

hemolysis

33
Q

the patient has end stage cancer and is receiving pain medications around the clock

A

palliative therapy

34
Q

the patient is taking insulin for his diabetes

A

supplemental therapy

35
Q

the patient is taking blood pressure medication to keep his blood pressure within range so that he doesn’t have a stroke

A

maintenance therapy

36
Q

the patient is receiving medications in the intensive care unit to treat his heart dysrhythmias

A

acute therapy

37
Q

a child receives a flu vaccine

A

prophylactic therapy

38
Q

the patient comes into the ER after a car accident and is being given IV fluids and blood products while he wait for a surgical room to open up

A

supportive therapy

39
Q

the nurse runs two different types of medication in an intravenous infusion line and notes that the medications have clumped together

A

incompatibility

40
Q

the patient is taking two different types of BP meds so that together they can lower his BP better than either of them alone

A

additive

41
Q

the patient revives and anti-anxiety med and a pain reliever med in one injection prior to surgery and is so relaxed he falls asleep even though that is not the typical reaction from either medication when given alone

A

synergistic

42
Q

narcan is given to stop the heroin from interacting at receptor sites that the patient lives

A

antagonistic

43
Q

Unknown cause of disease Ex. Seizures

A

Idiopathic

44
Q

Cause of disease by treatment, procedure or error. Ex: medication adverse affects, chemo treatments lead to damaged nerve cells.

A

Latrogenic

45
Q

Promotes the development of disease, not always. Ex: smoking leads to cancer, but not always.

A

Predisposing factors

46
Q

Presever health and prevent spread of disease. Ex: taking blood sugars and blood pressures

A

Prophylaxis Measures

47
Q

Look at etiology and predisposing factors. Ex: vaccinations and education. Smoking cessation.

A

Prevention

48
Q

how a disease is started

A

pathogenesis

49
Q

no manifestations because of the great reserve capacity of organs.

A

subclinical state

50
Q

early in development of disease, client has non-specific signs

A

prodromal period

51
Q

Clinical evidence that a disease is present. Local vs. systemic.

A

Manifestation of Disease

52
Q

Collection of signs and symptoms, affecting more than one organ, signs vs symptoms

A

Syndrome

53
Q

Manifestations of disease subside, ex: chemo works well but does not cure.

A

Remission

54
Q

Manifestations of disease increase.

A

Exacerbations

55
Q

Conditions that triggers an acute episode. Ex: cardiac patient shovels snow and has heart palpitations.

A

Precipitating factors

56
Q

Period of recovery and return to heathy state.

A

Convalescence or Rehabilitation

57
Q

Probability of recovery or other outcomes. Ex: cancer has 85% chance of going into remission.

A

Prognosis

58
Q

of people with the disease within a group

A

morbidity

59
Q

of deaths due to disease

A

mortality

60
Q

Infections that can be spread from person to person

A

Communicable disease

61
Q

Decrease in size of cells, reduced tissue mass.

A

Atrophy

62
Q

Increase in size of cells, enlargement of tissues.

A

Hypertrophy

63
Q

Increase in number of cells. Enlarged tissue mass.

A

Hyperplasia

64
Q

Mature cell type is replaced by different mature cell type. Lining of respiratory tract in smokers.

A

Metaplasia

65
Q

Cells vary in size and shape within a tissue and rate of mitosis is increased. Ex: chronic infection, precancerous change

A

Dysplasia

66
Q

New growth, commonly called a tumor.

A

Neoplasia

67
Q

Decreased oxygen delivery to tissues due to circulatory problems. Leads to hypoxia (reduced oxygen in tissues)

A

Ischemia

68
Q

Necrotic tissue invaded by bacteria

A

Gangrene

69
Q

any chemical that affects the physiologic processes of a living organism. Includes: prescribed medications, alcohol, sunscreen, and herbal remedies.

A

Drug

70
Q

Describes the drugs chemical composition and molecular structure.

A

Chemical name

71
Q

Most official name, used in drug books, only one type of name per drug. Signified by using noncaps in first word.

A

Generic name

72
Q

The drug has a registered trademark, created by manufacturer. Drug can have several names.

A

Trade name

73
Q

3 categories of drugs

A

prescription
nonprescription
controlled substance

74
Q

largest category of drugs, potentially harmful unless use is supervised

A

prescription drugs

75
Q

Drugs that are designated as safe when taken as directed. no prescription needed.

A

over the counter drugs

76
Q

over the counter drug labeling requirements

A

dose, adverse reactions, contraindications, and precautions

77
Q

Controlled substance act of 1970

A

Regulated controlled substances. Established classification list (schedules)

78
Q

phase of drug activity where the dosage is formed (pills, liquid, powder, etc…)

A

Pharmaceutical Phase

79
Q

what the body does to the drug during drug activity (adsorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion)

A

pharmacokinetic phase

80
Q

what the drug does to the body during drug activity. (effects)

A

Pharmacodynamic phase

81
Q

Parenteral drugs

A

injectable forms

82
Q

drugs that only treat a certain area (aerosols, ointments, patches, inhalers, suppositories)

A

topical drugs

83
Q

All
Drugs
Must
Exit

A

Absorption
Distribution
Metabolism
Excretion

84
Q

Movement of drug from site of administration to the bloodstream.

A

Absorption

85
Q

reduces bioavailability of drug to less that 100%. Oral drugs are given in larger doses because of this effect. Only effects oral drugs that go through GI.

A

first-pass effect

86
Q

do parenteral drugs need higher or lower doses?

A

lower. 100% of drug is being used, unlike oral meds where the GI and liver destroy some.

87
Q

Has slower absorption and longer duration of action than parenteral and enteral.

A

Topical route

88
Q

Adhesive patches, good for patients who can’t tolerate oral administration, use of alternating sites.

A

Transdermal route

89
Q

Drug distributed to various body tissues and target sites- interacts with specific receptors in body.

A

Distribution

90
Q

primary site of metabolism

A

liver

91
Q

Drugs that increase or speed up drug-metabolism enzymes. Result: decreased pharmacological effects.

A

Enzyme Inducers

92
Q

Drugs that decrease or delay drug-metabolism enzymes. Result: increased effect of drug.

A

Enzyme Inhibitors.

93
Q

main organ os excretion

A

kidneys

94
Q

about how many half-lives does it take for the body to completely eliminate the drug?

A

5

95
Q

onset of action for oral drugs

A

one hour

96
Q

onset of action for parenteral drugs

A

15-30 minutes

97
Q

onset of action for intravenous drugs

A

immediate- 15 minutes

98
Q

time it takes for a drug to reach its maximum therapeutic response

A

peak effect

99
Q

length of time that a drug concentration is high enough to cause a therapeutic response.

A

duration of action

100
Q

highest blood level of drug. if too high = toxicity

A

Peak

101
Q

lowest blood level of drug. draw blood right before next dose. if too low = drug is non therapeutic

A

trough

102
Q

side effect vs adverse reaction

A

mild vs severe and life threatening

103
Q

swelling of face, lips and throat

A

angioedema

104
Q

unusual, abnormal reaction to drug, different than expected reaction . Not a side effect or averse reaction, believed to be due to genetic deficiency. Ex. being sedated for long periods of time from sleeping pill.

A

Idiosyncratic reaction

105
Q

Decreased response to a drug, requires increased dosage for desired effect. Ex: opioids used for terminally ill pain control.

A

Drug tolerance

106
Q

Patients with liver and kidney disease: body is unable to metabolize and excrete one dose of drugs before next dose is given. Start low and go slow.

A

Cumulative drug effect

107
Q

hereditary disease where certain drugs cause hemolysis of RBC’s. Causes low RBC count.

A

G6PD Deficiency

108
Q

drug is administered in large dosages, blood concentration levels exceed therapeutic levels.

A

toxic reactions

109
Q

genetically determined abnormal response to normal dose of drug. Inherited traits cause abnormal metabolism of drugs.

A

Pharmacogenetic disorder

110
Q

combined effect of two drugs is equal to sum of each drug given alone. 1+1=2

A

additive effect

111
Q

drugs interact with each other and produce a sum greater than the sum of the separate actions. 1+1 > 2

A

synergistic effect

112
Q

one drug interferes with action of another: Neutralization/decrease in effect of one drug. 1+1 < 2

A

antagonistic effect

113
Q

some meds are incompatible and cannot be rain in the same line (IV).

A

incompatibility

114
Q

detects changes in cell membranes from viruses to cancer. essential role in activation of immune response.

A

Major histocompatibility complex

115
Q

group of proteins that flow freely in the blood. first part of the immune system that greets invaders.

A

complement system

116
Q

Triggers inflammation
Attracts phagocytes by coating invading cells with proteins (antibodies)
next step is antigen presentation

A

Complement system

117
Q

Directly kills invading antigens

Helper T cells, Memory T cells, suppressor t cells, cytotoxic t cells

A

T Lymphocytes

118
Q

Main regulators of the immune response

Activates B cells and Killer T cells after a phagocyte

A

Helper T cells

119
Q

Produced at every encounter and have long memory. Mounts faster and stronger immune response each time encounters a specific antigen.

A

Memory T cells

120
Q

Produces antibodies - not directly kills

A

B lymphocytes

121
Q

produces specific protein called antibody

A

plasma cells

122
Q

Bind to specific antigen to destroy it
Immunoglobulins
Significant in development of immunity to various diseases

A

Antibodies

123
Q

most common antibody in the blood

major antibacterial, antiviral, and anti toxin antibody

A

IgG

124
Q

first to increase immune response

involved in blood incompatibilities

A

IgM

125
Q

found in secretions

defends on body surfaces

A

IgA

126
Q

binds to mast cells in skin and mucous membranes
Causes release of histamine
Hypersensitivity/allergic reactions

A

IgE

127
Q

attached to and activates B cells

antigen receptor

A

IgD

128
Q

tissue matching for transplant

A

Extensive HLA (MHC) typing

129
Q

occurs when person first exposed to an antigen. antigen recognized and processed. takes 1-2 weeks for the process to complete.

A

primary response

130
Q

repeat exposure to same antigen. more rapid response.

A

secondary response

131
Q

venom antidote

A

antivenins

132
Q

provides long lasting or permanent immunity

herd immunity

A

active immunity

133
Q

provides quick immunity such as in case of exposure to hep. B or rabid dogs.

A

Passive immunity

134
Q

people allergic to MMR are sensitive to…?

A

egg or neomycin

135
Q

people allergic to yeast could be sensitive to which vaccine?

A

Papillomavirus Vaccine (Guardisil)

136
Q

Vaccine used for whooping cough

A

Diptheria, Tetanus toxoid, and Pertussis Vaccine (DTap)

137
Q

Vaccine thats good against 23 strains that cause pneumonia. Used primarily in adults. Given to elderly, high risk children, smokers, and immunocompromised.

A

Pneumococcal Vaccine

138
Q

Live virus (attenuated)

A

flumist

139
Q

vaccine for prevention of shingles (chicken pox)

A

Herpes Zoster Vaccine

140
Q

The immunity that is conducted by T lymphocytes

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity

141
Q

the type of immunity acquired after an individual gets a disease

A

active immunity

142
Q

antibody that is responsible for hypersensitivity reactions

A

IgE

143
Q

antibody that is the most common in the blood

A

IgG

144
Q

the immunity that is conducted by a B lymphocytes

A

humoral immunity

145
Q

the type of response led by memory cells in the acquirement of immunity

A

secondary response

146
Q

the vaccine given to protect the elderly and high risk individuals against pneumonia

A

pneumovax

147
Q

antibody found in secretions

A

IgA

148
Q

the immune cells that engulf antigens

A

phagocytes (dendritic cells, macrophages)

149
Q

type of vaccine you can’t give to individuals allergic to neomycin

A

MMR

150
Q

the t-cell that specializes in bacteria, viruses and cancer cells

A

Killer-T cells (cytotoxic)

151
Q

another name for antibodies

A

immunoglobulins

152
Q

the type of vaccine in which the antigen is somewhat alive

A

attenuated vaccine

153
Q

they type of T call that activates both B and T cells after antigen presentation

A

helper T cells

154
Q

The type of vaccine in which the antigen (virus) is somewhat alive

A

attenuated vaccine

155
Q

another name for antibodies

A

immunoglobulins

156
Q

antibody that is responsible for hypersensitivity reactions

A

IgE

157
Q

the vaccine given to protect individuals from the flu each year

A

influenza vaccine

158
Q

antibody that is the first to increase in immune response

A

IgM

159
Q

type of protection that includes the skin and mucous membranes

A

innate immunity

160
Q

first part of the immune system that greets invaders

A

complement system

161
Q

first step of the complement system when encountering a foreign invader.

A

inflammation

162
Q

type of vaccine is comprised of a weakened toxin

A

toxoid

163
Q

the test that measures specific antibodies

A

Titers

164
Q

gene coding used for tissue typing in transplants

A

HLA

165
Q

the type of replacement therapy given to protect individuals who have weakened immune systems

A

gammaglobulin

166
Q

HAART is designed to prevent this

A

Resistance

167
Q

the type of infection caused by normal flora in an immunosuppressed individual

A

opportunistic infection

168
Q

if this is suppressed too much, individuals have to wait to take Zidovudine (Retrovir)

A

bone marrow

169
Q

GI effect seen in individuals with AIDS

A

malnutrition

170
Q

A temporary state of immunosuppression in women

A

pregnancy

171
Q

individuals need this injection ASAP when having an anaphylactic reaction

A

epinephrine

172
Q

the type of reaction seen in a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction

A

autoimmune

173
Q

low platelets in the blood

A

thrombocytopenia

174
Q

individuals with SLE have this reaction in their blood vessels which eventually causes ischemia and necrosis

A

inflammation

175
Q

Drug classification given to individuals with SLE to control the disease by decreasing immune response

A

corticosteroid

176
Q

low leukocytes in blood

A

leukopenia

177
Q

the adverse affects seen in people taking Ritonavir (Norvir)

A

hyperglycemia

178
Q

an over-the-counter medication given ASAP when individuals begin to experience signs of an allergic reaction

A

antihistamine

179
Q

the drug given to prevent organ rejection by suppressing T lymphocytes

A

cyclosporine

180
Q

another name for hives

A

urticaria

181
Q

another name for itching

A

pruritus

182
Q

The type of lab test that signifies inflammation in the body

A

ESR

183
Q

symptoms seen in patients with AIDS

A

lymphadenopathy

184
Q

This type of drug should be given by mouth asap when individual starts to show signs of an allergic reaction

A

corticosteroids

185
Q

another name for the swelling of the face lips and throat

A

angioedema

186
Q

the typical butterfly mask seen in individuals with SLE is exacerbated with exposure to this

A

Sun

187
Q

this type of reaction is seen in a type 2 cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction

A

transfusion

188
Q

the adverse affects of cyclosporine identified by increases in the BUN and creatine in the body

A

nephrotoxicity

189
Q

the type of organ rejection that occurs months/years after the transplant is done

A

chronic

190
Q

pneumocystitis carni is the #1 cause of what in individuals with AIDS

A

death

191
Q

this drug therapy is used to treat cancer and causes immunosuppression in an individual

A

chemotherapy

192
Q

low red blood cells in the blood

A

anemia

193
Q

this gland shrinks in old age

A

thymus

194
Q

the type of immune response seen in type I hypersensitivity reactions

A

allergic

195
Q

the phase of HIV in which the individual is asymptomatic

A

latent

196
Q

kidney damage has this type of course in SLE

A

progressive

197
Q

Kaposis sarcoma is this type of disease specific to those with AIDS

A

cancer

198
Q

shrinking of thymus gland
decreased antibody response to antigens
decreased circulating memory B cells (slow response)
increased autoantibodies (autoimmune problems, fighting own cells)

A

Elderly immunosuppression

199
Q

Secondary deficiencies in immunodeficiency

A

loss of immune response from specific cause, may occur at any time of life
infections, splenectomy, malnutrition, immunosuppressant drugs, chemotherapy

200
Q

Test to find HIV antibodies in blood

A

Western Blot Test

201
Q

What cells does HIV destroy?

A

Helper T cells (CD4 lymphocytes)

202
Q

Highly active antiretroviral therapy, includes at least three medications, used to treat AIDS.

A

HAART

203
Q

adverse effects of Zidovudine (Retrovir, ZDV)

A

bone marrow suppression (you have to stop taking this medication if bone marrow blood cell counts are too low)
severe anemia and neutropenia
HAART medication

204
Q

Adverse effects of Ritonavir (Norvir)

A

hyperglycemia
fat redistribution (buffalo hump)
increased cholesterol and triglyceride levels
HAART medication

205
Q

GI effects of AIDS

A

chronic severe vomiting and diarrhea

ulcers in mouth -> severe weight loss-> malnutrition

206
Q

Early antihistamine drugs

A

diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

Corticosteroids (prednisone)

207
Q

IgG antibodies react to antigen located on cell membrane and cause lysis of cell in which stage of hypersensitivity. Ex: incompatible blood infusion

A

Type II cytotoxic hypersensitivity

208
Q

Examples of Type III hypersensitivity

A

SLE
rheumatoid arthritis
scleroderma

209
Q

Impaired blood supply to major organs, ischemia and necrosis of tissue
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is high

A

SLE

210
Q

Signs: butterfly mask, joint inflammation, kidney damage, Pleurisy of lungs, Carditis of heart, raynauds phenomenon (white hands bc low circulation), anemia, leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, depression, and mood changes

A

SLE

211
Q

SLE treatment

A

Corticosteroid
avoid sun exposure
avoid excessive fatigue

212
Q

type of hypersensitivity characterized by a delayed response by sensitized T lymphocytes

A

Type IV hypersensitivity

213
Q

vaccine for shingles

A

Herpes Zoster